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7:42 AM
Wow the above transcript was great to read @Mann !
I guess im a little late to the party
 
8:28 AM
Can anyone of you provide me notes on function for jee please
 
 
2 hours later…
10:07 AM
Q) If g : [a, b] onto [a, b] is continuous then show that there is some c that belongs to [a, b] such that, g(c) = c.
How do I go about this?
I thought for a bit
And I think the question can be boiled down to, "can g(x) intersect $ y = x$ line, where x belongs to [a, b]?"
And this has to be true.
since g(x) is continuous.
Can someone confirm? @Mann
 
Define f(x) = g(x) - x and use intermediaare value theorem I think.
Wait
 
Why f(x) = g(x) - x?
@Mann Ok.
 
Just thinking different ideas
Yeah it's correct
So here's the argument
1) Define f(x) = g(x) - x
Then f(a) = g(a) - a >= 0 because g(a) lies in [a,b]
 
10:25 AM
Ok.
 
And f(b) = g(b) - b <= 0 because g(b) lies in [a , b]
 
Since f(a) >= 0 and f(b) <= 0 on [a,b] domain
And f is continousl
By intermediate value theorem there exists a c such that f(c) = 0
 
omg
yeah
how did you think about using f(x) = g(x) - x?
 
That I can't explain. :/ It just comes
 
10:28 AM
aw
thanks tho :D
 
No problem
 
however, do you think what I though (above) is correct?
this part: And I think the question can be boiled down to, "can g(x) intersect y=x line, where x belongs to [a, b]?"
 
It seems so but you still have to justify why it is true if g(x) is continous
And I think asking that question will lead you down the same path I had took
 
I can try. To show that g(c) = c, we must show at g(x) passes through y = x line atleast once
also noting that c belongs to [a, b]
 
But try
 
10:31 AM
Thats my proof ^. Is it not valid as a 'proof'?
 
You have to make the complete argument first though
What you have said is a routine which could lead to a possible proof.
 
Oh right, the question wants us to show that there is some 'c' for which g(c) = c.
I'm instead justifying what has to be shown.
Oops...
 
@McSuperbX1
Here's the thing
 
I think your solution is perfect and neat. Thanks :-)
@Mann Im listening!
 
Suppose you want to proof the function g(x) intersect the line y=x
 
10:34 AM
okay.
 
And you also know that g(x) is continous
It's tantamount to showing that for one point g definitely lies above the y=x line and some other point g definitely lies below the line y=x
 
Agreed...
 
I did the same thing.
Think what I did by defining that function
 
Yes!!!!
Makes sense!
You chose f(x) = g(x) - x, so you can develop a relationship between y = g(x) and y = x
 
Precisely.
 
10:36 AM
Which is clearly what is needed to show that g(x) cuts through y = x atleast once.
Im pretty sure if that works, then f(x) = g(x)/x shall work too
 
Yes, you can infact try.
 
f(a) > 1
f(b) < 1
 
Maybe x/g(x)
 
So g(x) is above y = x at one point, and its below y = x at another.
 
See you also need to use a well established theorem
 
10:38 AM
@Mann I feel g(x) / x, as well as, x / g(x) both should work
 
Yeaa
Both does
But one thing you just keep in mind is to use intermediate value theorem
 
@Mann Okay.
 
@McSuperbX1 see you can't say this directly
You have to use intermediate value theorem to say this
 
Alright.
:-D
 
"So g(x) is above y = x at one point, and its below y = x at another."
This is what you claim using IVT
 
10:42 AM
I just said that via logic
I mean.. isn't IVT just fancy words that describe common sense/ basic logic?
 
No
 
Owh.
 
That's a common misconception. Because just like IVT is derived from a certain set of assumptions
Your logic about the situation is also stemming from same assumption
 
I see.
 
Ultimately you are just using a theorem in ignorance if you call it common sense or basic logic in math
Those things doesn't exist.
 
10:46 AM
Oh.
So like everything has been defined and written down with caution
 
Yep
 
However basic it may be
 
Whole math follows from set theory currently
 
Ah. Okay.
Guess I'm a little less ignorant today than I was, yesterday :-)
 
Your numbers, your calculus, almost everything you can see is derived from set theory
Haha don't worry, we all go through the stages
 
10:49 AM
I've got another question
I do not know how to find the sum function of the given series.
(Question is encircled, right under Exercise for Session 5)
 
Define it as a telescopic series
 
.. I do not know what a telescopic series is :(
 
x = (n+1) x + 1 - (nx + 1)
And cancel all the terms
 
Am I supposed to know what 'telescopic series' are?
 
Naa
But this question is really weird.
 
