Hi guys, a question for you. If have a map of simplicial sets $D \to C$ and an homotopy equivalence $C' \to C$, is it true that the pullback $D' $ is homotopy equivalent to $D$?
In case additional hypothesis are needed, I am particulary interested in the case $D$ is a family of operads, $C= N(Fin) \times X$ is the parameter space with $X$ contractible, $C' = N(Fin)$.
In case additional hypothesis are needed, I am particulary interested in the case $D$ is a family of operads, $C= N(Fin) \times X$ is the parameter space with $X$ contractible, $C' = N(Fin)$.