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:D
 
:D
instantly stars the room
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instantly stars the declaration of instantaneous starring, while also instantaneously starring the declaration of instantaneous starring of the declaration of instantaneous starring so nobody else can instantaneously star this message
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@BalarkaSen what should we talk about?
 
Well, I'll give some commentary about topological groups I guess
Since I should prob learn those
So let's say $G$ is a topological group and $H$ is a normal subgroup, then $G/H$ is a topological group as well.
So we wanna give it a topology, presumably induced by the quotient map. Let's give it quotient topology
 
12:43 AM
sounds reasonable
 
Let's
 
totally reasonable
well at least if $H$ is closed
(you still want the quotient topology else, but it won't be nice)
 
Yeah otherwise it's a shit topology
R/Q sucks my dude
If $H$ is closed, $H \to G \to G/H$ is a fiber bundle, right? Pick a small nbhd $U$ of $G/H$, then $p^{-1}(G/H)$ is foliated by the $H$-cosets in $G$ varying over $U$.
And indeed should be a product foliation.
 
Sounds right
 
Cool
($p^{-1}(U)$ I meant)
 
12:50 AM
Oh this is interesting
If $G$ is a simply connected topological group and $H$ is a discrete closed normal subgroup, then $\pi_1(G/H,1)\cong H$. This generalizes $\pi_1(S^1) = \mathbb{Z}$
 
Yeah
It's actually even more general. Let $G$ be a discrete group acting freely and properly discontinuously on a space $X$, then $\pi_1(X/G) \cong G$.
 
Oh that's just because of what you said I think
If $H$ is discrete, then the fiber bundle you mentioned is actually a covering space
 
Yup, by running the homotopy LES on the fiber bundle
Yeah
 
And then $\pi_0(H) = H$
 
The point being if $H$ is discrete then $\pi_0 H -- fuck
Absolutely true
 
12:52 AM
Or actually I guess the fact that it's a covering space isn't what matters so much as $\pi_0$, since you have the LES anyway
That's real slick
 
Out of curiosity do you know the classifying space construction?
 
Classifying space of a group?
 
Yeah
 
So I've seen Peter do the bar construction once but this was before I knew any algebra or topology (I knew Sylow theorems and group actions but not enough to verify in my mind what he was doing)
So let's say for all intents and purposes that I don't
 
Ok, can I have a go at explaining what it is my way?
 
12:56 AM
Sure yeah. I'm about to get some food actually so it'll be easier for me to just read what you're doing instead of typing AT commentary :P
 
Nice!
I'll start writing, give me a nod from time to time if you're following
 
(Also in the general list of things to do, if you'd be down for going through stuff after that, would be to do the LES of a pair, of a fibration, and the business about fiber bundles => fibrations)
 
Yeah those would be very nice, I'd need to go through those things myself
Have forgotten a lot
 
Anyway for now I guess construct the classifying space
 
So let's say $X$ is a topological space and $p : E \to X$ is a fiber bundle over $X$ with fiber space $F$. This means, remember that there are open sets $U_\alpha$ covering $X$ such that there is a commutative diagram of maps $p : p^{-1}(U_\alpha) \to U_\alpha$, $h_\alpha : p^{-1}(U_\alpha) \to U_\alpha \times F$ (the trivialization) and $\pi_1 : U_\alpha \times F \to U_\alpha$ (first projection).
So for any two overlaping $U_\alpha, U_\beta$, there is this map $h_\alpha \circ h_\beta^{-1} : U_{\alpha \beta} \times F \to U_{\alpha \beta} \times F$ where $U_{\alpha \beta} := U_\alpha \cap U_\beta$. This map can be written as $(x, f) \mapsto (x, \varphi_{\alpha \beta}(x)f)$ where $\varphi_{\alpha \beta} : F \to F$ is what the map does in the second component. This is the transition function.
So for every pair of overlaping $U_\alpha, U_\beta$, there is a map $\varphi_{\alpha \beta} : U_{\alpha \beta} \to \text{Homeo}(F)$ which is the transition function over that overlap. These determine how the trivializations over $U_\alpha$'s are glued togather to make $E$, so these functions in fact determine the fiber bundle.
Just to recall basic stuff
Suppose $G \subset \text{Homeo}(F)$ is a subgroup of homeomorphisms of the fiber space $F$. An $F$-bundle $E$ over $X$ is said to have "structure group $G$" if all the transition functions $\varphi_{\alpha \beta}$ takes values in $G \subset \text{Homeo}(F)$.
 