10:54 AM
:o
 
It's really not a simple question as it seems. It is using a hell load of concepts from analysis.
I can ofc simple way that f(x) = 1
Therefore always continous
But I am not sure if I am supposed to do that?
 
f(x) = 1? what?
 
You can break it down like that just try
I gotta go though
See you later
 
Oh okay
thanks for helping :D
see you later!
 
 
1 hour later…
12:07 PM
@Mann please ping me when free, I need your help yet again. :|
 
@McSuperbX1
 
Oh hai!
Why do we say 1^(infinity)
is undefined?
omg
 
Because you don't know what infinity is?
A symbol that is not defined.
Inside real numbers
Even in extended real number you don't know how this element will behave so the output is not defined
 
Okay. So its just a symbol
 
Everything is a symbol
The numbers are a symbols too
 
12:14 PM
...
But we do know "5" is right?
Hence I can tell what 1^5 is
 
No
5 is defined.
We just have a consensus on what it is. That's why we both say the common thing
Nothing is natural in math everything is defined.
 
Hmm alright
Okay :-)
 
12:54 PM
@Mann
What is LHL here
No facts given about a,b
@Mann ^
 
1:18 PM
@Jasmine
I didn't get you. a and b what?
Ahh Okayy
option a) I assume?
 
1:34 PM
Correct
How did you go about it though?
I was able to figure RHL = 0
f(0) = 0
But unsure about LHL
 
Well looking near $x=0$ or at $x=0$ I can just see that $f(0)=0$ $f(0_+)=0$ and $f(0_-)=-1$
 
How did you -1 though?
 
Just made a quick guess.
 
b*(0.999999...)^infinity - 1 = 0 - 1 = -1 ?
 
Yeaa, in that sense.
 
1:42 PM
Oh...
I was just felt its sketchy
 
$cos(h) < 1$ for all $h<0$
Not for all, but you get my point
 
Yeah
I get it
However what if in the definition of f(x)
the equality to 0 was in the 2nd definition
 
Yeaa, this is fine for a proof, if you assume that $\lim_{n \to \infty} a^{n} =0$ if $|a| < 1 $
 
instead of >=; it was >
and instead of < it was <=
 
Still $f(0-) = -1 $
 
1:45 PM
True
But what about $f(0)$?
 
If I assume that I take the limit after putting $x=0$ and $f(0)= b-1$
Which is normally the sense.
 
Wait wait
it is b * 1^(infinity) - 1
Isn't 1^infinity undefined?
 
Yea but when did I ever put $\infty$ right in the expression
I only took limit.
$\lim_{n \to \infty} 1^n =1 $ is not the same as $1^{\infty}$
 
._.
okay.
One must be very careful o.o
 
These things will come haha.
The trick again is not to remember all this
 
1:50 PM
Feels like I'm on a mine field
@Mann hmmm
 
But understand the underlying idea so you can apply it again whenever you like
I gotta study for now. Cya, ping me if anything needed
 
Okay thanks :-)
@Jasmine check out the above
 
2:23 PM
isnt 1(approaching) ^ infinity ( approaching ) indeterminate @Mann
I dont get exactly how LHL -1
Lim x tends to 0- $cos^{\infty}x$
Its like a double limit
 
If 1^(approaching infinity) is 1, then (0.9999999)^(approaching infininty) should be 0...
 
@McSuperbX1 its not 0.9999999
Its approaching 1
 
0.9999..... *
forgot the dots
@Mann halp
 
We say (1/ n) ^ infinity is 0 if n > 1
That way instantly I said LHL -1
On second thought I got really confused as the base is tending to 1 and power tending to infinity
 
2:39 PM
@Mann im terminally confused. please help.
 
3:25 PM
Hi
@McSuperbX1
@Jasmine
What's the issue?
 
@Mann Hey ... Heard that u r preparing for GRE...So it seems u r going for that PhD?
 
@Mann why is 1 to the power infinity indeterminate
Because LHL not equal to RHL
 
Your question is : $1^{\infty}$ is indeterminate?
 
lol I am asking this now
 
How?
I will go step by step while adressing your qestionss.
@YUSUFHASAN wait
@Jasmine
 
3:29 PM
@Mann 1 approaching
 
I will get to that
 
Oh sorry... Didn't notice important stuff is going around here... Pardon me @Jasmine @Mann
 
@Mann yes because LHL not equal to RHL
 
$1^{\infty}$ is not defined because of the obvious issue that $\infty$ in real number is not defined.
 
