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2:34 AM
I have a weird doubt
Law of em induction
When we talk only about emf we have dphi/dt = -e
ie, the derivation is infact for integral E dl and not exactly for a circuit
so my doubt is: when a circuit is taken, a dI/dt term will appear?
I being current in circuit
 
2:48 AM
I ran into this when I was trying to go backwards from Biot Savart to Lenz (like how we did historically before maxwell’s eqns became the fundamental description)
 
 
2 hours later…
4:31 AM
@JohnRennie hi
I have a couple of questions to ask, are you free?
 
@AshishAhuja hi :-)
@AshishAhuja yes I'm free.
 
Q: Given an equilateral triangle made up of three rods each of length $l$, find the electric field strength at the centroid of the triangle. The linear charge density on two of the rods is $+\lambda$, and the third is $-\lambda$.
Here's what I thought
By the superposition principle the magnitude of the electric field will be $2E$, where $E$ is the electric field exerted by any one of the rods at the centroid.
Now we simply need to integrate for one of the rods and find $E$
 
Yes
 
However, I ended up struggling with the integration since it got rather complicated and I got the wrong answer. I tried both integrating with the angle and the distance from the midpoint of the rod. Could you write down the integral and then I'll try solving it?
The results I found online seemed even more complicated than what I had gotten...
 
It's a standard result i.e. the field due to a finite rod. In this case we are halfway along the rod so the component parallel to the rod vanishes and we need to consider only the perpendicular component. Yes?
 
4:39 AM
yes
 
I think you can do it either using the angle or just using distance along the rod. I'll draw a diagram:
 
Okay.
I know the basic principle, if we do it based on angle we would take a small charge dQ at some distance which we can relate to the angle and length, find the perpendicular component of this dE due to dQ and integrate.
So if you'd like you can skip straight to the integral but anything is fine.
 
Can I use MathJax?
 
4:44 AM
yes
 
The horizontal component is: $$ dE = \frac{k dq}{r^2}\cos\theta $$
 
And $\cos\theta = y/r = y/\sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$
 
And $dq = \rho dx$
So we're going to end up with a somewhat messy equation:
$$ dE = k\rho y \frac{dx}{(x^2 + y^2)^{3/2}} $$
 
4:48 AM
yeah this is exactly what I got too.
Then the indefinite integral becomes complicated and we get a large term with natural log in it
 
I think that's a standard integral. I'd have to look it up as I'm out of practice doing integrals.
 
yeah even I don't know how to do such integrals, I looked it up. It was rather complicated. But the answer is
$$\frac{\lambda}{2 \pi \epsilon l}$$
 
That seems a surprisingly simple result for a horrible integral :-)
 
yeah lol
 
Where $\ell$ is the distance from the rod?
 
4:53 AM
no l is the length of the rod
 
But unless the rod in infinite the result must depend on the distance from the rod.
 
yes but the distance from the rod can be related to $l$. it is an equilateral triangle
 
Ah, sorry, you meant the result in this case, not the general result for the field of a finite rod.
 
ah yes
 
OK. You seem to have this under control, except for the integral which no-one normal can do anyway.
 
4:56 AM
well I haven't studied integration formally in maths yet, who knows jee might have such weird integrals as well :O
 
No, you wouldn't be expected to integrate that in the JEE. Not even advanced.
 
oh ok
I have a couple more questions, I'll go ahead?
 
Yes
 
I was able to solve it about the center of mass.
But my first approach was to try doing it about the instantaneous axis of rotation, since that generally makes stuff much easier. How would we go about doing that?
 
I don't think using the IAOR is going to be easy.
 
5:03 AM
because calculating torque about IAOR is messy?
 
When you use the centre of the ring you have some symmetry to help you but that isn't present if you find the torque about the IAOR.
 
ah ok, that's what I thought too but was wondering if there was a way.
Last question:
The question is rather easy to solve once you take the surface tension forces as $\sigma a \sqrt2$
because two forces of $\sigma a$ in perpendicular directions
 
You mean taking the component of the force due to the surface tension along the diagonals.
 
yes, which would also be the net force due to surface tension. It gave me the correct answer, but I'm not sure why the surface tension force would be so
 
Yes, I agree.
The surface tension is just a force normal to the edges of the square, and it's perfectly reasonable to divide that into two components at 45° to the rods.
Shall I draw a diagram?
 
5:10 AM
to my understanding the net surface tension force over the whole edge should be $\sigma a$, not necessarily over the point charge as well?
@JohnRennie ok
 
Actually virtual work might be the easiest way to do this ...
 
I've never actually used virtual work before
 
The idea is that if the system is at equilibrium then its potential energy must be at a minimum or a maximum (minimum for stable equilibrium and maximum for unstable equilibrium).
 
this is unstable right?
 
So for some parameter x that describes the system dU/dx = 0.
@AshishAhuja yes, this will be unstable, though in fact we don't care whether it's stable or unstable. In both cases dU/dx = 0, and that means if we move the system an infinitesimal amount the PE shouldn't change.
 
