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4:57 AM
@JohnRennie good morning
 
@Scáthach morning :-)
 
Are u free for sometime
 
5:07 AM
@JohnRennie Hi
 
@Scáthach which question?
 
first question
answer is not machng
i ignored capacitors branching and found current
it came 2 A
I don't know what to do after this ...
 
Let's start with the 1uF capacitor. This is in parallel with the 3 ohm resistor, so the voltage across the capacitor will be the same as the voltage across the resistor. Yes?
 
yes
 
For DC the capacitors behave like infinite resistors so they don't affect the resistances that they are parallel with.
 
5:13 AM
yeah
 
So we have a 3 ohm and 6 ohm resistor in series with 9V across the two of them. That means 3V is dropped across the 3 ohm resistor and 6V across the 6 ohm resistor. Yes?
 
yes
wait
what about the other wo resistances
two*
short circuit okay
so charge across 1uF is 3uC
now for 3uF
How to calculate for that when it's above branching is short-circuited
 
@Scáthach The same argument applies to the 3 uF capacitor. It is in parallel with the 7 ohm resistor so the voltage will be the same as the voltage across the 7 ohm resistor.
 
hmmm.got it
(4) then
 
Yes
 
5:32 AM
@JohnRennie Hi
Q4
I don't know what to do here
 
@Scáthach hmm, that's an interesting question ...
We generally write the equation for radioactive decay as:
$$ \frac{dN}{dt} = -k N $$
where $k$ is the decay constant. I guess what the question means is that $k = A + B$, where $A$ is the constant for the electron capture and $B$ is the constant for beta minus decay.
 
hmm
okay
 
When we integrate the diffrential equation we get:
$$ N(t) = N_0 e^{-kt} = N_0 e^{-(A+B)t} = N_0 e^{-At} e^{-Bt} $$
 
okay
how to calculate A an B here'
 
Well the half life is $\ln 2 /k$, and we're told the half life is 12.7 hours = 45720 seconds
 
5:44 AM
so half life is same or both ?
 
@Scáthach the question says the overall half life of the copper isotope is 12.7 hours
 
okay
 
And $k = \ln 2 / t_{1/2} = 1.51607E-05$
Aha, yes, this is going to work.
 
so this gives us k
 
Are you OK with the argument so far, or should I go through it more carefully?
 
5:48 AM
which i think is same for the two decay pocesses
 
@Scáthach Well we started off saying $k = A + B$, where $A$ and $B$ are the rates for the two different types of decay.
 
but you said half time is same for both
 
We have found $k = 1.51607E-05$, and the question tells us that electron capture (i.e. $A$ is 61% of the total, so $A = 0.61k$. Yes?
 
oh kay
yes
 
Likewise $B = 0.39k$. So now we know the decay constants for the electron captutre $A$ and beta minus decay $B$. Yes?
 
5:51 AM
yes
 
And the last step is to calculate the half life associated with the process A:
$$ t_{1/2} = \frac{\ln 2}{A} $$
And likewise for B.
 
got it
let me try this then
 
I've done this in a spreadsheet. Shall I post it or do you want to try the calculation yourself?
 
i can calculate and then we can check
 
@JohnRennie Hello sir
 
5:55 AM
@user8718165 morning :-)
 
@JohnRennie Good morning! Are you free now... I have a doubt
 
@user8718165 I'm free while @Scáthach is doing her calculation
 
@JohnRennie I ge roughly option 1
 
@JohnRennie ok sir...I'll wait
 
5:57 AM
@Scáthach That's what I get
 
got it .it matches
 
BOOM! :-)
I don't think that was a great question because it wasn't clear what it was asking.
Basically I guessed what it was asking, did the calculation and it matched so I guessed right.
 
i got confused with beta and electron captures
i thought we had to calculate something with Q value
lol so silly
 
@JohnRennie if we talk about conventional current...anode repels positive charges while the cathode attracts it....right?
 
@user8718165 In a circuit or an electrochemical cell? - just to be confusing circuits and cells use opposite conventions.
 
6:02 AM
@JohnRennie in a discharge tube?
 
@user8718165 Ok that's basically a circuit.
The cathode is the positive terminal so it attracts electrons and repels positive ions.
The anode is the negative terminal so it repels electrons and attracts positive ions.
 
@JohnRennie In the sim can't we apply fleming's left hand rule?
 
> The tube illustrated in the tutorial contains a negative electrode (Cathode) at one end and a positive electrode (Anode) at the other.
Hmm, that's not the meaning of cathode and anode I'm used to.
 
@JohnRennie don't get you sir
 
@user8718165 the cathode is normally positive not negative.
Anyhow, I need to work now for a bit. Back later.
 
