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12:05 AM
@Jeff $\newcommand{\d}{\operatorname d\!}$According to Wolfram Alpha, it's not an elementary function. Specifically, it's equal to $\displaystyle\frac12x\sin(x^2)-\frac12\int\sin(x^2)\d x$, and it is known that $\displaystyle\int\sin(x^2)\d x$ isn't elementary.
 
wolfram alpha gave me something about a Fresnel intgral @AkivaWeinberger
 
Yeah, $\int \sin(x^2)\d x$ is essentially the definition of the Fresnel integral (except scaled a bit)
There's a $\frac12\pi$ in the definition for some reason, not sure why
 
@akiva this is a homework problem for a calc 2 class.
 
You sure you didn't copy the problem incorrectly?
 
sure.
 
12:09 AM
Like, maybe it's just $\int x\cos x^2\d x$
instead of $x^2$ twice
 
that's also part of the problem
 
Huh
I dunno
 
it gives several integrals to do. i'll find it again and post them
haha, the instructions say to calculate FOUR OF the following integrals: $x \cos x^2, x^2 \cos x^2 (the one i can't do), x^2 \cos x, x^2 \cos^2 x, x \cos^2 x$. @akiva
 
Why would they do that
 
next time i'll read the instructions
 
12:14 AM
That just seems intentionally mean
 
that's what these types of problems are. they're "workshops". supposed to be multi-step, thought-provoking questions.
so yeah... intentionally mean :D
 
 
1 hour later…
1:23 AM
Hey guys! Quick question about lin alg - can anyone give me some intuition on the relationship between kernel and image of a nonsquare matrix?
If we're given a 3x4 matrix, there can only be max im size of 3, right? This means the kernel cannot be nontrivial in this case? Just making sure
 
1:53 AM
@MikeMiller If you don't mind helping me I'm here
 
Well, you should start with why it's true; we can work on relevance after that.
 
@MikeMiller Ok
@MikeMiller I don't see what to do with that $\mathbb R^{m-n}$
 
what does it mean to be in $F^{-1}(\{y\} \times \Bbb R^{n-1})$
 
What I can show is that $f^{-1}(y)\subset F^{-1}(\{y\}\times \mathbb R^{m-n})$
But not equality
@MikeMiller that $F(x)\in \{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n}$
 
@0celo7 well, that doesn't actually make sense, because the two things you wrote there live in different spaces
 
2:03 AM
@MikeMiller typo
 
@0celo7 and decompose this further?
 
@MikeMiller $(f(x),L(x))\in \{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n}$
$f(x)\in \{y\}$ and $L(x)\in\mathbb R^{m-n}$
 
and what's the deal with the latter
 
well this is always true
 
so conclude
 
2:06 AM
$f^{-1}(y)\subset F^{-1}(\{y\}\times \mathbb R^{m-n})$
Hmm, maybe it's $\supset$.
 
it's both
 
I don't see that
 
you just pointed out that the latter set is the same as the set of $x$ such that $f(x) \in \{y\}$ and $L(x) \in \Bbb R^{m-n}$
agreed?
 
No
 
let me know when you agree
 
2:08 AM
Because I'm not convinced that $L(f^{-1}(y))=\mathbb R^{m-n}$
 
that's fine, since it's false
 
then I don't understand what you want me to prove
@MikeMiller Ok I agree
 
now the rest of the point is you invert $F$ to get a map $F^{-1}: V \to U$; restrict this to $\{y\} \times \Bbb R^{m-n}$ to get a chart on $f^{-1}(y) \cap V$ near $x$
 
Oh of course
I think...
@MikeMiller you mean $f^{-1}(y)\cap U$, right?
not $V$
 
yeah, sorry, I stuck that in the wrong place
$F^{-1}: \{y\} \times \Bbb R^{m-n} \cap V \to f^{-1}(y) \cap U$
 
2:23 AM
@MikeMiller Ok, so $F^{-1}(\{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n}\cap V)=F^{-1}(\{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n})\cap F^{-1}(V)=f^{-1}(y)\cap U$?
 
yeah
 
Ok, but why isn't it true in the other direction?
 
don't know what that means
 
I'm probably being dumb, but why doesn't $F^{-1}(\{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n})=f^{-1}(y)$ imply $F(f^{-1}(y))=\{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n}$?
I mean, Milnor literally says "Note that $f^{-1}(y)$ corresponds, under $F$, to the hyperplane $\{y\}\times\mathbb R^{m-n}$."
 
in general neither $f(f^{-1}(A))$ nor $f^{-1}(f(A)) = A$
 
2:27 AM
@MikeMiller Ok I know that, but I'm curious about his wording (poor phrasing on my part)
 
your first question is not the same as the second... I mean "why doesn't blah imply blah" is answered by "cuz it doesn't", which is what I just said
 
I know I know
But Milnor literally says it!
 
