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10:00 AM
but how I can get rid of the g s?
 
@SteamyRoot why?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti how do you show that F(2,6) is infinite?
 
I just learnt what the Fibonacci groups are, no idea
 
but you aren't new to presentations right
 
Let $\varphi$ be an automorphism of $F(2,6)$. Define an equivalence relation (twisted conjugacy) on $F(2,6)$ by $x \sim y \iff \exists z: x = zy\varphi(z)^{-1}$. Then there are either 2 or infinitely many equivalence classes
 
10:01 AM
@SteamyRoot :o
so fast
 
@AlessandroCodenotti It's isomorphic to the (3D) Hantzsche-Wendt group, which is one of the most nicely behaving crystallographic groups, which I do research on.
 
:o you do research
on something i just told u to look up in google
 
I'm a PhD student, so... yeah.
 
sorry :p
 
@SteamyRoot Ah, I see, nice
 
10:03 AM
Well, I don't really know anything about the other Fibonacci groups, except which ones are finite
 
@SteamyRoot ugh, the latter is highly googlable
 
Showing gaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaag=x^29 is some variation of the word problem, right?
 
is that mess the identity?
 
it is, since (fedcbag)a=a
and that mess is what happens when trying to unravel fedcbag into as many a s as possible
 
a note on symmetry might or might not be helpful
since a->b->...->a is an isomorphism
 
10:06 AM
a(bcdefg)=a also
so bcdefg is also a representation of the identity
 
hmm?
 
uh wait, mistake
 
summoning the phd @SteamyRoot :p
 
I don't have a PhD (yet) :P
 
a(bdfaceg)=a
(Can be easily seen by chasing that diagram above until you get back to a)
 
10:08 AM
nice pattern
 
so we know that bdfaceg=fedcbag=1
 
right
 
but without figuring out what the inverses are, we cannot go further.
hmm...
Using the diagram: g(aceg)=a
now checking aceg unravelled:
aceg=aabcdg=aagaabbcg=aagaagagaabg=aagaagagaagag
g (aagaagagaaga) agagaagagaagaagaggaag, that's off by a g, hmm...
fg=a
f=de=bccd=gaababbc=gaagaagagaab=gaagaagagaaga
gaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaag=1
aaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaag=f
aaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaaa=gaagaagagaagaaagaagagaagag
aaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaaaaagaagagaagag=gaagaagagaagaaagaagagaagaa
aaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaaaaagaagagaagaa=gaagaagagaagaaagaagagaagaaaagaagagaagag
gaagaagagaagaaaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaaaaagaagagaagaa=aaagaagagaagaaagaagagaagaaaagaagagaagag
gaagaagagaagaaaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaaaaagaagagaagaaaagaagagaagag=aaagaagagaagaaagaagagaagaaaagaagagaagaa
 
user84215
10:23 AM
Questions about learning math are off-tpoic?
 
ga=b
b(cegbdf)=g
Therefore $a^-1=cegbdf$

ab=c
c(dfaceg)=a
Therefore $b^-1=dfaceg$

bc=d
d(egbdfa)=b
Therefore $d^-1=egbdfa$

There's a pattern of sorts among the inverses...
 
@Secret as I said, transposing the symbols is an isomorphism
 
$\phi (abcdefg)=bcdefga$ is an isomorphism?
 
yes
because of how our group is defined
 
Hi @LeakyNun do you have double accounts? :D
 
10:35 AM
@KasmirKhaan I have not used the second one since April and I won't use it again
I never use both simultaneously
 
@LeakyNun hmm you are no the guy who helped me yesterday ? :o
he had the same name as urs
 
fedcbag=1
$\phi (fedcbag)=\phi(1) \implies edcbagf=1$
hmm, that will allow us to get all expressions of the inverses
 
I changed my profile picture ._.
 