1:10 AM
Yeah, so I didn't see the transition functions but that's basically gonna be the statement that your local trivialization and a bunch of open sets are compatible with each other
 
Yeah
To give an example of where the transition functions are relevant, consider a rank $n$ vector bundle over $X$. That's a fiber bundle with fiber space $\Bbb R^n$, but more than that: the transition functions are linear - they take values in $\text{GL}_n(\Bbb R) \subset \text{Homeo}(\Bbb R^n)$
Because that's what it takes to incorporate the vector space structure of $\Bbb R^n$ in the story - demand that the compatibility is linear wrt that vector space structure
 
Aight gimme a minute to digest this
 
Okay so the business and the structure group, maybe this'll be answered later but would the transition functions not form a group themselves?
Right now the wording of the statement about structure group strikes me as allowing any group which contains all the transition functions to count here, while if they did form a group themselves I would guess that we'd just call that the structure group
 
Transition functions are maps from the overlaps $U_{ij}$ to the group $\text{Homeo}(F)$, for $i, j$ varying over the cover of $X$ so it's unclear to me how you'd make that into a group.
The structure group is just the subgroup of Homeo(F) in which the transition functions takes their value in
 
1:23 AM
Oh I meant the images
 
Oh ok.
Hmm.
 
Because in principle, let's say the transition functions' images live in some group G, well they also live in any larger group. So are we just taking the group they generate? Do they form a group themselves? Etc
 
Yeah I see what you mean. I don't think it's correct to think that there is a smallest possible structure group, no. You can actually enlarge and shrink them all the time.
Shall I give an example?
 
Go for it
 
Consider a rank $n$ vector bundle $E$ over $X$. This has structure group in $GL_n(\Bbb R) \subset \text{Homeo}(\Bbb R^n)$. But if you give this vector bundle a fiberwise Riemannian metric, so that each $\Bbb R^n$ fiber is an inner product space now (and the inner product varies fiber to fiber continuously), then this is the same thing as to shrink the structure group to $O(n) \subset \text{GL}_n(\Bbb R)$
So imposing more structure on the vector bundle => shrinking the structure group
More or less
Eg, you if your rank $n$ vector bundle is orientable, the structure group shrinks to $\text{GL}_n^+(\Bbb R) \subset \text{GL}_n(\Bbb R)$, to give another example (that subgroup is the subgroup of $n\times n$ invertible matrices with $\det > 0$)
A-priori the structure group is in GL_n(R), but once you claim that it's orientable and actually choose an orientation fiberwise, it shrinks to GL_n^+(R)
So it's a very fluid concept
 
1:30 AM
Ah, so it's basically just what acting group we restrict attention to. So if we're not adding structure we're just gonna say Homeo(F) is the structure group, etc
 
Yep!
 
Okay I'll take that now, go on
 
Ok, so here is my definition of classifying space of a group.
Sorry internet sucked
Consider the fiber bundles over a base space a CW-complex $X$ with fiber space a CW-complex $F$
 
Considering
 
For any closed group $G \subset \text{Homeo}(F)$, $BG$ is the unique space upto homotopy equivalence such that $F$-bundles over $X$ with structure group $G$ are in 1-1 correspondence with homotopy classes of maps $X \to BG$.
I think that should be correct.
 
1:48 AM
Hmm, so do $X$ and $F$ vary here?
The phrasing here suggests otherwise but if you were to give me some random group, it doesn't seem like there's a God-given $F$. Or can we just choose however we please and the answer won't depend on the choice?
 
@Daminark Yup, the choice of the fiber space doesn't actually matter!
Here's a more clarifying parsing. Consider the functor $\mathscr{F} : \mathsf{Top} \to \mathsf{Set}$ where $\mathscr{F}(X)$ is the set of $F$-bundles on $X$ with structure group $G$.
 
@Daminark Given a random group there is a god-given F: G itself
Given the group Homeo(X), you get two god-given F
(the group itself and X, of course)
 
Then there is a space, which we call $BG$, that represents $\mathscr{F}$. Namely, there is the functor $[-, BG] : \mathsf{Top} \to \mathsf{Set}$ which sends a space $X$ to $[X, BG]$, and these two functors are naturally isomorphic
@Mike Is this right?
Also yeah Mike's point about the god-given F being G is really important. Please note that.
 
Oh tru, the map "multiplication by $g$" is a homeomorphism because $G$ is a topological group? And that's what lets us say $G\le Homeo(G)$
 
Yeah.
You just take each fiber to be $G$, and then the transition functions just acts by multiplication on the fibers
That gives a naturally constructed $G$-bundle on $X$. It's called a "principal $G$-bundle".
 