He says some words that you interpreted to mean something false
 
@MikeMiller So "$A$ corresponds to $B$ under $f$" does NOT mean $f(A)=B$?
How is one supposed to know that?
 
clearly not since as you say it's obviously false; as above it means $f^{-1}(B) = A$. now you know it, and will leave a happy and productive life
 
2:31 AM
@MikeMiller but how is the reader supposed to know that
If I hadn't asked you I would have sat for another 4 hours staring at it, or more
 
I'm sorry to hear that. I'm not really interested in talking about his choice in language.
 
...thanks
 
2:55 AM
hello guys
does anyone here know of any good books on the topic of simulating the traveling salesman problem?
 
 
2 hours later…
5:12 AM
I suppose it'd be mean to answer this question...
0
Q: How to define a function recruisively?

MathDiscrete I'm currently trying to work out a function where f(x) = 2x + 4 The question is to define f(x) recursively I'm unsure what this means, I have an idea of how to do it but I'm not sure if it's right. The way I thought of doing it was: f(0) = 2*0 + 4 = 4 f(1) = 2*1 + 4 = 2 + 4 = 6 f(2) = 2*2 + 4...

with "By defining it recursively." (as a comment)
 
hello
 
@Semi
@Semiclassical I think the following should work:

Define $f(n) = f_n$.
Then $f_n = 2n+4 = 2(n-1) +4+2 = f_{n-1}+2$.
Hence $f_n = f_{n-1}+2$ is the required recurrence relation
 
Perhaps. I was making a joke, not a judgment on the question.
 
oh my bad
 
5:22 AM
np
 
so uh... anyone familiar with the traveling salesman problem?
 
 
1 hour later…
6:46 AM
Hi all, I need a small hint and don't have my calculus books at hand. I need an approximation for z-->infinity. For small z I know Taylor, what do I need for large z?
My function goes like sin(sqrt(x^2+a)-x)
(I know the solution would scale with 1/x, but I want to know how to get there)
 
7:12 AM
Hi, can someone help me with a logic problem?
its the 'green eyes' or 'common knowledge' problem, I typed up a solution here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1815471/…, but I'm not sure if its accurate
 
 
1 hour later…
 
2 hours later…
10:01 AM
Hey, is there someone here right now who's familiar with smooth manifolds?
 
I know a little bit about them.
What's your question?
 
I just need some verification that I got the definition of the rank of a map f:M->N right
 
What about them?
 
so to find the rank of f at a point p, I just need a chart on M near p, say (phi,U) a chart on N near f(p), say (psi,V), and then the rank of f at p is the rank of the Jacobian of psi°f°phi^-1?
*at p
 
That's right. You need local coordinates around $p$ and $f(p)$, and look at the rank of $Df$ at $p$.
 
10:05 AM
okay, thanks a lot!
 
Er, no problem.
 
Huy
@BalarkaSen: do you know what to call groups satisfying the following two properties?
1) if $g, h \in G$ are not conjugate, there exists a finite group $F$ and a homomorphism $\varphi: G \to F$ such that $\varphi(g)$ and $\varphi(h)$ are not conjugate and
2) if $\varphi: G \to G$ is an automorphism such that $\varphi(g)$ is conjugate to $g$ for all $g \in G$, then there exists some $h \in G$ such that $\varphi(g) = h g h^{-1}$ for all $g$.
 
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ that is half the population of a continent large country
all gathered in one place ? makes me wonder if the crust is unbalanced in this exact spot of the earth ?
 
Huy
10:23 AM
I think the first property is called conjugacy seperable
no idea for the second, something like "pointwise inner implies inner"
 
10:47 AM
@Huy No idea
Ask Tobias, maybe.
 
