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12:00 AM
@Jake: I would do spherical coordinates centered at $(x_0,y_0,z_0)$.
DogAteMy: I answered your Riemannian question, although you won't like the answer.
 
Thats what I tried but it got quite messy @TedShifrin
 
Think about symmetry, @JakeRose.
What's the answer if $(x_0,y_0,z_0)=(0,0,0)$?
 
then again this method probably wont work because of the dx integral
 
@TedShifrin can you please check if the proof i wrote is correct?
 
Is that gonna be the same as the answer at any random $(x_0,y_0,z_0)$?
 
12:03 AM
Not quite, @JakeRose. But up to a computable constant it is. I'm assuming you know the answer when the $x$ is missing.
 
Is it just root pi?
 
@GFauxPas: I don't see the end of your argument. What are you saying is the answer to the second question?
@JakeRose: Nope. $a$ comes in there, and there's a difference because you're in 3D instead of 1D.
But you can deduce it knowing the 1D results (corrected for the $a$).
Yeah, @JakeRose, I take back my spherical coords suggestion. Without a $\rho$ integrand it's not gonna work nicely.
 
Whats the best way of doing this?
I trie splitting it up as suggetsed but it gives a slightly nasty x integrand
 
What's $\int_{-\infty}^\infty xe^{-x^2}\,dx$?
 
I dont know sorry
wait
Im being stupid
 
12:08 AM
(a) You can do it explicitly by a simple substitution. (b) Here's where you should think about symmetry. What do you notice about $f(x)$ and $f(-x)$ for the integrand?
 
$f(-x)=-f(x)$?
 
Right. So what does that tell you about area under the curve?
 
=0
 
Yup.
 
Doesnt that imply that the entire integral =0?
 
12:10 AM
Only when $x_0=0$.
Shift your coordinates and rethink.
 
Ted, the last part was that the integral = 0, which is what the q asks
 
Ah, OK, @GFauxPas.
 
:) thank you
 
@Ted +1 on the answer. I still don't quite see what torsion being the Lie bracket really means though, I admit
 
Well, all the algebra goes into torsion. 0 holonomy, 0 curvature.
 
12:14 AM
Well, maybe somewhat. The geodesics are the same, and somehow the twistyness all goes in not being able to complete a square with a flowlines of X and Y
 
You might have gotten a +1 on that answer, but I still have no idea whether geodesics in $\Bbb R^n$ with a strange connection are straight lines, or whether or not this is possible in $\Bbb R^2$.
 
Now what does torsion actually mean? I mentioned spending weeks trying to understand that from Cartan. You have to think about holonomy for the affine connection, but instead of parallel translating vectors around little paths, we think about the base point and how it moves.
DogAteMy: You can make up a connection so that any curve you want will be a geodesic.
 
Compatible with the metric, though?
 
Ted's example is not compatible with the metric is it.
Ah no it is.
 
I didn't think about that, but it probably is.
 
12:17 AM
@TedShifrin Does the integral value change in some 'nice' way? As far as I can tell by shifting it all you do is make the integral either some real positive or negative value?
 
Because everything is invariant.
 
'Cuz inner product of left invariant vector fields are constant
My metric is biinvariant
 
@JakeRose: You can compute that value explicitly!! Let $x-x_0 = u$ and change variables.
 
what's this notation $\int f(x) \, \mathrm d \lambda(x)$, same as $\int f d\lambda$?
 
Are $y_0$ and $z_0$ relevant?
 
12:20 AM
Nope.
Yes, @GFauxPas.
 
is there an advantage to writing it the left way?
 
to put the argument of the function?
 
good call
 
I guess if you want to consider $\int f(x^2)~{\rm d}\lambda(x)$
 
Right. Just like you can write $\int_a^b f$ for the integral of $f$, but then if you want to integrate $x^2$, you really need $\int_a^b x^2\,dx$.
 