@Secret more like phi(a)=b, phi(b)=c, ... and then you are correct
@KasmirKhaan yes
 
10:37 AM
@LeakyNun Nice nice :D , I got some questions but need to get them orginazed =p
mostly about homomorphism and iso , epimorphism and stuff
 
@KasmirKhaan have you done the exercise yesterday?
googles epimorphism
 
Yes but did not find simpler way
 
ok, go on
 
I did it that way you told me a overkill =p
 
do you want the answer?
 
10:39 AM
but then I gave different solution u said there is better way
Hmm not sure really
xy=zx =e
i need to prove that y=z
 
@KasmirKhaan I'm still the same guy.
 
But the thing is that I think that xy=e implies that yx=e
Haha I know but you helped others for sure so =p
So i found the most easy way is that
yx=zx
and cancel from the right
 
My memory isn't that bad.
 
I know but I allways have to assume worst situation so its allways clear =p
Now I know I can just continue from where we left =p
 
continue then.
 
10:42 AM
Thats the first solution
xy=e ==> yx =e
so yx=e=zx
right cancellation law implies that y=z
 
I already said that's overkill
 
all the axioms of the group are obyed now =p
Yes I know
The other method was
hmm let me think a bit
 
do you recall the proof of xy=e => yx=e?
 
xy=e; yxy=ye=y; yxyy'=yy'=e
 
10:45 AM
fedcbag
edcbagf
dcbagfe
cbagfed
bagfedc
agfedcb
gfedcba

hmm....
 
@LeakyNun hmm yes nice proof :D
 
@Secret heh
 
but that does not seemed to help simplify any of them into just one element powered
 
right
 
@LeakyNun hmm what is the other proof of xy=e=zx
am gonna post the nuke way to my teacher =p
because that was mine, i only curious what ur method is
 
10:51 AM
Btw, I have a new interpretation of homomorphisms: It is the set of symmetries of an algebraic structure such that it preserves its structure.

Just as the elements of the 3x3 rotation matrices acting on a cube rotate the cube around and can result it to remain unchanged, homorphisms are transformations that acts on the whole algebraic structure such that its structure remains unchanged
 
We have that A is not invertible, so there is a nonzero x such that Ax=0, where x has unit norm. How does it follow that I-A has an eigenvalue of 1?
 
(I-A)x=Ix-Ax=x-0=x, hence eigenvalue is one by definition
 
@LeakyNun there exist an element e in G such that xe=x for all x in G
for every x in G there exist an element z in G such that zx =e
show with example that (G,*) does not have to be a group .
show with example means I give them a group from the groups we leaned?
 
11:07 AM
hello
anyone herer?
here?
 
@KasmirKhaan so you want the answer?
@NV-US just ask
 
@LeakyNun No ! :D just what do they mean by "show by example"
 
@KasmirKhaan no... it means give them a non-group that satisfies the two criteria
 
@KasmirKhaan no I mean for the xy=zx=e thing
 
11:11 AM
Let V be a finite dimensional vector space and T : V -> V be a linear
transformation . If there exists a basis B of V consisting of eigenvectors
of T, then T is diagonalizable.
 
@LeakyNun Oh yes I proved it in two ways, but i wanted to see your proof =p
 
how to prove this?
 
@KasmirKhaan y = ey = (zx)y = z(xy) = ze = z
 
help please
 
@NV-US have you done any diagonalization at all?
 
11:12 AM
yes
 
@NV-US we aren't entitled to answer your questions
 
this was given as a theorom in my book
you said just ask
 
@NV-US then just use the same method as you diagonalize
i said just ask, if anyone want to answer then they will
 
@LeakyNun that is much better proofs =p uses exactly what we were given , I took alot from theorems on part a) of the question
 
@NV-US A[v1 v2 ... vn] = [L1v1 L2v2 ... Lnvn]
 
11:16 AM
@LeakyNun Il be looking for an example >< so brb =p
 
= [v1 v2 ... vn] diag(L1,L2,...,Ln)
@KasmirKhaan ok
 
Hello
 
@Evinda hi
 
How can I check if the natural cubic spline that is defined in respect to the partition points {0,1,2,3} and gets the values s(0)=1, s(1)=1, s(2)=0, s(3)=10 is identitical with the following function f?
$f(x)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
1+x-x^3 &, 0 \leq x\leq 1 \\
1-2(x-1)-3(x-1)^2 +4 (x-1)^3& , 1\leq x \leq2\\
4(x-2)+9(x-2)^2-3(x-1)^2 &, 2 \leq x \leq 3
\end{matrix}\right.$
 
@Evinda just check the endpoints and the second derivatives?
 
