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1:54 AM
69
Q: Idea of Covering Group

SRS $SU(2)$ is the covering group of $SO(3)$. What does it mean and does it have a physical consequence? I heard that this fact is related to the description of bosons and fermions. But how does it follow from the fact that $SU(2)$ is the double cover of $SO(3)$?

Why does looking only at SO(3) lead us to miss half-interger spin representations?
Also, I don't really understand the answer. The person who answers seems to motivate looking at SU(2) rather than SO(3) because SU(2) circumvents dealing with a projective representation. However, later in their answer it turns out that SO(3) doesn't even fully represent what we want represented at all?
Moreover, physics.stackexchange.com/questions/756969/… this post says in their Quantum II course, they are looking at SO(3). Why look at SO(3) at all in detail if SU(2) is the real representation of it all?
 
2:51 AM
Also, so in Gold's answer here, by a system having rotational symmetry, they mean "if we rotate every state there will be no observable difference"? which is different from a system being rotationally invariant, which would mean that w.r.t. time a system's generator of rotations is conserved? physics.stackexchange.com/questions/743916/…
 
3:15 AM
Where is the representation theory of operators that are not angular momentum :0
 
 
4 hours later…
6:50 AM
@SillyGoose the former notion of symmetry implies the latter becuz of Noether's theorem. Noether's theorem gives you conserved quantities corresponding to the transformations which leave the action invariant
@SillyGoose there is also the representation theory of creation and annihilation operators
@SillyGoose becuz in the SO(3) group, u cant have stuff like : "rotation by 2pi turns the object to its negative". The half integer representation has these properties
 
Hm, certainly every generator of a unitary operator is not conserved always (with respect to time), no?
 
Put it simply, only those are conserved that commute with the Hamiltonian
By "we rotate every state and it has no observable difference", it mathematically means that the action is invariant under the rotation, or the Hamiltonian commutes with the Generator of rotation
By "no observable difference", we mean "dynmaics remain unchanged". So ofc a rotated system shud be described by the same dynamic laws, i.e. the same action or the Hamiltonian
 
I don't see how that is true, though. For any unitary $U$, $\langle \psi | U^\dag U | \phi \rangle = \langle \psi | \phi \rangle
there is no mention of time evolution in Gold's statementt to my understanding hence nothing to do with the hamiltonian
 
Ill see what Gold says
Gold indeed did not mention the fact that dynamics shud remain unchanged for a transformation to b a symmetry
He points seems to imply that unitarity is sufficient
 
If it helps here is the original definition they are working off of
 
7:04 AM
I'm sure he wasnt clear enough
 
Which is from weinberg vol. I QFT, but this chapter is I think pretty much about normal QM
 
This also does not speak of time evolution, yes
 
About the SO(3) and so on: Oh I see. Well so is total angular momentum a representation of SU(2)?
 
I really dont know whats going on with this definition then. Btw, to have conserved quantities, the dynamics must remain invarianr under the transformation. This is what the usual definition of symmetry means
But idk this other definition sorry :P
 
And, if spin-1/2 is a representation of SU(2), then why do we not have to consider some double cover business as is motivated to do for orbital angular momentum?
 
7:08 AM
@SillyGoose see this Q&A of mine for the more general theory of projective representations
 
By looking for usual representations of SU(2), u r looking for the projective representations of SO(3)
The 1/2 representation qualifies as a projective representation of SO(3)
 
oh. wait but i thought SO(3) is not enough to work for spin-1/2
 
This means that predictions are invariant under 2pi rotations
 
the upshot is: For most groups you will encounter outside of conformal field theory, the projective representations of that group are equivalent to normal linear representations of the universal cover of the group.
 