5:16 AM
oh right
 
Suppose you imagine displacing the sides outwards a distance dx, then the work done against the surface tension on each side is just $a\sigma dx$.
 
And the work done by the electrostatic repulsion is $Eq\sqrt{2}dx$
And for the total PE not to change we require that the two works cancel out i.e. $a\sigma dx = Eq\sqrt{2}dx$
 
@JohnRennie on a single point charge?
 
@AshishAhuja I've considered a single edge and a single charge. Multiply both sides by 4 to get the total work, but the factor of 4 cancels anyway.
 
5:21 AM
wait what have you defined E as? The net electric field on a point charge due to the other three?
 
Yes
It out to give the same result, because it is effectively just balancing the forces at the charges just like the first calculation.
 
yup got it. I'll try it out now...
 
Actually it's no faster is it?
In both cases you're basically just calculating the same forces.
 
yes it looks like. For me forces would probably be faster since this is something I need to stop and think about.
 
Yes. Virtual work can be easier in some cases, but here your original approach is just as fast and probably easier to understand.
 
5:25 AM
I'm getting a different answer from this method?
I'll type it out, maybe I'll spot the mistake.
$$E = \frac{kq}{a^2} \times (\frac{1}{2} + \sqrt2)$$
7 mins ago, by John Rennie
And for the total PE not to change we require that the two works cancel out i.e. $a\sigma dx = Eq\sqrt{2}dx$
$$a = \frac{Eq \sqrt2}{\sigma}$$
$$a = \frac{kq}{a^2} \times (\frac{1}{2} + \sqrt2) \times \frac{q \sqrt2}{\sigma}$$
$$a^3 = \frac{kq^2}{\sigma} \times (\frac{1}{ \sqrt2 } + 2)$$
given answer is at the bottom
hopefully I didn't mess up the algebra..?
 
Hmm, I got $$ a^3 = \frac{kq^2}{\sigma} \times (\frac{1}{ 2 } + \sqrt{2}) $$ but i did it in a hurry and could easily have missed a factor of $\sqrt{2}$ somewhere.
 
@JohnRennie looks like you missed multiplying the $\sqrt2$ here
 
Oops, yes :-)
Then I get the correct answer
Didiving by that extra $\sqrt{2}$ gives the answer in your book.
 
don't you need to multiply by the $\sqrt2$?
 
No, wait, I need to multiply by $\sqrt{2}$ ...
Hmm, so we're a factor of 2 away from the correct result.
 
5:35 AM
yes
 
I'll have to think about this ...
It must work because it's balancing the same forces in both cases.
 
Ok, np. Would it be possible for you to explain why the force on the point charge will be $\sigma a \sqrt2$? That would answer my original query completely, since that is what I am not convinced of.
(force due to surface tension)
 
I must admit it seems obvious to me. I'm not sure how to approach this ...
 
Okay, I'll explain exactly what's bugging me.
The force on each edge is $\sigma a$.
if we had a rod say on this edge
the force on each small section of this rod would not be $\sigma a$, since all the small sections must have the same acceleration as the whole rod but have a smaller mass
(assuming small acceleration for time dt)
I just don't get why the net force on the whole edge must be the same as the net force on the point charge.
 
For each element of the rod take the force $\sigma dx$ and write it as the sum of two components at 45° to the rod.
Actually let me take a step back.
 
5:42 AM
ok. To make it simpler you can just take one edge with one rod if you'd like, we can ignore the other surface.
 
There are two forces acting on the rod. There is the force in towards the centre and there is a compressive force acting along the length of the rod. yes?
 
compressive force? due to what?
 
Ignore the charges for now and just consider a frame made from four rigid rods with the soap film in the centre.
 
Now imagine making the rods soft, then the surface tension is going to compress them and shrink the size of the square. Yes?
 
5:45 AM
yeah I got the reason of the compression force, I was originally thinking of another situation.
 
OK. So the point is that at each point we have the two forces at right angles.
 
Let me draw a diagram:
If you consider a small element of the rod you have these forces acing on it. The red arrows are the force due to the compression and the blue force is the surface tension force.
 
And you can add pairs of forces to rewrite the total force as two components at 45°:
 
5:52 AM
ok
 
So add up all the elements and you'll get the total force on the edge as a pair of components at 45° i.e. in the direction of the purple arrows.
 
And since the rods are rigid we can make these forces act at any point on the rod. So we make them act at the ends of the rod.
That gives the diagonal forces at the corners that balance out the diagonal forces due to the charges.
 
hmm but at the corner (say top left), there will be no compression force from the top right?
 
Remember that four rods exert forces on each other.
So at the corners we have the forces from the other two rods that this rod is connected to.
 
