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5:47 AM
@JohnRennie Hello
 
@pi-π hi :-)
 
@JohnRennie 6c?
In C language
 
That looks straightforward. Where are you running into problems with it?
 
@JohnRennie Adjusting the signs before each term
 
Can you post the code you've tried so far?
 
5:53 AM
@JohnRennie: Hi sir. Good morning :-)
 
@GuruVishnu hi :-)
 
Are you replying to pi-π @JohnRennie sir?
 
@GuruVishnu yes.
@pi-π did you try writing some code to do this?
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir. I'll start after that.
 
@JohnRennie Yes... I could adjust the sign by assigning sign=-1 and sign=sign*(-1).
i was missing that *(-1) part
 
5:57 AM
@pi-π that's the way I would do it.
 
@JohnRennie okay
 
Would you like to have a go, and in the mean time I'll answer @GuruVishnu's question. I'll be here for several hours if you run into any problems.
@GuruVishnu what did you want to ask?
 
@JohnRennie Okay. You may continue with @GuruVishnu
 
@JohnRennie Good Morning sir 😊
 
@user8718165 hi :-)
 
6:04 AM
@pi-π, @JohnRennie: Thank you :-)
@JohnRennie: I hope the following is a good candidate:
For a real erect image, but it follows after an inversion.
 
That's two lenses with an intermediate image
 
@user8718165 Hi. Where did you get that "smiley" from? Did you use any HTML code?
 
It's two planoconvex lenses with a block of glass between them.
@GuruVishnu unicode
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir. And I've requested for a direct real and erect image.
 
Yes, but you specified only one lens
 
6:08 AM
@JohnRennie But that's still a single device. That doesn't matter. But I'm looking for a direct process.
 
It's not really a single device.
 
@GuruVishnu I did it with my phone.
 
@JohnRennie Could you please explain that sir? I interpret it as two refractions = a single lens like something and so a single device.
 
Let me draw a diagram ...
 
@JohnRennie Thank you sir.
@user8718165 Ok! Now understood.
 
6:14 AM
@GuruVishnu If I draw this then it's two lenses producing the erect image via an intermediate inverted image. Yes?
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir. Even if we have glass between the lenses, we could clearly interpret the inversion as I explained in the reply to the answerer:
Thank you for your answer. I'm glad you understood my definition of a "single optical device". I think the ray diagram in your answer produces real and erect image through an intermediate inversion process (at the middle of the device where blue is below green which is below red). Even though the diagram clearly answers the question, I'm curious to know is it possible to produce a real and erect image as a direct process without any intermediate inversions? — Guru Vishnu 45 mins ago
 
Ah, OK, then we're saying the same thing.
The point is that it works vi an intermediate image not by directly creating an erect image.
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir. And the other answer uses something little bit interesting. A material of non uniform index of refraction also using an intermediate inversion:
 
OK, though neither answer addresses what you are really asking.
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir :-|
But I'm learning something interesting and new from each answer.
 
6:24 AM
@GuruVishnu which is good :-)
 
@JohnRennie: :-)
@JohnRennie: Are you free now sir?
 
Yes.
I'm doing bits and pieces of work so I may occasionally be a bit slow answering
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir. No problem :-)
@JohnRennie: I'm asked to find the effective capacitance of the following capacitor, and I found it using regular integration. I'm looking for an alternate solution. Is there any such method sir?
I thought of combining another such capacitor but in an inverted position which will be in series with this one. But I got an incorrect answer.
 
No, integration is the correct method. It can be subdivided into an infinite number of infinitesimal capacitors in parallel. You integrate to sum up all those infinitesimal capacitors.
 
@JohnRennie: I did something like the following where I swapped the dielectrics in two different capacitors to give an uniform dielectric. Could you please tell why this method fails?
I just swapped two wedges so that capacitors become uniform.
 
6:43 AM
Suppose K1 = K2. Your method then gives an answer a factor of two too small.
 
@JohnRennie Sure. I'll account for it later. The capacitance of the second setup is C/2 means capacitance of the original capacitor is C.
@JohnRennie Fun note: If K1=K2 then I wouldn't have asked this question to you ;-)
 
@GuruVishnu yes, but when you're attempting to understand a problem always take the simplest options to see what happens. So in this case taking K1=K2 immediately shows your method gives the wrong answer.
This is a very useful general approach to simplifying a complicated problem.
 