The wavefunction is allowed to become its negative under 2pi rotations
 
7:13 AM
Well, so is the symmetry described in weinberg just the simplest type of symmetry. whereas say rotational invariance w.r.t. time occurs when you compose a rotation operator and time evolution operator and they commute (so that they can find their way to their hermitian buddy)
 
forget about time
the notion of symmetry here is just the notion of symmetry in the sense of Wigner's theorem, i.e. a ray transformation that leaves probabilities invariant
it is not necessary that the groups we're thinking about are dynamical symmetries in the sense that they commute with the Hamiltonian
 
oh okay and so this is distinct from the usual noetherian symmetry?
 
Oh so they r indeed two different notions of symmetry
 
excellent
 
I've seen these called "kinematic" and "dynamic" symmetry to distinguish them but unfortunately I don't think there really is a standard terminology here
 
7:15 AM
Ah okay well that clears it up :P
I am still confused about representations of spin, orbital angular momentum, and total angular momentum. So spin-1/2 operators are representations of \mathfrak{su}(2). orbital angular momentum operators are representations of \mathfrak{so}(3). total angular momentum is?
 
the angular momentum operators live in the algebra, not the group
 
oh oops
 
so first off they're representations of $\mathfrak{su}(2)$, not $\mathrm{SU}(2)$
and since $\mathfrak{su}(2)\cong\mathfrak{so}(3)$ that already solves part of your question: there is no difference between representations of $\mathfrak{su}(2)$ and representations of $\mathfrak{so}(3)$, they are the same algebra
the reason orbital angular momentum doesn't occur in half-integers is not representation-theoretic
it's just because the representation generated by the orbital angular momentum operators $x\times p$ on position space $L^2(\mathbb{R}^3)$ coincides with the (algebra version of the) natural representation of $\mathrm{SO}(3)$ on functions on $\mathbb{R}^3$
 
And the total angular momentum depends on ur system. e.g. ur system may just b a spinor, with no $x$ component. Then the total angular momentum wud just b the 1/2 representation
Or ur system may b two spinors, in which case u wud direct product the individual 1/2 representations
I mean u wud look for a representation of the total angular momentum on the direct product vector space
 
tensor product, not direct product
 
7:24 AM
Is the distinction important ? :P ive never felt a distinction
It must b subtle i gues
 
the distinction is fundamental to the notion of entanglement!
it's not subtle
a "direct product" is the Cartesian product of spaces, the tensor product is much bigger
 
Idk :P. Can u explain
 
Direct product of two spaces has dimension $2n$, tensor product has dimension $n^2$
 
$\mathbb{C}^n\times \mathbb{C}^m = \mathbb{C}^{n+m}$ but $\mathbb{C}^n\otimes\mathbb{C}^m = \mathbb{C}^{nm}$
 
Oh
So when u consider two QM particles together, u do a tensor product of the spaces?
 
7:27 AM
and then we can decompose the tensor product space into a direct sum of invariant subspaces right?
 
Like how the wavwfunction is $\psi (x, y) $ of the combined system
 
or perhaps decompose is a weird word
view the tensor product space as a direct sum of invariant subspaces
 
the whole point of an entangled state is that, in terms of the projective state spaces, it is not in the image of the natural embedding $P(H_1)\times P(H_2) \to P(H_1\otimes H_2)$
@SillyGoose yes
and decompose is the correct word, at least mathematically
 
oh
it feels strange to "decompose" a tensor product basis into a direct sum basis
transmute is more fun :)
Okay so to summarize so far: $\mathfrak{su}(2) \cong \mathfrak{so}(3)$, so spin and orbital angular momentum can be representations of either. But when we want to generate (in the rep theory sense) our groups, I am still not understanding for what reason we choose to map orbital angular momentum representation to SO(3). Are we forced to do so, or is it convenient?
 
what do you mean we "choose to exponentiate orbital angular momentum to SO(3)"?
 
7:32 AM
or whatever the word is to go from the lie algebra being represented by total angular momentum to the lie group SO(3)
is it lift?
 