2:02 AM
I think X needs to be paracompact for Homeo(X) to be a topological group
 
I assumed CW complex, so it's all good
 
Are uncountable CW still paracompact?
 
Google says so
I don't want to prove it though
Feels like any open cover can be refined to a cover made of open cells
 
Ok, whatever. Something about needing the inversion to be continuous
 
I see, got it
@Daminark The point is, if you have an $F$-bundle on $X$ with structure group $G$ and if you have an $F'$-bundle on $X$ with structure group $G$ and they have the same transition functions, then they both correspond to the "principal $G$-bundle" where the fiber space is $G$, and the same transition functions are used.
The crucial slogan is, a fiber bundle is nothing but (1) + (2) where (1) is choice of a fiber space (2) is choice of transition functions
So for classification of fiber bundles with structure group $G$, leaving the fiber space unspoken shouldn't matter
 
2:14 AM
Okay I'm happy then, I think
I'll get to my computer soon and then toy with this idea a bit to make sure it's straight
 
Cool. I can tell more stuff on $BG$ but I think doing this while I am sick is not such a great idea.
So instead we can idly chat about what we have thought so far, and I can ask my question:
If $H \subset G$ is a closed subgroup of a topological group $G$, we had the fiber bundle $H \to G \to G/H$. Now, this is a principal $H$-bundle over $G/H$... so it's classified by a map $G/H \to BH$, right?
 
Sounds right
 
@MikeMiller Is it correct that this is the first arrow of the fibration $G/H \to BH \to BG$?
@Daminark The cool thing is that if $0 \to H \to G \to K \to 0$ is a short exact sequence, then there is a fibration $BH \to BG \to BK$. So for example, our SES $0 \to H \to G \to G/H \to 0$ gives a fibration $BH \to BG \to B(G/H)$.
I was wondering if we can splice these togather to make $H \to G \to G/H \stackrel{?}{\to} BH \to BG \to B(G/H)$
where the question marked arrow is the map I suggested
 
So you're splicing together an exact sequence and a fibration, what form are you hoping this whole sequence of maps should have?
 
The exact sequence $H \to G \to G/H$ is also a fibration though!
That's what's nice about these being topological group. It's an $H$-bundle over $G/H$
I feel like the whole sequence of maps should be a fibration for each three consecutive terms
That'd be weird
 
2:25 AM
The $G\to G/H \to BH$ part makes me nervous
 
Yeah me too
I know there is a fibration $G/H \to BH \to BG$
But not that bit. Oh, maybe I do.
 
@Balarka I think of BH -> BG as EG/H -> EG/G, which clearly has fiber G/H
 
Yeah you taught me that one
But do you know how to make sense of $G \to G/H \to BH$?
 
Like, I know in hindsight that $BH$ can be some massive topological space, so there may not even be a surjection $G/H \to BH$
 
Now as to what bundle the fiber classifies...
 
2:27 AM
Is there a fibration like that? I tried to do something like this for the a group acting freely on a sphere
$S^n \to S^n/G \to BG$
And then running the Gysin sequence over it
 
Also $G\to G/H$ doesn't strike me as much of a fiber inclusion. Of course Mike's gonna know this better than I do but it's at least tough to swallow that this is a fibration
 
@Daminark Oh it won't be surjective. It won't be a fiber bundle in the classical sense
It will be a "homotopy fiber sequence"
Or such is my guess
You're right that $G \to G/H$ is not the fiber inclusion; it's the quotient map.
 
Also looking this up on wikipedia, turns out $G\to G/H$ gives a fiber bundle iff it admits "local cross sections"
 
Yeah but that's the projection map. They're talking about the $H \hookrightarrow G \to G/H$ piece
It admits local cross sections whenever $H$ is a closed subgroup of $G$, I believe
 
Yeah should've clarified this wasn't connected with what you're saying
This is just my looking up this stuff for more of the details on why that's the case, but hmm
 
2:33 AM
certainly when they're Lie groups that's true @BalarkaSen, I worry in general
 
Hm.
 
Your X -> X/G -> BG is really X -> (X x EG)/G -> BG
 
OH
Damn, that never crossed my mind.
 
(X x EG)/G is homotopy equivalent to X/G by the fiber sequence EG -> (X x EG)/G -> X/G
 
Right
That's pretty cool
 
2:37 AM
As to what bundle the map G/H -> BH classifies, think about the corresponding total spaces
 
Well, it classifies H --> G --> G/H, no?
Oh, you're asking me to prove it does, where the map is what you wrote down. Hm.
 