12:21 AM
or even $\int f(x)~{\rm d}\lambda(x^2)$ should make sense
 
@TedShifrin I suspect there's some nontrivial restriction on holonomy for a given connection to be compatible with some metric?
The holonomy needs to preserve a fiberwise quadratic form...
 
you mean to say that $\int \phantom{x}^2 d \lambda$ isnt good notation? :P
 
$\int f(x)~{\rm d}\lambda(x^2) = \int f(x)2x\lambda ' (x^2)~{\rm d}x $
 
@TedShifrin is it $x_0 \sqrt(pi)$
 
DogAteMy: Are you forcing me to have the Euclidean metric or just some flat metric on the plane?
Yes, @JakeRose.
 
12:24 AM
How I parse $\int \phantom{x}^2 d \lambda$. It gives nonsense like:
$$\int ~{\rm d}\lambda^{~{\rm d}\lambda}$$
 
\int \phantom{x}^2 d \lambda
you can write click tex expressions and vew the tex
 
And then are the other two integrals (dy and dz) both equal to $\sqrt{pi}$?
 
show math as
 
$\pi$
 
Yup, @JakeRose.
 
12:26 AM
$\phantom{x}$
This opens a whole new world...
 
$\displaystyle \int ~{\rm d}\lambda^{~{\rm d}\lambda}$ looks very mysterious
 
I am not even sure if titration of differential is well defined, need to check
 
So then it evaluates to $x_0 \sqrt{\pi}^3$?
 
OK, I'm outta here. I'll think more about your question, DogAteMy.
 
tetration, stupid Mac thinking too much about chemistry
 
12:27 AM
@JakeRose, yes, but I'd write that as $\pi^{3/2}$.
 
Yeah thats easier
 
10
Q: Exponential of the differential operator

ThiagarajanI am not sure whether this question is even well-posed. But today I learnt that $e^Df(x) = f(x+1)$ where $D$ is differential operator and $$e^D \triangleq \sum_{i=0}^{\infty} \frac{D^i}{i!}.$$ (ref. Dan Piponi's answer) So I was curious as to whether the differential equation $$\frac{df(t)}{d...

there's exponential, but not really tetration
 
Ive got the answer sheet and it says $x_0 (a \sqrt{\pi})^3$?
 
what's 'a'?
 
It was in the original expression
 
12:29 AM
3
Q: Logarithm of differential operator

Emilio NovatiUsing the Taylor series expansion we have (for a sufficiently regular function $f$): $$ f(x+a)=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{f^{(k)}(x)a^k}{k!} $$ So, defining the differential operator $D=\frac{d}{dx}$ and using the series expansion definition of the exponential function, we can write: $$ S_a f(x)=\exp(aD)...

 
Why doesnt it like that notation?
 
there you go
 
but to have $\ln D$, we need the function to be rapidly decreasing
after that, we should be able to define $e^{D \ln D} = D^D$
and so potentially, for a certain class of functions, we can have: $e^{~{\rm d} \ln ~{\rm d} \lambda} = ~{\rm d}^{~{\rm d}\lambda}$
 
I don't think $\ln D$ is defined, similarly to $1/D$
(as integrals are only unique up to constants)
But $\ln(1+D)$ should be fine
and thus $(D+1)^D$ I guess?
 
well, we know what the log-derivative is, so $\ln D$ is simply the derivative-log
(don't treat that seriously)
 
12:33 AM
Yeah if you want the ln to be injective
so $e^{D \ln (D+I)} = (D+I)^{D}$ seemed valid
(I is the identity map)
 
What's $\ln(1+x)$ again? $x-x^2/2+x^3/3-\dotsb$, right?
Alternating?
So I guess $\ln(1+D)f=f-\frac12f''+\frac13f'''-\dotsb$
I don't know if there's a simpler form, like there is with $e^D$
 
ln of maps in general are more restrictive than their exp counterpart, usually only certain maps will have that series to converge
 
Anyone around able to help me with part (d) of this: imgur.com/a/Q3c7o
 
hint, please, anyone?: determine for which $\alpha > 0$ we have $\displaystyle \int_0^1 x^{-\alpha}\, \mathrm d \lambda(x) < \infty$
this one is worth two questions
in difficulty
 