5:57 AM
hmm ok
By doing this haven't you just proven that the force on the corners will be two components each of magnitude $$\frac{\sigma dx}{\sqrt2}$$
 
We integrated didn't we, so $dx$ integrates to $a$
so you get $2 \times \sigma a/\sqrt{2}$
 
There is something I'm missing in my thought process, I guess I'll come to realize it sooner or later.
Thank you
 
6:14 AM
> https://i.stack.imgur.com/5VlmO.jpg
@JohnRennie if you are free sir?
Ill send the msg again im not able to figure out how to link it
I have a weird doubt
Law of em induction
When we talk only about emf we have dphi/dt = -e
ie, the derivation is infact for integral E dl and not exactly for a circuit
so my doubt is: when a circuit is taken, a dI/dt term will appear?
I being current in circuit

I ran into this when I was trying to go backwards from Biot Savart to Lenz (like how we did historically before maxwell’s eqns became the fundamental description)
 
I'm busy for a while. I'll ping you when I'm free.
 
Wokay :D
 
6:45 AM
@RishiNandhaVanchi In a circuit you typically have a resistance. If you consider a loop and at time zero introduce a changing magnetic field then this will induce an EMF and dI/dt will transiently be non-zero. But as the resistance increases the voltage drop due to the resistance increases until it is equal to the induced EMF and that point dI/dt becomes zero.
Or you could look at this another way. If you have a perfect inductor and apply an EMF then both the current and field increase linearly with time i.e. dI/dt and dB/dt are constant. In a real inductor we have resistance and the current becomes constant once the voltage drop due to resistance balances the applied EMF.
 
@JohnRennie so the expression i ended up is right and we normally neglect dI/dt / assume steady state in our analysis at highschool level?
In the picture i mean
 
Well we always get a steady state. The hypothetical zero resistance circuit causes various problems when we try to do calculations with it.
 
No im taking a loop with resistance
 
In a loop with resistance we get a steady state.
 
And conserving energy, I end up with lenz law only if dI/dt = 0, doubt is if I went wrong with the energy conservation or if we normally assume dI/dt = 0
At highschool level
@JohnRennie ohhhh
So in reality there is dI/dt transient even if we assume self inductance = 0?
like i got in the expression
 
6:58 AM
Well there is no current before you start changing the field and a constant current once the voltage drop across the resistance balances out dΦ/dt so there must be a transient current increase in between.
 
7:12 AM
@JohnRennie Sir , can I say data is a raw fact in computer science subject,
 
I'm not sure what a raw fact means. It is not a term I have seen before.
 
Ok. Np
 
 
1 hour later…
8:33 AM
@JohnRennie So my steps were right?
 
@JohnRennie V quick. I got 2s component of 10 = 10. Is it right ?
 
Do you mean two's complement?
Two's complement is a mathematical operation on binary numbers, and is an example of a radix complement. It is used in computing as a method of signed number representation. The two's complement of an N-bit number is defined as its complement with respect to 2N; the sum of a number and its two's complement is 2N. For instance, for the three-bit number 010, the two's complement is 110, because 010 + 110 = 8 which is equal to 23. The two's complement is calculated by inverting the bits and adding one. Two's complement is the most common method of representing signed integers on computers, and more...
 
Yes sir
@JohnRennie
I am getting wrong for 10. Don’t know why
 
ayyy
 
U see here , I am getting 3-2 = 6
 
8:38 AM
hello from discord @RishiNandhaVanchi
 
im going through the convo
What term corresponds to the inductances? (i'll be back in a bit actually was writing some qs)
 
@SrijanM.T the error is happening because you need to include the leading zeros.
 
8:56 AM
So if I understood it right
Faraday law's dphi/dt = - Line integral of E
and that doesnt directly become dphi/dt = -IR
?
but becomes I dphi/dt + phi dI/dt = VI?
or does potential energy = M*B doesnt hold if M is changing?
 
I'm a bit busy again. I'll have to get back to you later.
 
sure sir
If someone else's clear with it i'd hear gladly from them too :D
 
9:20 AM
@JohnRennie its a rather simple integral actually
 
@satan29 OK :-)
 
@AshishAhuja you can use the substitution $$x=ytan(\phi)$$ i suppose
it converts to $$dE= k\rho \dfrac{cos \phi d\phi}{y}$$
 
 
2 hours later…
11:35 AM
I actually think there maybe problems involving integration in advanced
but idk about electrostatics
 
 
4 hours later…
3:10 PM
@JohnRennie Ohk.
 
@SrijanM.T if you use leading zeo then 3 is 011 and 2 is 010
Then the two's complement of 2 is 110 so to subtract 2 from three we do the sum
 011
 110
 ---
1001
But since we are only using three digits the leftmost digit in the sum is lost and we get the result 001 i.e. 3 - 2 = 1
 
3:57 PM
Ohk
Thats where I went wrong
@JohnRennie Thanks a lot sir. 🙏
@JohnRennie Ok
 
4:40 PM
@JohnRennie Sir are you there?
 

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