Yes and no. $f$ is holomorph nowhere but it derivative may exists in some points. A holomorph function is a function which is complex differentiable in an open subset.
Is it then correct to say that if the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied in $z_0 \in \mathbb C$, then $f'(z_0)$ exists ? I was wondering, because the theorem about these equations says always let $f: U \rightarrow \mathbb C$ with $U$ open subset in $\mathbb C$.
According to proofwiki.org/wiki/Cauchy-Riemann_Equations I must have that the equations are satisfied in the whole domain of $f$. But how can I then check what the (isolated) points are where $f'$ exists ?
Oh as far as I can see they don't distinguish between complex differentiable and holormophic. That may be because being complex differentiable in only one point is not that interessting. As you will see complex differentiable on an open subset is a very strong thing
Just for clarification: In order to compute ALL points $z$ where $f'(z)$ exists (thus complex differentiable is) it is sufficient to check in which points $z$ the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied ?
Let $f : \Omega \rightarrow \mathbb C$ where $\Omega$ is a region (open and connected). If $$ \lim_{h \rightarrow 0, h \in \mathbb C \backslash \{0 \}} \frac{ f(z_0 + h) - f(z_0) } h $$ exists then $f'(z_0)$ is this limit and we say $f$ is holomorphic at the point $z_0$.
I am quite confused about the CR equations, because the theorem on the wiki page makes no statements about single point, but only about open subsets where on which $f$ is then holomorphic
because being only complex differentiable at a single point is not helpfull, but when you have a open subset and know it is 1 time differentiable you even know it its arbitrary often differentiable