I mean, if you go about this systematically we're not starting with the algebra and angular momentum here
physically, our starting point is that rotations should have a way to act on physical systems
and rotations are SO(3)
there's no choice there
 
hm but i thought we can equivalently start with the algebra
or so some answers on stack say
 
not start
but when you look at SO(3), you find that its projective representations are equivalent to the linear representations of SU(2), which in turn are equivalent to linear representations of its algebra $\mathfrak{su}(2)\cong\mathfrak{so}(3)$
 
wait so what is the starting postulate, or experimentally backed whatever? is it that orbital angular momentum is the generator of spatial rotations?
 
so when you're just interested in "which representations of SO(3) can occur in quantum mechanics", you can just forget about the group and just think about the algebra
@SillyGoose from my POV, the only starting postulate that makes sense is "rotations should have a way to act on physical states"
 
7:36 AM
@Slereah what is the difference between direct sum and direct product
 
and Wigner's theorem tells us that the "way" in which such transformations act on the quantum Hilbert space is by a projective representation
@RyderRude a direct sum is a direct product that is also a (direct) coproduct
for vector spaces there's no difference
 
wait so you are saying that okay we postulate that we should be able to rotate a system in blah blah ways that makes the set of rotations a group. it is the SO(3) group since we are rotating things in 3D space (?). we can then get all the way to the lie algebras. And so what people mean by "equivalently you can go from the algebra to the group" does not mean you can go a priori from the algebra to the group, but rather that because we know the group should be SO(3) we can find some mappings
from the lie algebra to SO(3)
 
And also is outer product the same as tensor product? @ACuriousMind @Slereah
 
The fundamental difference
 
7:41 AM
Yeah, i knew this stuff. Ive just been usinf wrong terms :P
 
Direct sum is the points, tensor product is the lines
 
Yeah, i knew this stuff. Ive just been using wrong terms :P
I think outer product and tensor product r used for almost the same thing, with maaybe a subtle difference
I mixed up the terms direct product and outer product
Or is outer product also not wut im thinking?
 
Outer product is the tensor product
 
Oh this i just conflated the terms outer product and direct product
 
Well, so for the spin case: the rotations generated by say the pauli matrices are of a different nature than spatial rotations, right?
So how would we motivate starting from the group and getting to the algebra
 
7:45 AM
Tensor product basically means that in general you can't really speak of the individual Hilbert spaces by themselves
That is what entanglement is
 
Yeah
U need the cross terms too
I know these ideas but i mix up the terms :P
Direct sum can b used when the systems hav nothing to do with each othr, but u r just considering then together for some reason
And outer product for interacting systems
 
I guess observables untenable to human senses cannot be motivated starting from the group? but from experiment? or is it just pedagogical how spin is introduced in say Sakurai?
but then i would expect to be able to experimentally motivate total angular momentum :P and then you can motivate everything from one perspective
 
U can motivate projective representations by considering that the predictions of QM only depend on the square modulus of wavefunction @SillyGoose
This is y u wanna go out looking for weird representations too
Becuz the wavefunction is allowed to become its negative under a 2pi rotation
 
You can just look for all projective reps of SO(3) for such purpose
turns out you have a bunch of weirder ones than you'd expect
Including weirder ones than spinors
some of them are real particles, some of them are not
 
But projective representations r the same as usual rerpesrtnations of the cover @Slereah
 
7:57 AM
hm I'm not understanding. so projective representations are kind of like dualities in textbook QM?
 
@Slereah like, what kind of what kind of cursed particles hav u seen
 
I guess technically it's the Lorentz group : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Continuous_spin_particle
SO(3) reps are indexed by just the $j$ number iirc
Although that's only for vector representations
 
These must b spinning like crazy
@SillyGoose what do u mean by "duality" here?
 
the theory of textbook quantum mechanics is invariant under switching between projective representations
 
Idk what that means :P
 
8:15 AM
More complex forms of products
 
Chinese products
 
@SillyGoose No, they are not different from spatial rotations. The point of "spin is angular momentum" is that spin really is angular momentum in the sense that it is related to spatial rotation. It's just not angular momentum of the form $x\times p$
What makes spin different from orbital angular momentum is that the spin representations are not the straightforward "how functions on $\mathbb{R}^3$ act under rotation" you'd expect from thinking about QM in terms of wavefunctions
 
8:31 AM
@ACuriousMind @Slereah Is there some philosophy of mathematics which is in-between Plantonist and Formalist?
 
