@Jeff $\newcommand{\d}{\operatorname d\!}$According to Wolfram Alpha, it's not an elementary function. Specifically, it's equal to $\displaystyle\frac12x\sin(x^2)-\frac12\int\sin(x^2)\d x$, and it is known that $\displaystyle\int\sin(x^2)\d x$ isn't elementary.
it gives several integrals to do. i'll find it again and post them
haha, the instructions say to calculate FOUR OF the following integrals: $x \cos x^2, x^2 \cos x^2 (the one i can't do), x^2 \cos x, x^2 \cos^2 x, x \cos^2 x$. @akiva
now the rest of the point is you invert $F$ to get a map $F^{-1}: V \to U$; restrict this to $\{y\} \times \Bbb R^{m-n}$ to get a chart on $f^{-1}(y) \cap V$ near $x$
I'm currently trying to work out a function where
f(x) = 2x + 4
The question is to define f(x) recursively
I'm unsure what this means, I have an idea of how to do it but I'm not sure if it's right. The way I thought of doing it was:
f(0) = 2*0 + 4 = 4
f(1) = 2*1 + 4 = 2 + 4 = 6
f(2) = 2*2 + 4...
Hi all, I need a small hint and don't have my calculus books at hand. I need an approximation for z-->infinity. For small z I know Taylor, what do I need for large z?
My function goes like sin(sqrt(x^2+a)-x)
(I know the solution would scale with 1/x, but I want to know how to get there)
so to find the rank of f at a point p, I just need a chart on M near p, say (phi,U) a chart on N near f(p), say (psi,V), and then the rank of f at p is the rank of the Jacobian of psi°f°phi^-1?
@BalarkaSen: do you know what to call groups satisfying the following two properties? 1) if $g, h \in G$ are not conjugate, there exists a finite group $F$ and a homomorphism $\varphi: G \to F$ such that $\varphi(g)$ and $\varphi(h)$ are not conjugate and 2) if $\varphi: G \to G$ is an automorphism such that $\varphi(g)$ is conjugate to $g$ for all $g \in G$, then there exists some $h \in G$ such that $\varphi(g) = h g h^{-1}$ for all $g$.
Lemma: Let $\psi \in C_C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^n), \psi \geq 0, \int \psi(x)dx=1, \psi_{\epsilon}(x)= \epsilon^{-n} \psi{\left( \frac{x}{\epsilon}\right)}, \epsilon>0$. Let $f \in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $f_{\epsilon}(x)=f \ast \psi_{\epsilon}=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(y) \psi_{\epsilon}(x-y) dy$. Then $f_{\epsilon} \in C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^n), f_{\epsilon} \to f$ in $L^2$ while $\epsilon \to 0$. Furthermore $||f_{\epsilon}||_{L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)} \leq ||f||_{L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)}, \epsilon>0$. In order to show that it is differentiable:
"Formally currents behave like (Schwartz) distributions on a space of differential forms. In a geometric setting, they can represent integration over a submanifold, generalizing the Dirac delta function, or more generally even directional derivatives of delta functions (multipoles) spread out along subsets of M." lolwut, multipole is directional derivative of Delta function? You can define delta functions on more than a point, but on a submanifold???
I have an image with the size 5575x9440 and I'm implementing a modified version of the algorithm used in this paper on it, but because the code performance is low right now, I have divided the image to 52628 submatrices of the size 25x40 (1000 pixels) and my first experiments show that some line...
Proposition: Let $ u, v \in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n) $ then $ \widehat{u \ast v}=\widehat{u} \cdot \widehat{v}$.
Proof: We want to show that $\mathcal{F}^{-1} (\widehat{u} \cdot \widehat{v})=u \ast v $.
We have that $ |\widehat{u} \cdot \widehat{v}| \leq \frac{1}{2}|\widehat{u}|^2+\frac{1}{2} |\wideha...
anyone knows how do we put this kind of thing on wolfram or desmos $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1+x,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\ 0\leq x\leq2 \\ 3-x,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, 2<x\leq3 \end{cases} $$
hehe, precisely! These hours were painful, I rewrote a couple of parts from a proof again and again and I wasn't content with what I had till now when I've found a brillinant way of proving things.
@Agawa001 Some hours here may be painful (until you find that satisfactory way of writing things).
user147690
6:39 PM
I can't see a latex symbol for some reason in the lists, and I can't get it on dextify, it's like a smaller version of $\vee$ in the superscript, like $L^\vee$ (for the dual of an invertible sheaf is the context)
but it should be very much more complicated than complex analysis. the whole reason complex analysis is different than real analysis is because of the automorphism on C coming from multiplication by i. Here you have a whole lot more "natural" automorphisms.
Hm. Forget integrating on 3-spheres — just integrating on a circle would be interesting. If the path is a subset of $\Bbb C\subseteq\Bbb H$, it depends on if the origin is inside it, but you can homotopy one to the other, so what happens there?