6:11 AM
@JohnRennie ok just ping me
 
7:09 AM
Can specific heat of a substance be negative? A question's answer says yes, but I searched and website says no.
 
@PolarBear yes you can get negative specific heats, but only in special circumstances.
@PolarBear see here
@user8718165 I'm back now
 
here also they use the same convention for the cathode or the anode...can we apply fleming's left hand law?
 
hey @JohnRennie I've got a question
whenever you've got some time
 
@user8718165 yes, but note the direction of the current
 
@JohnRennie ok sir and fleming's LH law uses conventional current?
 
7:21 AM
@user8718165 yes
Or you can just use the expression for the Lorentz force directly.
 
does't fleming's LH law agree with this?
 
I think that diagram is wrong. It has the electrons bending in the wrong direction. They should bend up not down.
 
@JohnRennie Hi.ping me when you are free
 
@Scáthach ask now
 
@JohnRennie 28
i found the distances for individual refractive indexes
but it's not matching
 
7:32 AM
@Scáthach that should be all you need to do. What did you get for the two focal lengths?
 
4R/5 for first
40R/74 for second
these are the distances though
i directly used 1/v-1/u intead of 1/f
 
The lensmaker's equation for a thin lens is:
$$ \frac{1}{f} = (n-1) \left( \frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2} \right) $$
 
yes
 
We have $R_1 = -R_2$ and for $n = 1.5$ this gives $f = R$. Yes?
 
yes
 
7:37 AM
@JohnRennie oh got it...so the sim was also wrong...Basically I was confused because of my book.
 
@Scáthach that gives me $v = 4R/3$
 
yes
hey ..not 4R/5
 
If we use the cartesian sign convention $u = -4R$ and $f = +R$. Then the lens equation is $1/v=1/u+1/f$. OK so far?
 
ok
 
$1/v = 1/R - 1/4R = 3/4R$
So $v = 4R/3$
 
7:43 AM
so it's 4R/3
 
Yes. And for the second lens $n = 1.8$ I get $f = 5R/8$. Yes?
 
yes
 
So for the second lens we get $1/ = 8/5R - 1/4R = 27/20R$
 
@JohnRennie I get (d) option
 
@JohnRennie Thanks for linking that!
 
7:47 AM
@Scáthach yes, I agree.
 
whew.thanks
 
@Scáthach where did you go wrong? Sign convention?
@kylecampbell do you want to ask now?
 
@JohnRennie Sure, I'm looking at some Feynman problems and I've encountered this:
Two gliders are free to move on a horizontal air track. One is stationary and the other collides with it perfectly elastically. They rebound with equal and opposite velocities.
What is the ratio of their masses?
Apparently it's a specific number from the answer key... I don't see how.
It says $\frac{m_2}{m_1} = 3$?
 
Use conservation of momentum and conservation of energy.
 
Alright, well in a perfectly elastic collision kinetic energy is conserved so $\frac{1}{2}m_2v_2^2 = \frac{1}{2}m_1'v_1'^2 + \frac{1}{2}m_2'v_2'^2$ and similarly for momentum, $m_2v_2 = m_1'v_1' - m_2'v_2'.$
don't know why I wrote primes on the masses, but we'll go with it
 
7:58 AM
We can simplify this.
 
We have $v_1' = -v_2'.$
Do you mean algebraically?
Oh I see
Exactly like the derivation for elastic collisions right?
 
Your symbols are getting a bit confusing.
Call the initially moving mass $m_1$ and its velocity $v_1$. After the collision $m_1$ has the velocity $-v_2$ and $m_2$ has the velocity $v_2$. Then from momentum conservation we get:
$$ m_1 v_1 = (m_2 - m_1)v_2 $$
We'll define $R =m_2/m_1$ so:
$$ v_1 = (R - 1)v_2 $$
Likewise energy conservation give us:
$$ m_1 v_1^2 = (m_2 + m_1)v_2^2 $$
or:
$$ v_1^2 = (R+1)v_2^2 $$
If we square the first equation we get:
$$ v_1^2 = (R - 1)^2v_2^2 $$
So:
$$ (R-1)^2 = R+1 $$
 
Right, I'm following you so far...
oh
I see.
very nice!!
I would NOT have immediately seen that. That's very nice.
You're awesome John. Thanks very much. I should have let myself struggle more, but I really appreciate the help.
 
8:19 AM
@kylecampbell :-)
 
Have you worked through the Feynman problems at all yourself? I ordered the exercises book awhile ago, but I'm working from "tips on physics."
Some of them are the same questions though.
 