@Mann I mean infinity approaching
 
3:30 PM
I will get to that
Even looking in extended real number. You can define a symbol infinity, holding the following properties. wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/…
 
@Mann there is a difference between does not exist and indeterminate right
@Mann yes
 
Umm, let me verify that. I think there shouldn't be.
I am not really sure about the difference of this two term. But I am assuming it wouldn't matter. In any case, If I do think It will I will try to address
 
Please tell me mathjax code for limit
 
$1^{\infty}$ is not defined even in extended real numbers.
This is what I am saying.
 
@Mann yes
 
3:36 PM
You can't derive it using the properties in the image. And all the properties about real number you already know
 
53 secs ago, by Jasmine
Please tell me mathjax code for limit
 
Okay, now say the next question.
 
@Jasmine \lim_{n \to X} $\lim_{n \to X}$
 
\lim_{x \to \infty} x^{\frac{1}{x}-1}
 
@AdvilSell Thank you !
What is $\lim_{x \to 1-} x^{\infty↑}$
 
3:39 PM
@Jasmine What's the next query following that?
$x^{\infty}$ is again not defined for any $x$
 
@Mann isn't (1/2)^{Infinity} = 0 ?
 
Does the limit for x, applied after the limit to infinity?
 
@Mann please see edited question
 
There are two possible meaning of that expression.
1) Order : lim x lim n x^n in which case it is 0.
2) Order: lim n lim x in which case it is 1
@AdvilSell no
In general the order of limits applied matter
My presumption was that the limits of n and m were applied first. Then x was applied.
 
@Mann okay so $$\lim_{n \to infi} (1/2)^n=0$$ ?
 
3:43 PM
Yep @AdvilSell
@Jasmine is it okay now?
 
@Mann oh do it follow from the fact that Infinity is not a number ? But a symbol ?
 
@AdvilSell yes. But infact, everything is a symbol only.
Symbols satisfying certain properties.
It's not like the numbers have a special status.
They are also symbols satisfying certain properties
 
@Mann ↓
6 mins ago, by Jasmine
What is $\lim_{x \to 1-} x^{\infty↑}$
 
I said na.
There are two possible meaning of that expression.
1) Order : lim x lim n x^n in which case it is 0.
2) Order: lim n lim x in which case it is 1
There is no notion of both the limits being applied at same time.
You have to define the order of limits
 
Hmm...what makes Infinity different ? I mean how to derive the above questions (1/2^{infinity} one ) using properties of infinity ?
 
3:47 PM
You can't maybe derive it. We don't know that, I don't, so far.
 
@Mann and what is $\lim_{x \to 1+ } x ^{\infty ↑} $
 
Nothing makes infinity different, it's just a new object satisfying new rules added to the already existing set of symbols inside the real number.
Two meanings again
1) Lim x lim n in which case "towards infinity"
2) lim n lim x in which case 1.
 
@Mann then why is (1/2)^1 = 1/2 and (1/2)^{infinity} is undefined ?
 
So if we calculate $\lim_{x\to 1} x^{\infty↑}$ we say LHL not equal RHL
That means Limit doesn't exist
 
Because we have properly defined what all those notations means in case of a^b where a and b are real numbers.
"So if we calculate limx→1x∞↑ we say LHL not equal RHL"
This depends upon the interpretation
 
3:51 PM
Now if does not exist and indeterminate was are not equal then
 
But if you agree to use lim x lim n f(n,x). Then yes
 
@Mann I dont get it
 
Which part?
 
@Mann so are you saying we haven't defined infinity properly ?
 
I am applying limit on x first
 
3:53 PM
Why?
 
@Mann then yes means
 
@AdvilSell that discussion will tend to a highly advanced topic but it is more or less defined enough. It's just the notation $a^{\infty}$ is not defined.
@Jasmine I can explain why did I use my interpretation but it will take some time
Following the order lim n lim x f(n,x) is not the best option here
 
@Mann you said yes on what
@Mann consider limit on x first
 
Then yea, the limit exists and is equal.
limx→1x∞↑
For this
 
In the case 1↑ to the power infinity ↑
 
3:57 PM
@Mann hmm...I still don't get it
 
Order matters again
 
@Mann which limit exists
 
Okay, let me formalize things.
Suppose $f(n,x)$ is a function of both $n,x$
Then generally $\lim_{n} \lim_{x} f(n,x) \neq \lim_{x} \lim_{n} f(n,x)$
 
11 mins ago, by Jasmine
@Mann and what is $\lim_{x \to 1+ } x ^{\infty ↑} $
@Mann yes I get that
 
The statement you are writing is ambiguous in the sense that we don't know the order
The expression is not well defined
There is no natural interpretation here.
 
3:59 PM
@Mann I am saying consider that limit on x first
 
In every case?
Okayy
 
@Mann yes
 
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