11:00 AM
Hello
Lemma: Let $\psi \in C_C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^n), \psi \geq 0, \int \psi(x)dx=1, \psi_{\epsilon}(x)= \epsilon^{-n} \psi{\left( \frac{x}{\epsilon}\right)}, \epsilon>0$. Let $f \in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $f_{\epsilon}(x)=f \ast \psi_{\epsilon}=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(y) \psi_{\epsilon}(x-y) dy$. Then $f_{\epsilon} \in C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^n), f_{\epsilon} \to f$ in $L^2$ while $\epsilon \to 0$. Furthermore $||f_{\epsilon}||_{L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)} \leq ||f||_{L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)}, \epsilon>0$.
In order to show that it is differentiable:
 
"Formally currents behave like (Schwartz) distributions on a space of differential forms. In a geometric setting, they can represent integration over a submanifold, generalizing the Dirac delta function, or more generally even directional derivatives of delta functions (multipoles) spread out along subsets of M."
lolwut, multipole is directional derivative of Delta function? You can define delta functions on more than a point, but on a submanifold???
 
 
2 hours later…
12:38 PM
Hi folks,
I couldn't find a room dedicated to statistics in Math.SE
The question didn't get much attention in Cross Validated, too
so I decided to move it to Math.SE
May you have a look at the following question
and tell me if there's any problem in the way of asking?
that doesn't attract much attention!!!
0
Q: Can we model this set of experiments as an stochastic process and estimate the sample size?

sepidehI have an image with the size 5575x9440 and I'm implementing a modified version of the algorithm used in this paper on it, but because the code performance is low right now, I have divided the image to 52628 submatrices of the size 25x40 (1000 pixels) and my first experiments show that some line...

 
1:41 PM
hi guys!
I have question on how to calculate the expected value for an uniform distribution. $E(u^2)$, where u~unif(0,1).
Now this evaluates to integral of $\int_{0}^{1} u^2 f(u).du. $
In a lecture I the prof. wrote $f(u)$ as 1.
I am unsure how you take it out of the integration.
Reference: youtube.com/watch?v=Tci---bVs60 Time 42:20
 
2:26 PM
guys I forgot whether $A^B$ means functions from $A$ to $B$ or vice versa
 
@SoumyoB If $A$ has $2$ elements and $B$ has $3$, there are $2^3$ functions from $B$ to $A$
Since we want to have $|A^B|=|A|^{|B|}$ we define $A^B$ to be the functions from $B$ to $A$
 
ahhhh right I should have thought of it that way
Thanks @AkivaWeinberger
 
Also:
$(A^B)^C$ and $A^{B\times C}$ have a natural bijection when we define it like this
$f(c)(b)$ and $f(b,c)$
 
yeah I guess we wanted the notation of sets as exponents to be as close to algebraic expressions as possible
by the way where are you from @AkivaWeinberger
I had a strong gut feeling you're from Russia xD
 
Nope, NYC
Where did "Russia" come from?
@SoumyoB
 
2:41 PM
well it was just a gut feeling...
may be because of your name?
also I have a stereotype in mind that Russians are expert as hell in math
 
3:11 PM
Weinberger is a sort of German surname, not Russian.
 
Jewish name
 
"Akiva" is Jewish, yes.
@AkivaWeinberger What's up?
 
Just had my last math class
 
Last?
 
We just did some exercises (Rudin Chapter 3, sequences and series), kinda boring honestly
 
3:19 PM
I think analysis is boring if not put in a larger context, yes. But then I do not know too much analysis.
 
Last this year, yeah. Tomorrow's my last day of school but my teacher has a funeral to go to that day apparently
 
Oh, are you going to a university, then?
 
The subset as a whole isn't boring, the exercises kind of were
What?
No, last day of school this year, I mean
 
Gotcha.
 
Going into 11th grade
 
3:22 PM
@AkivaWeinberger The exercises may seem ad-hoc, if that's what you are saying.
But I found sometimes putting them in a larger context helps them motivate.
 
4:00 PM
@AkivaWeinberger *Subject, not subset
There was one exercise about how, assuming $a_n\ge0$, if $\sum a_n$ converges then so does $\sum\sqrt{a_n}/n$
I don't know if I solved it the intended way
 
@AkivaWeinberger In what schools do they teach Rudin? (just curious)
 
4:19 PM
if $X$ is a stochastic process, then how do we prove that it's a Martingale if its expectation remains constant throughout the entire filtration?
 
@AkivaWeinberger Cauchy-Schwarz?
 