G -> EG -> EG/G
V . . . V . . . . V
G/H -> EG/H -> EG/G
 
Ahh
It's just quotient of the fiber inclusion G --> EG by H, yeah.
So it classifies pullback of EG --> EG/H = BH by G/H --> BH
Which should be nothing but G --> G/H
(side-quest: Now I am wondering if I can continue this (and this might sound like black magic @Daminark, but I can explain what $B^n$ means later) to $\cdots B^{n-1}(G/H) \to B^n H \to B^n G \to B^n (G/H) \to \cdots$ where $B^{-n} = \Omega^n$ in the negative direction too, and what does feeding that to the functor $[X, -]$ mean? It should give a gigantic LES for homology of $\Sigma^n X$ and $\Omega^n X$ with various coefficients)
 
BG is only a group if G is commutative
in which case BG is a commutative group and that may be iterated
 
Oh, maybe, just the homology LES of $0 \to C_*(X; H) \to C_*(X; G) \to C_*(X; G/H) \to 0$?
@MikeMiller Ah, snap, forgot
 
2:45 AM
and you got it
 
Nice
Really weird stuff
 
 
1 hour later…
4:09 AM
Hmm, so I want to prove that $\Sigma S^n = S^{n+1}$
 
Think about $n=1$ carefully (and just claim the general case follows by analogy)
It also follows from the Poincare conjecture, I guess
 
Hmm, would it be a good idea to try to take a hint from algebra and define a map $S^1\times S^1 \to S^2$? Then show that distinct points have the same image when they're in the wedge?
Actually it might be helpful to think of $S^1$ as $I/\partial I$
 
yes, I think that will make computations easier
If you want to write down the maps explicitly (I guess it would be very topology-like if you just argue intuitively)
 
So you want to map $S^1\times I \to S^2$
Hmm, so in principle you have $(x,y,t) \mapsto (x\sqrt{1-t^2},y\sqrt{1-t^2},t)$
 
you can also think of $S^2$ as $I^2/\partial I^2$
 
4:23 AM
Re intuitive: I guess you could say, take the torus, pinch it, and then shrink the diameter of the hole to 0?
I can sorta buy that this is a sphere
 
can't you just say, identify $S^2=I^2/\partial I^2$ and take quotient map $I \times I \to S^2$, this factors over $S^1 \times I \to S^2$?
 
Though I may still try to do it carefully because that's something for which the generalization doesn't feel obvious
Oh hmm let's see
I'll find a chalkboard real quick
Yeah actually that works
 
@MatheinBoulomenos lol
@Daminark That's right
That is indeed a sphere
I'm writing a god-awful set of notes on de Rham cohomology
 
I have a crazy idea for a computation of $\pi_1(S^1)$, I'm still writing down the details
 
Lol, send them over when you're done
 
4:32 AM
Will do
@Mathein what is the approach
 
you will see it when I'm done
I don't think anyone has computed it like that before (for good reasons)
 
That sounds ominous
 
Dun dun duuuuuun
Lol I know of two proofs. One is basically covering spaces, the other is Hopf degree
 
You can pass to $H_1$
 
Kinda forgot the proof of Hopf degree though
 
4:37 AM
you can also use seifert-van kampen for the fundamental groupoid
 
'Cuz $S^1$ is a topological group; those have abelian fundamental group
@MatheinBoulomenos pls
 
I mean, it doesn't work with SvK just for groups
 
I know. I'm just saying, I don't get Ronnie Brown's explanation of why the fundamental groupoid approach is useful by demonstrating how it can compute $\pi_1 S^1$. That's not much of an accomplishment. What else can you do with it?
I am sure you can do more, I just haven't seen a single inspiring example
Can you compute some higher homotopy groups that I can't? That'd convince me.
 
