For prime P, ^(?!(x*)(?!(\1{P-1})(\1\2)*$)\1+$) is the same as ^((x+)\2{P-2}(?=\2$))*x$ and ^(x{P-1})?((\1(x+))(?=(\3*)\1*$)\3*(?=\4$\5))*x$ except that the former also matches zero.
Of interest because of the single instance of the base, not because it's beating anything in length.