Hey @MikeMiller
Could you maybe take a look at my question?
0
Q: Show property of convolution

EvindaProposition: Let $ u, v \in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n) $ then $ \widehat{u \ast v}=\widehat{u} \cdot \widehat{v}$. Proof: We want to show that $\mathcal{F}^{-1} (\widehat{u} \cdot \widehat{v})=u \ast v $. We have that $ |\widehat{u} \cdot \widehat{v}| \leq \frac{1}{2}|\widehat{u}|^2+\frac{1}{2} |\wideha...

 
4:47 PM
@BalarkaSen Ohh. This?:$$\sum\frac{\sqrt{a_n}}n\le\sqrt{\sum a_n\sum\frac1{n^2}}$$
That works a lot better than what I had.
I had $\sum\sqrt{a_n}/n\le\sum(a_n+1/n^2)$, which is proven by considering separately the cases $a_n>1/n^2$ and $a_n\le1/n^2$.
 
If $|u(-x)| \to 0$ while $x \to +\infty$ it doesn't also hold that $|u(x)| \to 0$ as $x \to +\infty$, right?
 
Is $u$ any function? What about $u(x)=e^x$? @Evinda
 
@AkivaWeinberger That's right.
 
So, right, it doesn't always hold
 
@AkivaWeinberger A function $u \in H_s$, where $H_s=\{ u \in S'(\mathbb{R}^n): (1+ |\xi|^2)^{\frac{s}{2}} \widehat{u}(\xi) \in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)\}$
 
5:19 PM
@BalarkaSen Did you have thoughts about either of the things I asked?
 
@MikeMiller Nope, sorry, I have been busy today. Probably will get back to you tomorrow.
 
5:34 PM
anyone knows how do we put this kind of thing on wolfram or desmos $$
f(x) =
\begin{cases}
1+x,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\ 0\leq x\leq2 \\
3-x,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, 2<x\leq3
\end{cases}
$$
 
5:55 PM
This problem hurts my eyes to look at: math.stackexchange.com/q/1816176/137524
 
6:14 PM
@user1618033 hey, writing details to ur book now ?
 
hehe, precisely! These hours were painful, I rewrote a couple of parts from a proof again and again and I wasn't content with what I had till now when I've found a brillinant way of proving things.
@Agawa001 Some hours here may be painful (until you find that satisfactory way of writing things).
 
user147690
6:39 PM
I can't see a latex symbol for some reason in the lists, and I can't get it on dextify, it's like a smaller version of $\vee$ in the superscript, like $L^\vee$ (for the dual of an invertible sheaf is the context)
 
user147690
Smaller and flatter
 
@Semiclassical Professor Hofstadter's lecture on YouTube hurt my ears :P
 
$\lor$
$\lor$ vs $\vee$
huh, guess they're the same
 
Hi everyone
somone know what does 'plane conic' mean?
 
6:46 PM
I was searching and I don't find any exact definition
Only about section conics
 
a conic cut by a plane
 
I have the following question: Show that any smooth projective curve of genus zero over a field K is isomoprhic to a plane conic over K
But what does plane conic mean?
 
A conic in $\Bbb P^2$.
 
user147690
Ahh sure, I just found the one I had in mind, although it uses a package
 
user147690
$\sqsmile$ and $\sqfrown$
 
6:51 PM
at the very least I've seen something about the size of vee in print, tho of course I don't know what they actually used
 
user147690
Seems fair, I'll try out the symbol they 'made' for me, or I'll just use the \vee. Since apparently the package is bad
 
user147690
in TeX, LaTeX and Friends, 3 mins ago, by yo'
@AlexClark Don't load mnsymbol, it's insane
 
user147690
in TeX, LaTeX and Friends, 2 mins ago, by yo'
@AlexClark it's intended for use with Minion fonts, and it changes a lot of things. It's visually incompatible with any other font, IMHO
 
like the little yellow cartoon ddues?
 
user147690
I certainly hope not haha
 
user147690
6:56 PM
Mike's answer was more relevant^
 
7:47 PM
ok, I think I am free tonight. time to do math.
 
Why is there complex analysis but no quaternion analysis
Does the lack of commutativity make everything worse?
 
yes. I wrote about some quaternion calculus here.
 
but it should be very much more complicated than complex analysis. the whole reason complex analysis is different than real analysis is because of the automorphism on C coming from multiplication by i. Here you have a whole lot more "natural" automorphisms.
 