I don't know
 
what is that supposed to be, "math is about formal manipulations of symbols but the symbols have objective immaterial existence"?
philosophical positions are not necessarily spectra, I don't know what "in-between" means here
 
If anything platonism might be in between formalism and pythagoreanism
material objects are just math objects
 
@SillyGoose You can experimentally motivate total angular momentum by showing that you can "convert" spin angular momentum into orbital angular momentum, cf. Einstein-de Haas effect
i.e. the two angular momenta are, in general, not seperately conserved and it is really just total angular momentum that relates to rotation and rotational symmetry in gneeral
 
@ACuriousMind @Slereah I dont mean a spectrum. I mean some philosophy that has pros of both.
Pros of formalism: U dont need to define what existence means beyond what u can verify to exist. Pros of platonism : U get motivation for why ur string manipulation system must be consistent and y the rules r not just arbitrary
 
8:39 AM
In fermi dirac statistics, when we see the graph that shows the dependency of the average occupation nr. from the energy value for different Temperatures, one can notice that all the plots contain the point with coordinates (fermi energy,1/2). What is the significance of this? What does it imply?
 
Sounds like someone wants to have their cake and eat it too
 
Kinda, yes. I need some compromise
Platonism is fine, except theres no way to define that sort of existence
 
What if some math objects are real but not others
like the REAL numbers
 
@RyderRude I don't think you appreciate that the existence of many different philosophical viewpoint to a question usually signifies that there's some sort of tradeoff that can't be solved :P
 
My advice is to drop the law of non-contradiction so that you may embrace both at the same time
 
8:42 AM
So I cant even pick a school then :P
 
What if all was true
 
Lol
Imo truth is only defined after a statement's interpretation wrt some set
There can b no set that can interpret both P and not P as true
Oh.... except the SET OF ALL SETS
Maybe we shud just embrace that that set exists :P
It means all things r true but some things r useful :P
 
What conditions should a system satisfy so that the Liouville theorem holds true ?
 
@imbAF depends on what kind of "systems" you're thinking about
every system in Hamiltonian mechanics obeys Liouville's theorem
but if you're thinking about some more general notion of "dynamical systems", in particular ones where energy isn't conserved, then it doesn't hold for every system
 
9:02 AM
so the Liouville theorem is only valid for isolated systems? where energy is conserved, which would make that a system that satisfies the hamiltonian mechanis
 
I mean, it really depends on what exactly you mean by "system" and "Liouville's theorem"
in the most narrow interpretation, Liouville's theorem is just a statement about Hamiltonian mechanics
 
the interpretation of it, where moving along side a trajectory in phase space the density of states is constant
 
my point is, what does "phase space" or "trajectory" mean if you're not doing Hamiltonian mechanics?
depending on your answer, the theorem may or may not hold for all systems you're considering
 
if the trajectory is only something that occurs for when energy is conserved than that would imply Hamiltonian mechanics. As we know, the only case we studied in class was the MCE, which is an isolated system, so conserved energy. I cannot speak about other cases
 
9:20 AM
@Slereah @ACuriousMind This is the philosophy I've made up so far : We pretend infinite collections exist and write down what axioms they would satisfy if they existed. This is all done to hopefully come up with a consistent and useful string manipulation game to produce truths about finite collections and computations
This philosophy is more inclined toward formalism. But it also provides a motivation for y ZFC is not just any game and y it should be consistent
 
@RyderRude I think there's a contradiction there possibly: if we assume an infinite set exists, it means we can also prove things about it. So the truths produced will also apply to infinite sets whose existence is assumed. Perhaps you want to say that these truths can only ever be verified or made use of for finite sets. For example $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n = 1$$ you can verify this expression is correct only up to a finite number of terms.
 