Incidentally, there is a sense in which $e^{e^x}$ is not defined in the ring of formal power series but $ee^{e^x-1}$ does
 
12:37 AM
My problem is regarding functional analysis
 
(though I think in practice we define the former to mean the latter)
I'mma go now for a bit
 
in particular, the map needs to be invertible, which I believe I+D is always invertible, I think (another trouble is that the details of D depends on which space we operate in, it behaves like a shift operator in polynomial and power series spaces)
but for general Banach spaces, I don't have the background yet to guess
$\int_0^1 x^{-\alpha}\, \mathrm d \lambda(x) = \int_0^1 x^{-\alpha}\, \lambda'(x) \mathrm dx$
so I guess when is $x^{-\alpha}\lambda'(x) < \infty$ in [0,1]
 
I dont know what $\lambda'$ means, we didnt define that in class yet
 
Is $\lambda$ just some function on x, or something else?
 
Lebesgue measure
 
12:42 AM
O...., then my above logic is all wrong
 
:) it's okay, I didnt explain the notation in the exposition
 
I am not terribly good at lebesgue integration thus I cannot help without making tons of mistakes
 
I forgot what $x^\ell$ even means when $\ell$ isnt rational
$e^{\ell \ln x}$?
 
Yes. In general, any exponent not rational is defined via exp
 
$$\int_0^1 e^{-\alpha \ln x}\, \mathrm d \lambda(x) < \infty$$
hmm
 
12:48 AM
Problem: Suppose that for some $\epsilon \gt 0$, every $\epsilon$-ball in $X$ has compact closure. Show that $X$ is complete. Proof: Let $(x_n)_{n \in \Bbb{N}} \subseteq X$ be a Cauchy sequence. Then given that $\epsilon > 0$, there exists $N \in \Bbb{N}$ such that $d(x_n,x_m) < \epsilon$ or $x_n \in B(x_m, \epsilon) \subseteq \overline{B(x_m, \epsilon)}$ for every $n,m \ge N$. Choosing $m=N$, we see that $(x_n)_{n \ge N}$ is a sequence contained in a compact metric space, meaning it has a
... convergent subsequence. But that convergent subsequence is also a subsequence of $(x_n)_{n \in \Bbb{N}}$. Hence every Cauchy sequence has a convergent subsequence, which means $X$ is complete.
How does that sound?
 
(Completely unrelated observation) So completeness does not fully characterise what it means to be uncountable
 
1:36 AM
$$\int \sqrt{f(x)}dx$$
Let $f(x)=y^2 \implies x = f^{\leftarrow}(y^2) \implies dx = \frac{df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)}2ydy$
$$\int \sqrt{f(x)}dx = \int \frac{\pm 2y^2 df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)}dy$$
$$ = \pm 2 \left(\frac{y^3}{3}\frac{df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)} - \int \frac{y^3}{3} \frac{d^2f^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{dyd(y^2)}dy\right)$$
 
Hey, quick question: Does anyone know what $L^p(0,1;U)$ could possibly mean, where $U$ is a bounded (open) domain.
 
what's the context that it is being used?
 
$$\int \frac{y^3}{3} d\left(\frac{df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)}\right)$$
Let $z = \frac{df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)}$
$\int z d(y^2) = f^{\leftarrow}(y^2)$
 
1:52 AM
The context doesn’t help.
I know that $L(0,1)$ is all $f\in L^p$ s.t. $f:[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}$.
 
yes
But it is not obvious to me why we need to specify an open domain U in such space
 
You don’t
I suppose it’s not neccesary. It’s just that $U$ is ussually reserved for such a domain. That is just the notation.
 
Unless, it means those $f \in L^p(0,1)$ we are considering, are restricted to some subset $U$
i.e. $f|_U$ might be a possibility
 
Perhaps, but $U\subset\mathbb{R}^n$. It is not an interval.
Maybe $f:U\to (0,1)$ and $f\in L^p$?
 