8:02 PM
most of the cool stuff from quaternions comes from the geometry and lie theory, not generalization of complex analysis
 
I'm curious what happens if you try to integrate $1/z$ on a 3-sphere around the origin.
 
what do you mean by dz when z is a quaternion?
 
There should be some analogue for differential forms, but everything would be noncommutative :S
 
Why would that be harder than in $\Bbb C$ or $\Bbb R$?
Oh, sorry, I don't actually know about forms
 
what do you mean by integrating 1/z on a 3-sphere? if you just mean integrate 1/z with respect to |dz|, then even that would be 0 over C by symmetry.
 
8:09 PM
Hm. Forget integrating on 3-spheres — just integrating on a circle would be interesting. If the path is a subset of $\Bbb C\subseteq\Bbb H$, it depends on if the origin is inside it, but you can homotopy one to the other, so what happens there?
 
you mean you can homotopy a circle in H to a circle in C?
you'd have to be careful about homotopying in H changing the value of the integral probably.
for instance you can homotopy a (loop not around 0 in C) through H to a (loop around 0 in C)
 
Right, that's essentially what I just said
 
@AkivaWeinberger I mean, over C, you declare dz = dx + idy. But here you'd need to write it as dx1 + idx2 + jdx3 + kdx4, and everything would be noncommutative.
 
Ah.
You can still define integration over paths and loops, though, right?
 
you get two versions depending on if you put dz in front of or behind the integrand, but yes
 
8:14 PM
Oh, I see.
 
you have to store the information about the algebra of H somehow. i don't know how to do that easily, is all I am saying.
 
the differential equation x'(t)=x(t)a(t) would be interesting over the quaternions. essentially if you draw a path on a 2-sphere, there is a path in SO(3) which effectively rotates the sphere so a particle moves along the path, and to find the "best" such path you'd solve that differential equation in H.
 
Huh, apparently Mike knows a little about this
If there is you should be able to find it in here. Note that the correct definition of a quaternion holomorphic function is that it satisfies a certain version of the Cauchy-Riemann equations, not that the limit $\lim_{h \to 0} h^{-1}(f(x+h)-f(x)$ exists. That paper proves that such functions are actually linear, IIRC. — Mike Miller Oct 14 '15 at 21:21
 
I read that paper once is all. I'm sure anon knows more than I do about this.
 
8:21 PM
I was mostly just amused at what happens when you try to write down the naive notion of quaternion differentiable. It's probably reasonabłe to assume that the CR equariona give a much better theory.
There are also good notions of quaternionic geometry, but in defining those you tend not to use quaternionic charts etc.
 
I was told my Q&A post pair is unclear
is it clear now?
 
Huy
@MikeMiller: any idea?
 
You guys talking about quaternions?
 
the first condition is "conjugacy-separable group"
 
Mike, I can't say I understand that arxiv paper
 
8:33 PM
I suspect there's no name for condition (2) - see here
 
@TheGreatDuck I asked about "quaternion analysis," which apparently is a thing (though not well-known, and the noncommutativity messes everything up)
 
I can't say I remember anything about it, other than the one theorem
 
suggestion: learn some complex analysis (or more fundamentally, real analysis, which you seem to be studying of late) before learning quaternionic analysis.
i am sure a time will come, then, when you could understand that paper. :)
 
I know complex analysis
Mostly
 
good for you.
 
8:40 PM
@BalarkaSen To be honest, that sounded a bit condescending
 
my suggestion? I truly didn't mean to sound condescending.
 
Ah, the thing I was thinking of wasn't in the afore-linked paper; see rather theorem 1 here
as expected it's just sort of bad luck that the naive notion of derivative doesn't work, and you want to use a different definition, which gives something flavored rather like complex analysis
 
I must be making a simple mistake, can someone help me out? I'm trying to verify that if $s_k = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{2^k}$ then $s_k = \frac{2^k - 1}{2^{k-1}}$. It's clear that $s_1 = \frac{2^1 - 1}{2^0} = 1$. Suppose it holds for some $k \geq 1$. Now $$s_{k+1} = s_k + \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{2^k - 1}{2^{k-1}} + \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{2^{k+2} - 2^2 + 1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{2^{k+1} - \frac{3}{2}}{2^k}.$$ Of course I'm expecting that $\frac{3}{2}$ to instead be 1.
 