Ronnie Brown has a proof of the Jordan curve theorem using groupoid SvK
and there are apparently generalizations of SvK to higher groupoids using some version of groupoids, but I don't know the details
^that's the proof of the Jordan curve theorem
it's more elementary than using Alexander duality
 
Thanks, that's interesting. (You don't need Alexander duality to prove JCT)
 
4:47 AM
ah, Alexander duality is how we did it in our alg top course
 
I approve, I quite like that proof
I'll star the pdf so I can look at it later
 
5:00 AM
@BalarkaSen I guess this doesn't prove new stuff (at least, as far as I know?), but I like that with groupoids, we can model a covering map between spaces with a covering map of groupoids
it feels like the algebra is closer to the topology
 
 
2 hours later…
Good lord
 
I think that's much more intuitive than the standard proof
 
Lol when I was starting to read it I thought you were gonna compute $H_1(S^1)$ by Poincare Duality and then using De Rham or smth
I'm not sure how feasible it is to compute cohomology groups wrt various coefficients if you know one tho
 
well, I did use Poincare duality in some form
imagine that's the first proof for $\pi_1(S^1)=\Bbb Z$ that someone sees
 
6:51 AM
That'd be hilarious
 
7:18 AM
Hmm, so okay
Turns out $[\Sigma X,Y]_{*}$ is always a group
 
@MatheinBoulomenos Very Nice
@Daminark Right. $[\Sigma X, Y] \cong [X, \Omega Y]$ actually
Suspension-loopspace adjunction
But you can prove that it's a group more directly
 
Is there a way to use an analog of the higher homotopy groups being abelian to also say that $[\Sigma^2 X,Y]$ is abelian?
 
Namely, if $f, g : \Sigma X \to Y$ are two maps, consider $\Sigma X \vee \Sigma X \to Y$ given by $f$ and $g$ on the respective factors
Then sending $\Sigma X \to \Sigma X \vee \Sigma X$ by pinching the meridian.
That's multiplication in $[\Sigma X, Y]$
 
$[\Sigma^2 X, Y]= [\Sigma X, \Omega Y]$. $\Omega Y$ is a $h$-group and $\Sigma Y$ is a $h$-cogroup, so that will be an abelian group by some general result
 
7:25 AM
@Daminark You can use this multiplication to analogue the same argument as higher homotopy groups to prove $[\Sigma^2 X, Y]$ is abelian I believe.
 
Okay so, the argument I saw for higher homotopy groups being abelian used this thing about how if you have two operations $*,*'$ on a set which distribute over each other, then they agree and are abelian
 
That's what Mathein is using
 
Generally if $X$ is a $h$-cogroup, then $[X,Y]$ is a group. If $Y$ is a $h$-group, then $[X,Y]$ is also a group. If we have both, then both induced group operations on $[X,Y]$ coincide and they are abelian
yeah
 
But you can just do it by hand
shrink box, swerve around, expand box
Mathein's argument has a name which I am forgetting
Eckmann-Hilton
 
Eckmann-Hilton
Fr*cc
 
7:28 AM
pew pew pew
 
Hmm, okay so what's the definition of an $h$-(co)group?
 
it's a general result on monoids
 
$h$-group is something which is a group upto homotopy
 
group object in the opposite pointed homotopy category
 
7:28 AM
Has a multiplication which has (1) identity upto homotopy (2) inverses upto homotopy (3) associative upto homotopy
 
Oh true they had to have a common unit
 
nothing is on the nose
$h$-cogroup is the same thing but with a comultiplication map $G \to G \times G$
Like $\Sigma X$ is an $h$-cogroup because it has $\Sigma X \to \Sigma X \vee \Sigma X$
$\vee$ is the coproduct in the pointed category, yeah?
 
Yup
The headshots...
Okay so, lemme be sure about this $h$-cogroup. So you said pinch the meridian? Meaning $\Sigma X = X\times I /(\{x_0\} \times I \cup X\times \partial I)$, and we're squashing $X\times \{\frac{1}{2}\}$
 
our prof described the map $\Sigma X \to \Sigma X \vee \Sigma X$ as "tightening the belt"
 
7:31 AM
@Daminark Ya
 
Okay that makes sense
 
lmao this actually seems like a good exercise to familiarise oneself with some of the stuff in etale cohomology

i'm slightly confused to the part where you pass to integer coefficients - that seems to suggest to me that you can do this in general but i don't think it's true in general that $H^*_{et} (X,\mathbb{Z}) = H^*_{sing}(X(\mathbb{C}),\mathbb{Z})$?
 