@majormaki you'd write that the other way around
it could be vector-valued $L^2(0,1)$ functions
but having values in $U\subset \Bbb R^n$ isn't well-defined since $L^p$ functions are defined a.e.
But you could make sense of it, I suppose. Are you sure the context doesn't help?
 
2:05 AM
Yes, and even if it did, I could not give it to you. I do not have it.
Thank you.
 
$L^p$ spaces are defined as $(\int |f|^{p} d\mu)^{\frac{1}{p}} < \infty$, I don't see why we cannot have $f$ being finite supported (i.e. a sequence such that all entries after the nth are zero)
then $f$ could be taken from a vector space and thus it becomes a subset of functionals that live in $L^p$ space
 
 
2 hours later…
3:53 AM
$\int z d(y^2) = f^{\leftarrow}(y^2)$
$\int z2y dy = f^{\leftarrow}(y^2)$
 
Why is it that when you have $v = \langle{x,y,z}\rangle$, $v^n = r^n \langle {sin(n\theta)cos(n\phi),sin(n\theta)sin(n\phi),cos(n\theta)} \rangle$?
 
looks like spherical coordinates stuff
but is v a vector?
 
Sorry I just realized how out of context that was
The Mandelbulb is a three-dimensional fractal, constructed by Daniel White and Paul Nylander using spherical coordinates in 2009. A canonical 3-dimensional Mandelbrot set does not exist, since there is no 3-dimensional analogue of the 2-dimensional space of complex numbers. It is possible to construct Mandelbrot sets in 4 dimensions using quaternions and bicomplex numbers. White and Nylander's formula for the "nth power" of the vector v = ⟨ x , y , z ⟩ ...
I'm trying to understand the math for generating a Mandelbulb
I'm not sure why the 3D shape is defined the way that it is and I'm wondering what I need to learn in order to understand this
 
@XanderHenderson That's your speciality, you might want to help this guy out
Well, I am not even sure if <> is a vector there
 
4:16 AM
I'd love some help, I think this stuff is so cool. I have a grasp on spherical coordinates but I don't know why the $n$ becomes a coefficient of $\theta$ and $\phi$... and how taking a vector to a power even works since dot and cross-products produce scalars, which can't be repeated...
 
 
1 hour later…
5:45 AM
@SethTaddiken the mandelbrot set uses complex numbers, the mandelbulb set uses quaternions. so you'll want to understand quaternions
 
6:08 AM
@anon hey anon :D
 
hey
 
yeey you are here :D
can you please ask me hard question about quotient group
i want to see i understood it well =p
the questions on the book are kinda basic
what you said yesterday was very helpfull , i want to thank ya again for that :D
 
what have you covered about quotient groups, and what kind of questions in the book?
no prob
 
well just an intro from artin book
I want to see how usefull it can be going from a group to a quotient group
like what information can be estracted that was not easy to see workin on G directly
 
you seem to be laboring under the impression that quotient groups were devised to study the original groups
quotient groups just ... are
 
6:12 AM
hmm ><
 
also a big thing in group theory, as in any area of math, is classification, and with classification problems there are questions of constructing new groups. quotients and direct products are two basic ways of constructing new groups out of old ones
 
good point and very bad describtion on my part:D
aha neat
 
give an example of a group G with a normal subgroup N such that both N and G/N are abelian but G isn't
 
easy :D
 
alright
 
6:14 AM
S_3 / <123>
 
A classic exercise is to proof if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is abelian.
 