11:25 AM
I have checked that f(0)=1, f(1)=1, f(2)=0, f(3)=10
@LeakyNun So now should I find the second derivative of f?
if so, why?
 
how is a spline defined?
 
@LeakyNun Ah I saw the definition...So now it suffices to show that f''(0)=0 and f''(3)=0, right?
 
whatever the definition says :p
you just need to apply
 
user84215
The room Math Workshops has been created.
 
user84215
in Math Workshops, 7 hours ago, by MathematicsAminPhysics
This room has been created to hold math workshops. Please inform me of your suggestions to create events for them. Please note that your suggestions need not be very sophisticated; they can be elementary.
 
11:41 AM
@KasmirKhaan how goes the search?
 
@LeakyNun well so far icame to conculusion that , the operation should not be abelian and hmm
@LeakyNun the example can be done on matrcies
 
you can't search for non-groups if you keep seaching groups
 
@LeakyNun dont understant
 
\begin{align}
gaagaagagaagaagagaagagaagaagaggaag & =1\\
f & =gaagaagagaaga\\
gaagaagagaaga & =(agagaagagaagaagaggaag)^{-1}\\
gaagaagagaagag & =(agagaagagaagaagaggaag)^{-1}g\\
a & =(agagaaga gaagaagaggaag)^{-1}g\\
gaaga & =(agagaaga gaagaagag)^{-1}g\\
(aagag)^{-1}gaaga & =(agagaaga gaagaagag aagag)^{-1}g\\
(aagag)^{-1}gaaga & =(agagaagaa)^{-1}g\\
(gagaaga)^{-1}(aagag)^{-1}gaaga & =(aga a)^{-1}g\\
(aagaggagaaga)^{-1}gaaga & =(aga a)^{-1}g\\
(aagaggagaag)^{-1}gaaga & =(aga)^{-1}g\\
(aagaggagaagg)^{-1}gaaga & =(aga)^{-1}
 
@KasmirKhaan do you know what you want to find?
 
11:46 AM
Yes
xe=x for all x in G
that has to be ex=x for all x in G also
so the non -group wont fail that one
 
I take that as a no
 
I do
I have to find a non-group
 
what kind of non-group?
 
where xe=x for all x in the set G
 
More accurately, what kind of magma?
 
11:48 AM
and zx=e for all x in G
 
that isn't right
 
Hmm
I dont get it then
 
Are
xe=x
zx=e
the only eqautions?
 
they want an example of a set
 
nvm you edited
 
11:49 AM
okay =p
they want an example of a set, where those hold but it is not a group
so it fails somehow
 
no asso?
 
my point of attack was
the left and right inverse are not the same
hmm
if I work on matrices such that the determinant is =0
 
you can't say that yet
 
@LeakyNun Ok, thanks
 
Yes I know just brain-storming
 
11:51 AM
@KasmirKhaan Can you list all the axioms and equations you have for you structure?
 
I have also an other question @LeakyNun
Suppose that $\frac{1}{2} \leq q \leq 1, G(x)=\frac{3x-qx^2}{2}$.

I have found that a nonzero fixed point of $G$ is $x^{\ast}=\frac{1}{q}$. How can we find an interval for which the fixed point method will converge certainly to $x^{\ast}$ ? @LeakyNun
 
@LeakyNun there exist an element e in G such that xe=x for all x in G
for every x in G there exist an element z in G such that zx =e
this was given. so we have right identity and left inverse
 
yes
 
we are supposed to prove this by example not a real proof
 
Is the magma a semigroup (i.e. is it associative?)
 