And in general if you have a map $G\to G\times G$, we want to define multiplication of homotopy classes of maps outta $G$ to be, so given $f:G\to H$ and $g:G\to H$, we define the map $G\to_{\text{belt}} G\vee G \to_{f\vee g} H$
 
@loch I never use etale cohomology with integer coefficients
 
ah
 
7:34 AM
@Daminark Yep
 
I only use singular cohomology with integers coefficients and then use universal coefficients to pass to p-adic coefficients
and then apply the comparison theorem to pass to etale
 
yeah ok
so etale coh lacks the thing (universal coefficients probably) that allows you to transfer your result from $p$-adic coefficients to $\mathbb{Z}$-coefficients as in the singular case here
 
etale with $\Bbb Z$-coefficients exists in theory, but it's never used
because it lacks any good properties
you prove all result for torsion coefficients and then you take an inverse limit (outside the cohomology, not inside the coefficients, this is not the same!) to lift it to $\Bbb Z_p$
 
yeah
 
then you can also tensor with $\Bbb Q_p$ if you want coefficients in a field
 
7:38 AM
Oh I guess that "$\times$" was supposed to be $\vee$. Then if you have $G\times G\to G$, then we want the maps into it to be sending $X\to_{f\times g} G\times G \to_{\text{groups tho}} G$. Of course all this is up to homotopy. So now what's left is to show that $\Omega Y$ is an h-group and that the two operations on $[\Sigma X, \Omega Y]$ satisfy the requirement for Eckmann-Hilton
Lemme see if I can try to figure this out
 
Yeah I meant coproduct when I wrote $\times$
Categories, categories
It's all potatoes and tomatoes
 
hmm ok that's pretty cool. I always thought that the fact that etale coh is only an isom with singular coh with finite coefficients is somewhat 'lacking' - but you're saying that in fact this recovers everything about singular coh
 
note that this is not special to the homotopy category. If $C$ is any category, then $Hom_C(X,Y)$ is a group of $Y$ is a group object and also if $X$ is a cogroup object and if we have both, then both group operations coincide and are abelian
@loch my argument for that worked only using the fact that the cohomology is finitely generated
 
@MatheinBoulomenos yes - which is good enough for varieties!
 
@Daminark Stuff: Suppose you have a principal $G$-bundle on CW complex $\Sigma X$. This means a fiber bundle on $X$ with fibers homeomorphic to $G$ such that the transition functions take values in $G$ (i.e., structure group is $G$). There are two inclusion maps $CX \to \Sigma X$ - taking the upper cone, or the lower cone. Pull the bundle back by these inclusion maps (or rather, restrict to the cones). $CX$ is contractible, so the $G$-bundle trivializes over $CX$
So you have two independent copies of $CX \times G$
 
7:44 AM
So we want to create a map $\Omega Y \times \Omega Y \to \Omega Y$. So given $f,g:I\to Y$ such that $f(0) = f(1) = g(0) = g(1)$ we just concatenate paths, basically it's the idea of $\pi_1(X)$ being a group?
 
You want to glue them back to the original $G$-bundle on $\Sigma X$. To you glue them cones $CX \times \{0\}$ and $CX \times \{1\}$ along the bottom $X$ of each. But who's to say how the fibers over $X \times \{0\}$ and $X \times \{1\}$ are glued? Well, it's a principal $G$-bundle, so they better be glued by multiplication by some $g$: $G \to G$, $x \mapsto gx$.
So for each $x \in X$, the fibers are glued above by multiplication by $g_x \in G$.
Aka, you have a map $X \to G$, $x \mapsto g_x$.
This is called the clutching function construction. It can be shown that homotopy clutching functions give isomorphic bundles. So principal $G$-bundles on $\Sigma X$ are in 1-1 correspondence with homotopy classes of maps $X \to G$. More adeptly, $\text{Princ}_G(\Sigma X) \cong [X, G]$.
From previous discussion we also know that $\text{Princ}_G(\Sigma X) \cong [\Sigma X, BG]$ - that's the classifying map construction! We defined $BG$ that way.
So $[\Sigma X, BG] \cong [X, G]$. Apply loopspace-suspension adjunction on the first thing: $[X, \Omega BG] \cong [\Sigma X, BG] \cong [X, G]$.
This is a natural isomorphism of functors. Yoneda lemma kicks in.
$\Omega BG \cong G$.
That's why $B$ is oftentimes called the "delooping" operator. Loopspace of $BG$ is homotopy equivalent to $G$
 
Okay, so let me completely absorb what's going on here. So you pulled back your bundle $G\to E \to \Sigma X$ twice to get two copies of $G\to CX\times G \to CX$. And the process of gluing bundles together works how?
 
Hey @Alessandro
 
Oh oh wait hold on I'm dumb, I'm starting to see what's happening
 
7:55 AM
Hi @Balarka
 
@Daminark I was gonna say something but I'll hold my tounge
 
Is that the secret nerds den?
 
tongue
I can't spell
Ironic that I mis-spelled tongue though
It means I really can't spell
@Alessandro Apparently so
 
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