@Amit no, i dont mean that we assume infinite collections exist. I mean we pretend. The goal is to ultimately motivate why we wrote down the "meaningless" string which is the axiom of infinity
 
which isn't really verifying the equality. To verify the equality you have to use the closed formula which is again finite...
but pretending is not a mathematically defined process lol
 
We just be sloppy and use our feeling about infinite collections
@Amit but this is pre-mathematics!
We r trying come up with mathematics
 
I don't think it is only pre-mathematics. For example when you start defining a limit by saying for any $n\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $n>N$ ... I claim you are already assuming infinity, not only on some metaphysical level. The statement that you can always pick a greater number assumes infinity
 
9:34 AM
The problm with assuming an infinite collection exists, is how do u define that existence? Does it objectively exist in nature? @Amit
 
It doesn't have to exist in nature for you to define it
 
@Amit i mean...$n \in N$ it is still just a string. It can b used to make useful deductions about the finite world that we encounter. It's not necessary to interpret that string using an infinite collection
 
that's correct, but what about the other part. For any $N$ I can pick a strictly larger number...
You can even put that on an automated theorem prover and it will probably be able to use it to prove various theorems.
Even though the prover itself certainly can't represent infinite quantities
 
@Amit You don't need that sentence to do mathematics. Thr sentence "I can pick any larger number" is human intuition that we use to come up with mathematics. Mathematics is just strings
I mean this sentence is not mathematics
@Amit but i really want to know a definition of this. I'm struggling to define it @Amit
 
You are trying to separate totally the interpretation of the strings from the strings themselves if I get you correctly
Definition of infinity?
 
9:40 AM
@Amit i mean we interpret those strings to verify truths about finite collections and computations. This is where interpretation is necessary imo
@Amit definition for what it means for infinity to exist
Im thinking that this sentence means that an infinite collection objectively exists out there in nature
 
Well since the "machine language" of all this is as you say just string manipulation according to certain rules that also don't need to be interpreted, why are you bothered about whether you interpret a certain symbol as referring to infinity or not?
 
Sorry, I meant that we dont need that particular interpretation for any application of math. For applications, we need to relate math with finite collections and computations. That interpretation is necessary
But the interpretation of any string in terms of infinite collections is not necessary
I mean the latter interpretation is still useful for human intuition @Amit
But it's not necessary to assume such a collection exists
 
I don't agree that we don't need it, I think it is essential in some cases. Again suppose you are handling a very complex sum, something like a taylor expansion. It is essential to know whether it converges in a way that each term is a smaller correction, so that you know you're always safe in computing the next term and adding it. It makes a great deal of difference to know "no matter how many terms I compute, my sum only gets more accurate, never less"
this is not true for all series
as we know from renormalization etc.
 
@Amit that is a truth about finite computations that you interpret from the string manipulation that is your proof about the infinite sum
I mean you can verify that truth for finite computations that it keeps converging
 
Yeah but you just said, we don't need the interpretation of something being infinite. I am saying this is the interpretation that allows you to know you're taking correct action here
 
9:49 AM
But any computation that you will ever do is finite in nature. You can interpret from ur string manipulation that ur finite compitation will b alright. In saying u need not assume that there exist an infinite collection of objects
 
I agree, every computation is finite, every verification is finite
 
So this is y u r justified in doing that computation. Becuz u hav interpreted thaat ur finite computation is fine
 
But we need apparently some ideas beyond computation and verification to make skilled use of our math :)
 
@Amit Yeah, I agree. In practice, platonism is useful for human intuition
Humans have a feeling of infinity
Even tho nothing infinite ever exists in our brain
 
Platonism is somewhat of an exaggeration but yeah it's in that general "direction"
 
9:51 AM
Lol
 
To see a world in a grain of sand...
 