^
 
okay ill try that thanks :D
here is where i get lost sometimes
i try to picture how G/Z(G) look like
I know it is not important here but ><
okay G/Z(G) is cyclic means there is a coset aZ(G) such that < a Z(G) > = G/Z(G)
 
another exercise to pile on: if H is a subgroup of G, and H is also a set of left coset representatives for a normal subgroup N, then G/N is isomorphic to H. pretty simple.
 
okay thanks :D
okay on the first question, can we write this, a^i Z(G) a^j Z(G) = a^i+j Z(G)
that is how one defined the product of cosets
but am not sure where am going with this -.-'
hmm i need to show that G/Z(G) is just the identity
grrrrrrr
 
6:33 AM
g Z(G) = a^i Z(G)
so a^-i g is an element of the center of G
@anon is that how it is done ?
 
keep trying
 
okay btw nd H is also a set of left coset representatives for a normal subgroup N? what does that mean
that is the second question , wanted to ask in case you left me :D
 
artin didn't use the phrase "set of coset representatives" or somesuch anywhere? or like, the word "transversal" or something?
 
nope ._.
not yet at least
and am not sure why you said keep trying ._.
i showed that our arbitraty element g in G
g= a^i z
where z in Z(G)
picking g' = a^j z'
gg' = a^i z a^j z' , and we can move those z's because they are in the center
and power of same element commute
I notice btw I big difference in the approches used by artin and the first book i used by DF
 
Given an equivalence relation ~ on a set X, we say x is a representative of the equivalence class [x] (defined as {y|y~x}). In particular, given a group G and a normal subgroup N, there is an equivalence relation defined by a~b iff ab^-1 in N. We say X is a set of coset representatives if every coset gN equals xN for a unique x in X.
 
6:39 AM
artin does it way better ._.
 
@KasmirKhaan okay, now you've explained why G is abelian
 
okay let me decrypt that one second :D
 
you hadn't earlier
 
aha =p
Well sometimes i tend to skip things
@anon in that defintion you gave, does the subgroup N has to be normal ?
ab^-1 in N , can be also an equi relation on any subgroup
 
For the equivalence classes of an arbitrary subgroup to be left cosets, you'd have to define a~b by (b^-1)a in H, and for the equiv classes to be right cosets you'd have ab^-1 in H
 
6:43 AM
oh yeah ._.
i mean b^-1 a
 
because (aH=bH iff (b^-1)a in H) and (Ha=Hb iff ab^-1 in H)
 
okay from what i understood now
we have this set X that has 1 element of each coset
its kinda took one representative of all cosets and made a set out of it :D
but the problem here is, it might not be a subgroup
because no guratee that it took the identity elemnt for the coset N
 
it generally isn't a subgroup
 
so G/N isomorphic to that H ( defined that way)
does not make sense if it does not have a group structure
 
If a subgroup H is a set of coset reps for N, then G/N is isomorphic to H
 
6:47 AM
ahaaaaaaa
 
the exercise was to prove that
 
so you did mention that :D
 
I did
 
no no my comfusion was about H
i see now that you included the fact that it is a subgroup to begin with =p
okay let me try it :D
 
I know, I was agreeing that I did include it
 
6:48 AM
haha okay >< am clumzy
 
side question: if G is finite with subgroup H, and n=|G|, m=|H|, then how many subsets X of G are a set of coset representatives for G/H?
 
hmm well the first question is obvious now when i thought about it, we define a map from G/N ---> H
taking the coset aN to that representative in H
this is surjective by defintion
 
and what's the map H->G/N ?
 
a---> aN
 
yep
 
6:56 AM
this is injective also
and a hom , thus an isomorphism ;D
it is a very neat question ._. did you make that up ?
 
How do I show that the only one-dimensional representation of a nonabelian simple group is the trivial representation?
I've been stuck on this for a while, and it seems like it should be easy...
 
yes
@MartinSvanberg first isomorphism theorem
 
nice anon :D ill try the side question now :D
@anon shoundint be n subsets?
 
nope
 
hmm
my idea was , n/m *m
n/m give us the index of H in G
then we have m choices for each representative
oh wait
that does not make sense ><
 
7:00 AM
:)
the (n/m)m part does not make sense, but your reasoning leading up to it did
there are m choices for a representative of each coset, and there are n/m cosets
 
yes it should be m^n/m
grr let me think clearly :D
 
mmhmm
 
yeah it should be that :D
we divide our group into [ G :H] cosets
then we have m choices for each coset
m^(n/m) such subsets :D
 
@anon so the representation is either injective or the trivial representation
 
@MartinSvanberg can it be injective if the rep is 1D and the group is nonabelian?
 