11:53 AM
we cant take a abelian operation
 
@Evinda you want to compare G(x) and x
 
So we take the difference? And then? @LeakyNun :/
 
@KasmirKhaan "find"ing a group might not be the right path
I mean, a non-group
 
abelian is not the same as associativity
 
@Evinda work out where it is positive
 
11:54 AM
We need to know whether this magma is associative
 
@LeakyNun hmm yes I know , I meant we take some elements , few matrices that have left inverse but not right inverse on that set
 
you don't need to do this
do you know the course you are studying?
 
okay , yes abstract algebra =p
 
Ok, so it's a semigroup with right identity and left inverse
 
matrices are not abstract enough
 
11:56 AM
okay i get it ><
abstract example =p
hmm
if I do a table
i need to have e, a,b,c say
ab=e but ba=c
but there is some structure I cant destroy =p
 
@LeakyNun It is positive in one of the intervals (0, 1/q) or (-oo, 0) U (1/q,+oo), right?
 
like I cant just make up an example by putting info there
 
What do we get from that?
 
@KasmirKhaan what does the axioms you have tell you?
@Evinda you basically listed out the entirety of the reals
 
What do you mean? @LeakyNun
 
11:59 AM
@LeakyNun any element * indentity = that element back and for each element , if we multiply it on the left it gives the identity
 
someone hasn't learnt the tabular representation of a grpup
 
><
Ermm the tabular representation makes sure that the table is "latin square"
 
@Evinda which one is it?
 
if it is not latin square structure then it is not a group
 
you don't need a group
 
12:01 PM
I know
so I make an example such that 2 elemets appear in same row or colum
while ofc obeying the 2 criteria given
x*e=x for all x and zx=e for all x
 
user84215
I think all inactive rooms have become active because of my posts.
 
@LeakyNun Do we also check in which intervals G(x)-x<0 and the desired interval is the one that we didn't get at the two cases?
 
Do not post irrelevant stuff in the gamedev chat room, else insta ban
 
@KasmirKhaan so you can already fill in some spaces of the table
 
@LeakyNun I made one on papper but ill put in on paint and post it here =p
 
user84215
12:06 PM
@Secret They are not irrelevant. They are about Math Workshops .
 
@Evinda sorry I'm not too familiar
 
gamdev chat room is one of the most strict chat room. Even the slightest off topic-ness will attract mods and result in ban and delete posts
 
@KasmirKhaan or you can just type it out
you don't need to use LaTeX
 
That's what happened to me. but perhaps, because of how quaternions are related to 3D rotations, perhaps they might foudn that not so off topic and it stayed
 
user84215
Thanks for your advice.
 
12:11 PM
 
@MathematicsAminPhysics they're game developers and your math workshops are at best tangentially related to what they do
 
@LeakyNun hopes you can see it ><
 
Thus, they'll most likely take it as off-topic
 
@KasmirKhaan why isn't it a group?
 
@LeakyNun because for example ab= e and ba =c
if it was a group it would be equal , ab =ba =e
 
12:13 PM
alright.
 
:D
I wonder if this can be done using 3 elements only
 
user84215
@Daminark I hope this does not happen for my posts.
 
go ahead
 
Ill work on it now =p
 
user84215
They are very useful.
 
12:14 PM
but with 2 elements it cant
@LeakyNun It cant be done on 3 elements =p
 
You gotta be careful about relying on these self-perceptions too much. People typically see their own suggestions as being far more useful than other people see them. And more often than not, the latter is right
 
ab= e, ba cant be equal to a , b nor e
 
why must ab=e?
 
because if a*b=a for example , means that b =e
xe=x for all x
 
But the real point is that the context of your workshop is such that in a math room, it's relevant, elsewhere it borders on spam
 
12:17 PM
why would ab=a imply b=e?
@secret I'm asking him
 
a*b=a , can only be done if b were the identity
 
why?
 
from x*e=x for all x in G right?
well hmm
 
Leaky: I will let you to deal with it, I am heading back to chemistry
 
does xe=x for all x exclude ab=a? @KasmirKhaan
from the former you get ae=a.
does ae=a and ab=a imply e=b?
 