But can we ever take this idea FULLY seriously? I mean, not just as a feeling to motivate string manipulation. To take it fully seriously, how do we define what existence means beyond what one can ever verify?
Would this mean sets objective exist in nature? Or can there be other camps too?
 
define existence of infinity?
 
Yeah, how do we define that existence
It surely exists as a string. But as a collection, does it exist in nature?
 
Nothing in math has a pretense to exist in nature... I mean if you take Platonism as a kind of an ideal for math, Platonic forms are not supposed to enter reality, reality is only in their image
 
9:55 AM
Yeah, but then they r just extending nature to another universe which exists
How is that existence defined
 
@RyderRude Honestly, I think the correct response from a scientific/falsificationist standpoint here is that this is a meaningless question
 
@ACuriousMind That's wut im thinking!
 
there is no experiment I can run that would distinguish "a world in which infinity exists" from " a world in which infinity doesn't exist"
@RyderRude if it is, then it is not what you're saying
you've been debating the "existence" of mathematical objects for days here
if you think it's a meaningless question, I don't know why you're talking about it so much
just say "doesn't matter" and move on
 
It's sometimes hard to put into words what's bugging one, that I can understand :)
 
Hmmm.. Yeah im mostly in the formalist camp @ACuriousMind
Ok let's forget about whether infinity exists from the scientific verification PoV. Im interested in if theres any other definition of existence
Becuz the scientific question is settled
Platonists say that things exist but they dont define existence.
 
10:00 AM
For a scientist what exists is what the experimenter recorded in his notebook :)
 
@Amit @ACuriousMind What if we, suppose, say that physics IS nature? I mean the sets that physics uses objective exist? Is this a good definition of existence
 
scientific verification? what is this, logical positivism?
 
There are no experimenters recording me
Do I exist?
 
@RyderRude why would you say that?
 
@Slereah You think the h bar is not an experiment?? :D
 
10:01 AM
Nobody even used sets until the 20th century
Although I guess people used universals
which were essentially sets
 
Becuz most scientists believe in an objective reality. Suppose life gets wiped out. Does the set of planets exist objectively now?@ACuriousMind
And does spacetime exist objectively now
Let's say we say that spacetime IS nature
 
How do you even know the past exist
or the future
 
Then an infinite set can objectively exist
 
@RyderRude here's a famous dissenter from that view: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
 
Can you be sure that the informations you get from your senses are fundamentally differenty from the ones you get from your mind
etc etc
 
10:04 AM
@RyderRude Suggestion: Question the demand for certainty!
 
Are you even sure that the basic rules of reason that you use make sense since you cannot prove them from themselves in any satisfying ways
 
I mean... What other definition do we even have of nature? Y not just say the sets of physics ARE nature? @ACuriousMind @Amit @Slereah
 
Plenty of schizophrenics have no problem holding contradictory ideas
 
I mean the sets that physics uses like spacetime
 
what if you are insane and don't know it
 
10:06 AM
lol, sometimes the insane person is the one who suffers from an excess of logic and not from the lack of it
 
Ummm.... this is devolving into a discussion of consciousness
 
sets are only in the consciousness! :)
 
You can start questioning just about anything if you really want to
 
Im asking, what other definition to we have of nature
 
definitions are consciousness
 
10:07 AM
I'm afraid in 3000 yeqrs of philosophy nobody has really given an argument to convince everyone
Maybe you're not gonna fond an answer there
 
@Slereah If anyone is convinced the fun of debating is over ^_^
 
@RyderRude the basic idea of falsificationism is that we never gain certainty about what "is"
we just have models, and these models can be differently accurate
 
Yeah. It can b that no model is perfect. Then nature cannot b described using sets
 
that's been on a technical level the mainstream scientific position for decades now
the question "do sets exist in nature?" just doesn't make sense
 
I'd say it's not quite true
 
10:09 AM
the question is "Can we use sets to model nature?"
 