7:05 AM
I'm not following, sorry
The injectivity thing seems wrong to me
 
If the group is simple, every homomorphism out of it is either trivial or injective. That's correct.
 
@MartinSvanberg A representation has a kernel, which is a...?
 
Yep I'm following that the kernel is a normal subgroup
 
Now you have to use the fact the group is nonabelian and the homomorphism is to the abelian group GL(1,C) to conclude it is not injective
 
@TobiasKildetoft hey tobias :D
 
7:07 AM
Ok, and if the rep is 1-dimensional then the quotient is...?
@KasmirKhaan Hi
 
Hey everybody!
 
@Daminark hey :D
 
Thanks @anon @TobiasKildetoft
Took me a fair bit of handholding but I get it now
 
@MartinSvanberg What text are you learning from?
 
7:20 AM
Serre
 
7:32 AM
Given complex numbers $a,b$, is it always possible to find complex numbers $c,d$ with $d\neq 0$ such that both $2c + bd$ and $d(a - bc) - c^2$ are non-negative reals?
There are some obvious cases where it is possible, but if it is always possible, it might be nice to get a systematic way to get such $c$ and $d$.
(it is also clear that we can't always find real $c,d$ like this, even if $a$ and $b$ are real)
 
Any network/graph theorists about? I was just reading about colored graphs and it occurred to me that couldn't one think of multiplex networks equally well as colored networks, where edge colors are assigned according to layer? Or is there some difference that I missed?
 
7:58 AM
How can Id : GL(n, F) -> GL(n, F) be an irreducible representation of GL(n, F)? Isn't every subspace of GL(n, F) invariant under the identity map, and hence reducible?
 
@MartinSvanberg What do you mean by subspace? That is a group, not a vector space.
 
Hm, good point
 
this is not the trivial representation, it is the one where each matrix acts as it usually does (by multiplication).
 
Ah, so it is Id(g)x = gx
 
8:25 AM
@anon stil here? :D
 
 
1 hour later…
9:27 AM
Previously:
$$\int \frac{y^3}{3} d\left(\frac{df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)}\right)$$
Now to choose a suitable f to make the integral simpler
For an invertible function $f^{\leftarrow}=f^{-1}$
$$ = \pm 2 \left(\frac{y^3}{3}\frac{df^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{d(y^2)} - \int \frac{y^3}{3} \frac{d^2f^{\leftarrow}(y^2)}{dyd(y^2)}dy\right)$$
Let $f=ln $. Then $f^{-1}=e$
Thus:
$$ = \pm 2 \left(\frac{y^3}{3}e^{y^{2}} - \int \frac{y^3}{3}2ye^{y^2}dy\right)$$
This is easy to integrate and gives:
 
10:00 AM
'$f$ is complex continuous function on metric space $X$.' Here, what is domain? $X$ or complex numbers?
 
10:44 AM
I suspect there are no metric space valued functions?
 
10:57 AM
$$= \pm 2 \left(\frac{y^3}{3}e^{y^{2}} - \frac{y^3}{3}e^{y^2} + \int y^2 e^{y^2}dy\right)$$
in The h Bar, 2 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
tfw Wittgenstein is @Secret
Looks like we need to increase the [redacted] frequency of h bar
 
11:21 AM
Nah, what are you talking about, lunatic?!, this is wrong calculation!
Fine, Powell off
 
11:39 AM
anyway, the above integral can be integrated, the issue remains is how to recover the original variables
(Gotta be glad that someone actually defines the integral of the gamma function...)
or more generally (to be completed after bath)
 
12:43 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos why is O(Spec(R)) = R? ie why can there not be more functions than the functions in R?
 
12:54 PM
What's O?
 

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