@JohnRennie No sir. I'll just multiply the final result with two after all processes:
2 mins ago, by Guru Vishnu
@JohnRennie Sure. I'll account for it later. The capacitance of the second setup is C/2 means capacitance of the original capacitor is C.
 
It's a bold assumption that you can just multiply by two even when K1 ne K2 ...
 
Fine sir. I just wanted to know whether swapping of diagonal dielectrics is allowed? I see the answer is "no" as the final result obtained through this is incorrect. I do wish to know "why"?
Did I explain clearly what I meant by swapping of dielectrics, or may I draw another diagram?
 
6:56 AM
No, your approach is clear. But the reason your approach doesn't work is because it's nohing like the original circuit. You replace the original circuit with one that's completely differet and wonder why they don't give the same answers.
 
@JohnRennie And they give drastically different answers. The correct one has logarithm term whereas the incorrect one doesn't.
@JohnRennie Further. I don't think it should make a difference if we change the order of the dielectrics. Probably the diagonal shape is causing the trouble. Again I'm looking for PEV :-)
@JohnRennie: Shall we continue once you're completely free sir?
 
I'm working now for a while ...
 
@JohnRennie Can you ping me when you're free sir?
I'll probably be in the main site.
 
@GuruVishnu OK, though it will be a while ...
 
 
2 hours later…
9:24 AM
@GuruVishnu hi
 
9:34 AM
4
Q: How does a car gain kinetic energy?

Kevin C SpeltzI understand that the engine delivers power to the wheels and friction from the ground causes the wheels to roll. However, given the power (work per time) at the wheels, how does that energy become the kinetic energy of the car, since friction force from road doesn't do any work? Is it simply be...

@JohnRennie Good morning sir! The OP of the given question says that work done is evaluated by the motion of point of contact. Since point of contact is at rest therefore no work is done. Is that reasoning true?
 
Caculating work done depends on what frame you use. For example in the rest frame of the car the road/tyre contact point is moving.
 
@JohnRennie if the frame of reference is ground then?
 
In the case of the car the obvious place to calculate the work is at the engine. The rotational equivalent of the work equation is work = torque times angle. You should be able to convince yourself that this is the same as the usual force times distance.
If you're working in the reference frame of the ground then calculate torques about the contact point and you'll find they are non-zero. Then the power is the torque times the angular velocity.
 
11
A: How does a car gain kinetic energy?

jawheeleThere have been several answers given that address the main point that friction serves to convert the energy provided by the engine into kinetic energy of the car, but none seem to address the mechanism behind this transfer of energy. The only force accelerating the car along the road is static f...

But the op is saying that such methods are wrong ( at least that's what he says in comment).
@JohnRennie sir are you there?
 
9:56 AM
I'm afraid my interest in the question is limited.
 
@JohnRennie ok sir!
1
Q: How can energy have inertia?

Volker SiegelHow can energy have inertia? To my intuition, inertia is so closely associated with mass that my intuition says "Huh?" Indirectly by mass energy equivalence it works fine, for example: I have a closed system, and add energy. Now it has more mass according to $E=mc^2$, and the inertia associa...

 
@JohnRennie Hi sir :-)
 
@GuruVishnu hi
 
@JohnRennie sir have you seen this question? The answer there seems to use $E = mc^2$ for light but I have made this comment is it right?
 
@JohanLiebert you are correct
 
9:59 AM
@JohnRennie Shall we continue after Johan's doubt, sir?
 
@GuruVishnu you can continue now!
 
@JohanLiebert Thank you :-) I hope I didn't cause a conversation fission.
 
@GuruVishnu let me upload a diagram I drew:
The actual capacitor is shown at the top left.
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir. (BTW the diagram is so excellent compared to what I did in paint!)
 
We do the calculation by considering an array of capacitiv elements in parallel and integrate them. So what I'm showing on the right is what if we approximate the real capacitor by two capacitors in parallel. Then we get the circuit on the right.
@GuruVishnu I use Google Draw. It's really good for this sort of diagram.
Anyhow we get the approximate circuit at the top right.
 
10:05 AM
@JohnRennie Yes sir. You said this to me previously. I too tried to use that. But it asked to draw a ton of useless stuff and I got bored. So I'm just using paint for faster chat and power point for slower questions.
@JohnRennie Yes sir. Understood.
 