I just naturally assumed Akiva doesn't know a lot of complex analysis as he's working on real analysis, so suggested that he should do that before learning the quaternionic version. I of course do not know much real or complex analysis, let alone quaternionic analysis.
(sorry for late follow-up; got disconnected)
 
I don't think people really much do quaternionic analysis per se.
 
8:51 PM
I can believe that.
 
@TylerGaona note that $s_k=\sum_{k=0}^\infty 1/2^k$ does not actually make any sense
you presumably mean $s_k=\sum_{j=0}^k 1/2^j$, which is the $k$th partial sum of $\sum_{j=0}^\infty 1/2^j$.
 
@arctictern @arctictern yeah sorry i meant the finite sum $s_k = \sum_{j=0}^k \frac{1}{2j}$
that is, $2^j$
 
('Cause on the right, $k$ is a dummy variable, and on the left it isn't)
 
in which case $s_k=(2^{k+1}-1)/2^k$ is the correct formula. (note $s_1=1+1/2=3/2$.) your stuff has indices off by 1.
 
Oh I see it now. Thanks a lot!
 
You can do alright at answering the question for $r=1$. For $r=2$ it's already too hard for me.
 
We can cover $M_{m, n, 1}$ in general with open sets parametrized by $(\Bbb R^n - \{0\}) \times \cdots \times (\Bbb R^n - \{0\}) \times \Bbb R^{m-1}$ similarly, I think.
So I suppose the same argument generalizes. The normal flips sign while moving from chart-to-chart.
Yeah, weird. I don't know anything much about the topology of $M_{m, n, r}$ ("how does it look like?") either.
 
There's some combinatorics involved which you haven't done... in particular $M_{m,1,1}$ is obviously always orientable
 
9:18 PM
Yikes, right.
Eh, I guess I can only certainly say $M_{2, n, 1}$ is not orientable then.
Hmm, not immediately clear how to generalize this (the question mentions $M_{3, 3, 1}$ is orientable, so I suppose not all nontrivial M_{m, n, 1}$'s are nonorientable).
Forget the normal thing I said, that's nonsense.
 
9:55 PM
Hello.
 
hey
how goes?
 
Pretty good, hopefully will get some math done today. Yourself?
 
Similar situation, except more tired I think :)
I'm not yet hungr, but if I wait long enough I will be and the stores will be closed
I just got back from a long weekend and a couple weeks at my grandma's house, so the fridge is pretty empty.
Hoping that MSE chat would help me pass some time, but it's the slow time of day
 
Ahhh, yeah I'm not quite tired but only because I woke up at an embarrassingly late time.
 
What are you doing nowadays with the maths?
 
10:08 PM
Learning some topology and working on, more or less, a combinatorial problem. You?
 
This is my kind of guy :P
I'm blogging a lot right now, which mostly consists of writing up combinatorics talks and topology prelim problems.
At some point I need to get off my ass and study complex analysis.
But that day isn't today.
Oh, there's going to be a combo reading group starting soon. Not sure what topic we're going to be on yet, but I'm crossing my fingers for polytopes.
 
An online one, or in real life? The problem I'm working on has to do with polytopes, so I'd love to learn some things about them.
And I've just checked your blog, looks really nice.
 
IRL, unf. Minneapolis, if you're nearby :P
thanks :D
It's been autoposting while I was on the weekend; I should check what's gone up recently XD
Oh my gods that horrendous hyperboloid post got 4 notes wat
 
:C, do you know any good resources for polytopes?
 
Besides Polytopes, presumably? :P
Let me see what the recommended book was for the group.
 
10:18 PM
Thanks!
 
(Oh, the book I was thinking about is actually called Convex Polytopes. It's by Grünbaum.)
The suggested book for the group is Lectures on Polytopes by Ziegler.
 
Cool, thanks.
 
10:43 PM
I wouldn't laugh if it weren't so damn funny.
I mean, I'm open to serious criticism, from minor corrections to wholesale takedowns. If anyone's interested, have at it.
But yeah, as much fun as I'm having with the blog, I am really looking forward to abandoning all contact with the vagueblogosphere.
 
why so?
 
To me, in a proof of a theorem or a solution to a problem, I find "insight" (or, from a more biased point of view, the geometric content!) and "trick" (again, from a biased point of view, the symbol-pushing) to be very distinct mathematical methods.
I like to think any proof is made up of those two bits. Some amount of trick is needed as much as insight.
 