On a practical level we have plenty of heuristics
 
Okaay. Then nature is "something" unknowable. And sets and strings are human interpretation of it
 
We don't go purely by verificationism methods
It just wouldn't work
 
But the key point is... "Nature is something". It's not nothing. Something objectively exists
 
There's infinitely many different models you can fit on just about any data
 
10:10 AM
oh, sure, you have to add Occam's razor and some sort of disclaimer about incommensurability etc.
 
Not even necessarily an interpretation. The main thing today is to use these models to extract juicy predictions about what nature will do in a given situation. You don't need to interpret what it does to predict what it does
 
I'd say we have tons of heuristics really
Just unspoken ideas as to what constitutes a good physical model
 
@RyderRude That's about as much as we'll ever know for certain. Even solipsists agree that "something" exists (themselves)
 
People aren't trying to literally find every possible mathematical model
 
Ive been holding this viewpoint for long, that it doesnt make sense for sets to exist out there. Im just trying to clear the loose ends now
 
10:12 AM
@Slereah that's just Feyerabend's and Kuhn's critique of falsificationism, really
 
The one looose end is... what IS nature
 
It's true: We have "external" rules about how we select the field of theories we then actually test via falsificationism
 
It is Azathoth
 
We interpret sets out of it. Nature must have enough structure to allow for sets in its interpretation @ACuriousMind @Slereah @Amit
 
10:13 AM
I mean.. Nature cant b ONE structureless blob
 
Toot toot
Are you sure
Maybe all physical observations have been random so far
 
@RyderRude Again: What does it mean to say that "nature" has structure?
 
@RyderRude Or we have enough structure to impose our ideas on nature :)
 
But by coincidence they fit some model
 
all we know for certain is that the structure is in our models, not "in nature"
 
10:15 AM
Lol. But then again u get the concept of randomnes and observations out of nature @Slereah
 
And tomorrow the world will fail to obey any previous rule
 
Is there any intel on what IS nature
ANYTHING
 
Maybe the past does not exist and our memories are in place from the rules of the universe
 
Or is all of it undescribable by definition
 
And then what can we say of physics
 
10:16 AM
@RyderRude not if you actually commit to consistently thinking about science just as a body of models
 
Any intel you get is colored by the limitations of your biology, possibly also your culture education and society... we have no way to look at it differently. Even if we ask our alien friends, we have to interpret what they're saying into our framework lol
 
that this is...not satisfying to many is the primary reason people still debate epistemology, I think :P
 
So this is where any such discussion must end. NOTHING can b said about nature. Not even that nature is nothing or structureless. Becuz even the concept of nothing has been borrowed from our own experience
 
I mean, if people agreed that this is the end epistemology would have ended with Humean skepticism
yet we kept going :P
 
No actually we are all spirits in the mind of God, nevermind what I said
 
10:18 AM
we r not allowed to ask "Why is there something instead of nothing? ". Its beyond our pay-grade
 
It's all water
 
@ACuriousMind I can see one place where epistemology is helpful: when coming up with new theories/models, it seems that epistemology can lead you in very different directions. And we need different directions to come up with an improved body of models
 
@RyderRude "beyond our pay-grade" implies there is a reason, we just can't know it
but actually the question just doesn't make sense
@Amit oh, I'm not saying we should have stopped at Humean skepticism!
 