@AkivaWeinberger I mean, over C, you declare dz = dx + idy. But here you'd need to write it as dx1 + idx2 + jdx3 + kdx4, and everything would be noncommutative.
the differential equation x'(t)=x(t)a(t) would be interesting over the quaternions. essentially if you draw a path on a 2-sphere, there is a path in SO(3) which effectively rotates the sphere so a particle moves along the path, and to find the "best" such path you'd solve that differential equation in H.
If there is you should be able to find it in here. Note that the correct definition of a quaternion holomorphic function is that it satisfies a certain version of the Cauchy-Riemann equations, not that the limit $\lim_{h \to 0} h^{-1}(f(x+h)-f(x)$ exists. That paper proves that such functions are actually linear, IIRC. — Mike MillerOct 14 '15 at 21:21
I was mostly just amused at what happens when you try to write down the naive notion of quaternion differentiable. It's probably reasonabłe to assume that the CR equariona give a much better theory.
There are also good notions of quaternionic geometry, but in defining those you tend not to use quaternionic charts etc.
suggestion: learn some complex analysis (or more fundamentally, real analysis, which you seem to be studying of late) before learning quaternionic analysis.
i am sure a time will come, then, when you could understand that paper. :)
Ah, the thing I was thinking of wasn't in the afore-linked paper; see rather theorem 1 here
as expected it's just sort of bad luck that the naive notion of derivative doesn't work, and you want to use a different definition, which gives something flavored rather like complex analysis
I must be making a simple mistake, can someone help me out? I'm trying to verify that if $s_k = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{2^k}$ then $s_k = \frac{2^k - 1}{2^{k-1}}$. It's clear that $s_1 = \frac{2^1 - 1}{2^0} = 1$. Suppose it holds for some $k \geq 1$. Now $$s_{k+1} = s_k + \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{2^k - 1}{2^{k-1}} + \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{2^{k+2} - 2^2 + 1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{2^{k+1} - \frac{3}{2}}{2^k}.$$ Of course I'm expecting that $\frac{3}{2}$ to instead be 1.
I just naturally assumed Akiva doesn't know a lot of complex analysis as he's working on real analysis, so suggested that he should do that before learning the quaternionic version. I of course do not know much real or complex analysis, let alone quaternionic analysis.
We can cover $M_{m, n, 1}$ in general with open sets parametrized by $(\Bbb R^n - \{0\}) \times \cdots \times (\Bbb R^n - \{0\}) \times \Bbb R^{m-1}$ similarly, I think.
So I suppose the same argument generalizes. The normal flips sign while moving from chart-to-chart.
Yeah, weird. I don't know anything much about the topology of $M_{m, n, r}$ ("how does it look like?") either.
Eh, I guess I can only certainly say $M_{2, n, 1}$ is not orientable then.
Hmm, not immediately clear how to generalize this (the question mentions $M_{3, 3, 1}$ is orientable, so I suppose not all nontrivial M_{m, n, 1}$'s are nonorientable).
To me, in a proof of a theorem or a solution to a problem, I find "insight" (or, from a more biased point of view, the geometric content!) and "trick" (again, from a biased point of view, the symbol-pushing) to be very distinct mathematical methods.
I like to think any proof is made up of those two bits. Some amount of trick is needed as much as insight.
Hmm, balarka, it's interesting to me that you describe trick as e.g. symbol pushing. I agree that symbol pushing tricks exist (multiplying by 1 &c), but my experience hasn't given me too many of them.
Mike, I'm not cut out for it. I want to be disagreed with privately or publicly. The half-public nature of vagueblogging sends me off the rails.
Maybe in another year and a half I'll have thicker skin.
Eric: I have faced such situations in algebra and analysis, where a point comes when you "just keep doing the math" without making the geometry clear (background: usually I approach problems by thinking about it geometrically - once I know what I have to do, geometrically, for getting a proof, I try to translate the vague geometric intuition to mathematics). You need previous experience on this bit, though.
To me, that is what a trick is. You just do something which is not clear why one would do, but you do it because your experience says you to, and everything works out.
Hmm, Evinda, I think I believe it now: the idea seems to be something like: it's everywhere bounded (in U), and everywhere the derivative is bounded, so you should have some guarantee about the existence of the limit points.
The fact that the boundary is required to be 'nice' makes this seem plausible.
Perhaps you should consider the one-dimensional case carefully, then.
You're probably not going to get a proof out of me; I don't know the formalisms. This is what I've got.
@BalarkaSen: I tried to explain it in the post. When I see the word, I think of a technique that only applies in a limit selection of problems you're interested in, or a technique that doesn't scale well to large problems.
(At least, that is what I think in an elementary context, which it seemed pretty clear was the OP's intention, since they mentioned multiplication.)
Since $\overline{u} \in W^{1, \infty}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ we have that $\overline{u}'$ exists and $\overline{u}, \overline{u}'$ are essentially bounded. So now we apply the mean value theorem at $\overline{u}'$ ?
Well, yes. You do need to produce a function in C^0,1(closure(U)), which you don't have right now. But if you do this in any reasonable way, it shouldn't do anything to help or hurt the proof of the inequality.
mkay, I am going to eat. Then maybe I will try to write some more posts if I'm not too bitter.