12:20 PM
@LeakyNun hmm let me think
Yes
we have the left inverse
 
when working with axiomatic disciplines, one must dispose of previous knowledge.
@KasmirKhaan continue
 
@LeakyNun Yes that what I need to train myself on =p
I need to base my proof on the axioms given =p
 
indeed.
 
Ehm well if we multily by a' from the left
we know the left inverse exists
we do get e=b
 
@KasmirKhaan for the last time: do not skip any step.
 
12:23 PM
(a'a)b=a'a --> b=e
Yes sorry was writing it :D
 
a'ab isn't well-defined
 
Now it is :D
 
what justifies that bracket?
 
associative law ( given )
 
when you multiply ab on the left by a', you only get a'(ab).
when was it given?
 
12:24 PM
its part c) of the question
we are given associative binary operation
 
We (I and Secret) asked you three times whether associativity is given
 
Omg sorry :(
Did not see that
 
if it is then your 4-element example is wrong: a=ae=a(bc)=(ab)c=ec=c
 
Was to many texts and i was working on paint, looked only when it pings
hmm
 
back to your three-element example
so ab can't be a
 
12:26 PM
Okay
 
can it be b?
 
hmm nothing wrong with that =p
 
continue then
 
Okay working on it
 
hi fisherman @MatsGranvik
 
12:32 PM
blue=given
 
@LeakyNun hi
 
@Secret who gave you aa=ab=e?
 
o wait, nvm
Btw, Kasmir want ab=e I recall
 
all roads lead to rome
 
I nned 5 mins break
ill come back shortly
with a solution =p
 
12:35 PM
@Secret have you ever constructed the field with 4 elements?
 
One thing is clear: For 3 elements, You cannot have the ba=e (i.e., the es not forming a column), else you will find you are making $\Bbb{Z}/3$

nope, I have not done any field constructions in the past, because of how most of the things I interested in relies on breaking most of the nice things
 
@Secret you might be interested in building $a^2 b^2 a^{-2} b^{-2}$ using words of the form $gaba^{-1}b^{-1}g^{-1}$ where $g$ is a word with $a$ and $b$
 
Semigroup with left identity, right inverse
 
bonus: right identity :p
 
Another possibility (to be checked by having instead eb=e)
 
12:44 PM
how did you check associativity? I find it to be a logistic nightmare
(ab)b = eb = b; a(bb) = ae = a; back to the drawing board @Secret
 
ooops, forgot to check associativity
(I have yet to figure out how to do it for infinite groups, but for finite groups, if you multiply a row of the cayley table with some element on the left, it should return another row of the cayley table)
 
why?
 
Hello, Any of the moderators is here?
 
@Secret right, composition of left-map
 
My guess is that the morphism "multiplication on the left" or "multiplication on the right" on the cosets is a homomophism of some sort, but I have not checked that in detail yet
 
12:47 PM
your theorem is right but I don't think it applies
for all a in G: aG=G=Ga
wait, it might not be a homomorphism
never mind
 
but the way baS=cS suggest there is some kind of pattern
where b,a,c are some elements in the semigroup S
 
a = de = bce = eace = cdace = abdace => bdace=1; a = de = dcd = dcbc = dcbab = dcbaea => dcbae=1
@Secret right
@Secret maybe you would like this one: aa=bb=cc=(ab)^3=(bc)^3=(ac)^2=1
 
O btw, Kasmir is right, the 3 element semigroup with left inverse and right identity with ab=e is impossible since the triple abe will always fail the associative law
 
hmm
 
This is because $be\neq e$ by definition, and we already checked that $bb\neq e$
and $ba=e$ will turn it into $\Bbb{Z}/3$
 

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