Then in the bottom half of the diagram I'm showing your suggested approach and the equivalent circuit.
My point is that the two circuits are completely different. There's no reason they should give related answers.
 
@JohnRennie Fine sir. So we aren't allowed to swap the dielectric pieces in that way? I'm 100% sure the bottom method is incorrect but could you tell the reason behind that?
Sometime ago I tried to calculate the capacitance of the dielectric piece but then realised it's capacitance is undefined. (May be this could help.)
My claim is: We're just swapping the dielectric pieces in the two setup, then why is there a difference (a very huge difference) in the final result?
Did I explain it properly sir?
Do you wish to have a look at the final results, sir?
 
@JohnRennie Exactly! :-)
 
OK. Where it's going wrong is that in the right two diagrams the potential on the slanted plate is everywhere the same because it's a conducting plate.
On the left diagram the potential at the junction between the two dielectrics is not the same everywhere along the slanted line joining them.
 
10:17 AM
@JohnRennie Fine sir. Where did that conducting plate come from on the slanted plates?
 
By definition a capacitor is two conductng plates with some dielectric (or vacuum) between them.
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir. But what if we consider the rightmost system as two separate capacitors of uniform dielectric medium?
I think in this case we will not be required to have the conducting plates.
 
If you do that then the potential everywhere on the slanting plate will be the same because that plate is a conductor.
But this isn't the case for the actual capacitor that is shown on the left. So the two cases are physically different.
 
@JohnRennie If we're neglecting the conducting plates (in the second and last case), will the potential be different much like the first case sir?
 
@GuruVishnu take the top left pair, and assume there are no plates on the slanted surface.
 
10:21 AM
Ok sir.
 
If you do that you are joining surfaces that have different potentials e.g. the potential at the left side of the bottom bit is fifferent to the potential at the left side of the top bit.
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir.
 
I can show what I mean in a diagram if you want.
 
@JohnRennie Before that shall we consider this fact:
The capacitance of the individual wedges (if they are covered by conducting plates) is not defined. In the lower limit, I'll have to solve $\ln 0$.
$C=a^2\epsilon_0/d \ \ (\ln a-\ln 0)$ is the final expression.
Which is in fact not defined sir.
This is because of the fact we're considering two equipotential conducting surfaces to intersect at the edge tip.
And this explains why we must not be having conducting plates on the slanted surfaces.
@JohnRennie: Ok sir?
 
10:28 AM
@JohnRennie Ok sir. But the presence of conducting plate (as depicted by a black line) in the above diagram is slightly giving me some trouble as described in my previous messages above this image.
 
When you rearrange and join as you described you're joining up points that have different potentials.
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir. So if we aren't having the conducting plates and swapping the dielectrics we're joining non equipotential surfaces and this is what giving a wrong result. Am I right sir?
 
@GuruVishnu Yes
 
@JohnRennie Do you agree capacitance of individual wedges is not defined?
5 mins ago, by Guru Vishnu
$C=a^2\epsilon_0/d \ \ (\ln a-\ln 0)$ is the final expression.
 
I'd have to do that calculation. I can't do it now because I'm answering a question in another room.
In any case it is unrelated to the original question.
 
10:32 AM
@JohnRennie No problem. Believe me sir. That expression is true to the best of my knowledge.
@JohnRennie I think it's related just because we introduced a conducting plate on the slanting surface.
Else as you said it's unrelated.
 
The conducting plate is a bit of a sidetrack. I introduced it because it's necessary if you're going to model the system as four capacitors in series, but you weren't doing that anyway.
 
@JohnRennie Ah! Ok sir. Now got it. However, after another doubt could you ping me again. I've some more to discuss regarding this cap.?
 
Post the question now and I'll look at it as soon as I have time.
 
Ok sir.
@JohnRennie: My answer is "no"
 
In the right two diagrams the potentials will be the same. The potential changes linearly from the top to bottom plate so the potential a distance $d$ above the bottom plate is just $V(d) = V d/D$, where $V$ is the potential of the top plate and $D$ is the separation. Yes?
 
10:48 AM
@JohnRennie Yes sir.
Is this what meant by "linear" dielectrics sir?
I think I saw this word some time ago in one of the answers on SE.
 