@RyderRude You might enjoy reading about Stephen Wolfram's concept of the Ruliad. writings.stephenwolfram.com/2021/11/the-concept-of-the-ruliad I must admit that I didn't finish reading that whole article, but it does have some intiguing ideas. OTOH, maybe you should get a bit more background in philosophy & metaphysics first...
 
that we can't know any potential objective reality for certain is "true", but still we need methods of talking about what we colloquially mean by reality and "truth", like factual statements that correspond in some sense to our sensual perception
we just shouldn't fool ourselves into thinking we're talking about objective reality - no, we're talking more about a kind of shared hallucination
 
10:21 AM
Yes, the discussion of epistemology becomes less productive when we expect to get to some final "objective conclusion"
 
If you wish to reach such a point I recommend joining a cult
 
human minds are pattern-matching machines, they impose structures and mental models upon their perceptions and the task of epistemology is to provide a framework that provides a meaningful sense in which some of these structures can be better ("scientific", "true") than others ("delusional", "wrong")
it's not about what "really is" and more about what kind of beliefs about the nature of the world are useful to us
 
@Slereah lol, I'd recommend asking where is the need to reach it. People in cults sometimes realize there was no need after spending decades in the cult...
 
How did you acquire the certainty that the mind is a pattern matching machine
 
@Slereah I have a mind. It matches patterns
just very basic Cartesian cogito, ergo sum
 
10:26 AM
'Cause it's curious
 
But it's not just about usefulness, though. Memes (in Dawkins' original sense) can propagate even when they aren't particularly useful. They just happen to have the right attributes to appeal to enough minds and to fit the prevailing memetic landscape.
 
I take it back I think the world just doesn't exist
 
10:50 AM
Of course the world exists. It was created last Thursday. rationalwiki.org/wiki/Last_Thursdayism
I used to love thinking and talking about this stuff when I was young. But I decided that it's not healthy to invest too much energy in it. It didn't help Cantor, Boltzmann, Gödel, etc...
 
Amen
When such discussions get serious I always wonder whether they in fact should be seen as inadvertent therapy sessions lol
 
11:16 AM
@PM2Ring my point was that is we accept the basic premise of radical skepticism then it is exactly the task of epistemology to provide a framework that separates useful "memes" about the nature of the world from non-useful ones
 
But how do you assign usefulness if you have no epistemology
If you don't assume induction you're not gonna be able to!
 
I mean that it's the epistemology that defines "useful"
I don't believe in objective usefulness of beliefs about the nature of the world either :P
 
0
Q: When are modified closed question reviewed again, and how is this visible?

Mike AnblipsI got my question closed (by a bot? Looks like it from the first comment) and when I saw this, I rephrased and tried to abide to the comments (should be more focused). This happened yesterday, the question is still closed but I cannot understand whether it's been reviewed and rejected a second ti...

 
11:40 AM
@ACuriousMind Fair enough.
And yet, it can be very difficult to get rid of less useful concepts that have managed to survive. It can be difficult to even notice that they exist, although you can get glimpses by studying other cultures and religions. And other times.
 
11:57 AM
0
Q: What is wrong with this question?

Elizabeth HuffmanHow can the entire system be at rest irrespective of how much external force you apply? What is wrong with this question? Seriously? I even got an upvote by some sensible dude. Do you think Muhammed Ali would be the greatest boxer by just reading BOXING theory and asking theoretical doubts to his...

 
We lost Jacob Ziv a couple of days ago, and Abraham Lempel several weeks ago. They aren't exactly household names, but LZ based compression algorithms are executed billions (or trillions) of times a day. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abraham_Lempel en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacob_Ziv
 
What if that man was the only man making sense
 
12:33 PM
In thermodynamics, Q=U+W and G=H-ST. Are Q and H the same thing? Else how are they related?(I dunno if this is the right place though)
 
12:49 PM
0
Q: What do you think about moderators editing your English form in the quesitons?

Mike AnblipsI just got a recently posted question edited by a third person - a moderator I suppose - for what I consider very small elements that do not really add or subtract from the understanding or the meaning of the conveyed message. I don't know how to relate to this, I find it slightly intruding. Mayb...

 
 
1 hour later…
1:57 PM
^ I find it slightly disturbing that someone can be a member for >9 years and not understand such basic things about how Stack Exchange works.
 
the hell is Stack Exchange
 

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