Hmm, balarka, it's interesting to me that you describe trick as e.g. symbol pushing. I agree that symbol pushing tricks exist (multiplying by 1 &c), but my experience hasn't given me too many of them.
Mike, I'm not cut out for it. I want to be disagreed with privately or publicly. The half-public nature of vagueblogging sends me off the rails.
Maybe in another year and a half I'll have thicker skin.
(whoops, thinko on that one...)
 
11:01 PM
Eric: I have faced such situations in algebra and analysis, where a point comes when you "just keep doing the math" without making the geometry clear (background: usually I approach problems by thinking about it geometrically - once I know what I have to do, geometrically, for getting a proof, I try to translate the vague geometric intuition to mathematics). You need previous experience on this bit, though.
To me, that is what a trick is. You just do something which is not clear why one would do, but you do it because your experience says you to, and everything works out.
 
Hmm, okay, I think I misunderstood. That makes sense.
Somehow this doesn't register as the word 'trick' to me, but I think it's a useful category.
That would be a pretty serious issue with the post, frankly. In this language, to call a 'trick' a theorem somewhat misses the point.
(I mean, yes, it is a theorem that $\varepsilon = \sum \varepsilon 2^{-n}$, for instance, but that classification does miss the point, I think.)
 
Hi Eric :)
 
Heya
 
I have a question
 
@EricStucky Fair enough, I don't know what you would call a trick.
 
11:08 PM
How can we prove the case $p=\infty$ directly?
 
Is W^1,infty still the set of Lipschitz functions in higher dimension?
Bounded with bounded derivative, seems reasonable.
So, it's no longer differentiable but it now integrable
Hm, maybe? I don't know what C^a,b means.
 
$u \in C^{0, \gamma}$ means that u is Hoelder continuous
 
oh XD
So the question 'is W^1,infty...' is actually quite relevant :P
 
@EricStucky on a compact domain, yes, according to a colleague in the room
 
When $p=\infty$ then $||u||_{W^{k,p}(\Omega)}=\sum_{|\alpha| \leq k}$ ess \sup_{\Omega} |D^{\alpha} u| $
 
11:17 PM
Mike: Well, that seems like enough, since we know U is bounded.
But we gotta prove it ;P
 
How? :/
 
Hmm, Evinda, I think I believe it now: the idea seems to be something like: it's everywhere bounded (in U), and everywhere the derivative is bounded, so you should have some guarantee about the existence of the limit points.
The fact that the boundary is required to be 'nice' makes this seem plausible.
 
But how can we show the inequality?
 
That should be a technicality: I think the inequality says that the Lipschitz constant is (basically) bounded by the bound on the first derivative.
The classical case uses the mean value theorem, so I guess I would try that?
 
Yes, I think it is used at an other theorem, but I haven't really understood how
Could you explain to me how we can apply it?
 
11:32 PM
Perhaps you should consider the one-dimensional case carefully, then.
You're probably not going to get a proof out of me; I don't know the formalisms. This is what I've got.
@BalarkaSen: I tried to explain it in the post. When I see the word, I think of a technique that only applies in a limit selection of problems you're interested in, or a technique that doesn't scale well to large problems.
(At least, that is what I think in an elementary context, which it seemed pretty clear was the OP's intention, since they mentioned multiplication.)
 
Since $\overline{u} \in W^{1, \infty}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ we have that $\overline{u}'$ exists and $\overline{u}, \overline{u}'$ are essentially bounded.
So now we apply the mean value theorem at $\overline{u}'$ ?
 
Worth a shot. What happens?
 
You are reffering to me? :D
 
yea
 
I have been studying all these days the theory because I have an exam tomorrow and I want to understand the proof :D
 
11:38 PM
Eric: I see.
 
a trick is something clever, not something tedious
 
Do we maybe look for a relation between the sets $C^{0, \gamma}(\Omega)$ and $W^{1, \infty}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ ?
 
Well, yes. You do need to produce a function in C^0,1(closure(U)), which you don't have right now. But if you do this in any reasonable way, it shouldn't do anything to help or hurt the proof of the inequality.
mkay, I am going to eat. Then maybe I will try to write some more posts if I'm not too bitter.
tyty Balarka & Mike :)
 
bon apetit
 
11:51 PM
why are you bitter
 
such is life
 
there is a bunch of well received questions on the main which are all the way not intopic
 

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