@GuruVishnu no. A linear dielectric is one in which the polarisation is proportional to the field strength. This proportionality means the dielectric constant is constant. For a non-linear dielectic the dielectric constant change with the applied field string i.e. the dielectric constant isn't actually a constant.
 
@JohnRennie Thank you sir. I thought the words linear and non linear represented the variation of potential with distance.
 
Anyhow, on the left diagram the potential does not change linearly with distance because the dielectric constants are different. Within each dielectric the potential changes linearly with distance, but the rate of change with distance is different for the two dielectrics.
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir. If the slope of variation of potential with distance is different for different dielectric media, why shouldn't the potentials at the second and third diagrams be different?
Contrary to the following message:
8 mins ago, by John Rennie
In the right two diagrams the potentials will be the same. The potential changes linearly from the top to bottom plate so the potential a distance $d$ above the bottom plate is just $V(d) = V d/D$, where $V$ is the potential of the top plate and $D$ is the separation. Yes?
 
We have the constraint that the potential difference between top and bottom plates is a constant $V$. So as we move upwards from the bottom plate to the top plate the potential must increase from zero to $V$. OK so far?
 
10:57 AM
@JohnRennie Ok sir.
 
If the dielectric constant is the same everywhere between the plates then the potential has to change at a uniform rate, so we get the equation $V(d) = V d/D$.
 
@JohnRennie Fine sir. Got this point. But why is the same not applicable in the first case?
 
If we have two different dielectrics as in the left diagram then the potential still has to start at zero and end at $V$, but it can change at a different rate in the two dielectrics.
I can show this on a diagram if you want.
 
@JohnRennie Why that's so? What is preventing the linear variation?
@JohnRennie If it's not a problem for you, then I'd wish to understand this concept :-)
 
@GuruVishnu let me draw a diagram
 
11:01 AM
@JohnRennie Thank you sir :-)
 
@GuruVishnu Suppose we have a capacitor with a spacing $D$ and area $A$ with a dielectric constant $k_a$, and we want to know the potential a distance $d$ in the dielectric above the bottom plate. OK so far?
 
@JohnRennie Ok. And we do it by using $V'=Q/C_1$?
where $Q$ is the charge on the bottom capacitor.
 
Yes. With parallel plates the potential along a horizontal line is constant, so we can divide our capacitor into two capacitors along the horizontal line and consider applying the voltage $V$ across the two capacitors in series.
 
Fine sir. I think I'm comfortable with the parallel plate case, shall we move to the slanted dielectric case?
 
No, wait. I'm not done.
 
11:14 AM
@JohnRennie Ok sir. Sorry for the interruption.
 
Are we agreed we are going to get $V' = Vd/D$ in this situation?
 
@JohnRennie Yes sir. Agreed.
 
Now let me update my diagram:
 
@JohnRennie I'd like to say, the potential within the two individual capacitors vary linearly but as you said previously the slope of variation is not same. This is because we've changed the capacitance of the individual capacitors and thus $V'$ in the second updated diagram is much different than that in the first original case of yours.
 
Correct!
 
11:19 AM
Is this the reason why the first case potential is different from the two others in the following sir:?
 
Yes.
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir. Let's concentrate on a single dielectric piece. There are infinitely many regions of potentials $V_i$. Now if we swap the other dielectric piece will the $V_i$s change or remain the same?
 
We can imagine rejoining our two capacitors to get the above.
And now $V' \ne V d/D$
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir.
So the potential varies something like as follows:
Am I right sir?
 
Yes, exactly! :-)
 
11:26 AM
@JohnRennie: Thank you for the compliment sir :-)
8 mins ago, by Guru Vishnu
@JohnRennie Ok sir. Let's concentrate on a single dielectric piece. There are infinitely many regions of potentials $V_i$. Now if we swap the other dielectric piece will the $V_i$s change or remain the same?
@JohnRennie: If possible, could you reply to the above message?
 
Busy for a moment ...
 
Oops. Sorry sir.
 
11:43 AM
I'm running out of time. We'll have to puck this up tomorrow.
 
@JohnRennie Sure sir. No problem :-) Good bye sir.
 
 
5 hours later…
@skullpatrol so you know him in real life?
 
no, but he's been helping others a long time
all for free on this site
 
@JohnRennie sir I have posted this answer on that question so that our discussion doesn't get lost in this chat and become helpful to future visitors. Even though it's not the best then also I think it might suffice to divert the future visitors over here.
 

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