@JohnRennie Hi .ping me when u are free
 
@Scáthach hi, I'm free now.
 
@kylecampbell no, I answer questions here or on the main site rather than doing exercises from a book :-)
5
 
8:27 AM
haha! fair enough. works just as well + it's social.
 
I never seen to understand these dip and declination questions
 
@Scáthach Ugh, 3D geometry :-)
 
something to do with cube but really I don't get that
 
Well let's have a look. First let's take a side view in the plane that is lined up with the meridian i.e. the plane is lined up with the North and South poles:
 
oka
 
8:36 AM
So our compass need points down with some angle of dip that we need to find. The angle is given by: $\tan\theta = y/x$. Yes?
 
yes
what is y here
 
@Scáthach they are just distances. Don't worry about them for now ...
 
okay
 
My diagram shows the dip in the plane of the meridian, but the question says the compass is being held in a plane at 30° to this. Let me draw a bird's eye view of this i.e. looking from above down onto the surface of the Earth:
@Scáthach Does this make sense. I can attempt to draw it in 3D if that would help.
 
what s the blue line
 
8:47 AM
Looking from above the line labelled $x$ lies in the plane of the meridian. The length $x$ is just some random length we've measured in that plane.
 
okay
 
1 + 1 = 2
3
 
The compass is being held in a vertical plane at 30° to the meridian, and the blue line shows this plane (remember we are viewing this from above so we see the planes edge on)
 
so is the blue line magnetic meridian
no the line x is meridian
so the blue line is how the compass is kept
@JohnRennie Okay
 
@JohnRennie Are you there?
 
8:52 AM
@Scáthach that's what it looks like in 3D
@Abcd just dealing with @Scáthach's problem. Won't be long.
 
How is r=x/cos30 in your 3D diagram
 
Oops, I've labelled the wrong thing. Hang on...
@Scáthach there, that's better
 
@Abcd Hi.You can ask .I will be busy for sometime
@JohnRennie I am still smewhat confused .I will ping u afterwards
 
@Scáthach and the question tells us the angle of dip is 45° as I've labelled.
@Scáthach OK. I'll be around for a while.
@Abcd what did you want to ask?
 
@JohnRennie uploading
@JohnRennie According to constraint, shouldn't accln of M and m be same becoz string is inextensible?
 
9:06 AM
Why is (D) not correct?
I post physics here when PSS is busy and I don't want to interrupt. So, sorry for that.
I get F = q(x² - y²) k
Why is (C) not correct then?
 
@Abcd if the pulley B was fixed then the accelerations of M and m would have to be equal and opposite so that the string length doesn't change. Yes?
 
@JohnRennie yes
 
@Abcd The pulley B isn't fixed, but in the rest frame of B, i.e. the frame in which B is fixed at the origin, we still require that the accelerations of M and m be equal and opposite. So let's call these accelerations $+a$ for $m$ and $-a$ for $M$. OK so far?
 
@JohnRennie yeah
 
But the pulley B is accelerating i.e. the rest frame of B is an accelerating frame. If the pulley B is accelerating at $+A$ then to get the accelerations of $m$ and $M$ we need to add $+A$ to those accelerations.
So in the lab frame the acceleration of $m$ is $+a + A$ and the acceleration of $B$ is $-a + A$.
So in the lab frame the accelerations of m and M are not equal and opposite.
 
9:18 AM
@JohnRennie Is therre any way to find A without a?
 
No because the force on the pulley B depends on the tension in the string joining m and M, and that depends on how fast m and M are accelerating.
But this is still just a matter of writing down all the forces, tensions etc and grinding through the equations. This type of system is called an Atwood machine if you want to Google for how to approach these problems.
 
Hey, @JohnRennie
 
@AjayMishra hi
 
imgur.com/a/epvdWWw isn't it pretty obvious that, $a_1$ = -$a_2$ , where $a_1$ is acceleration of the ball, and $a_2$ is the acceleration of rod?
 
9:33 AM
@JohnRennie When you get done.please ping me
 
@AjayMishra no, the acceleration of the rod is twice the acceleration of the ball.
@Scáthach do you want to ask now
 
I got it, I thought I was right, thats why I was not able to reason through it.
 
@AjayMishra it can be really confusing with multiple pulleys. You just have to work carefully through all the motions.
 
@JohnRennie Hi
 
@Scáthach hi
 
9:44 AM
i am lost
 
If the question says Force acts along Z axis then does it mean Force acts along positive Z axis necessarily ?
 
i tried with torque=NIAB
I would assume so
 
@Scáthach that's what I would do. The current loop creates a magnetic dipole $\mu = IA$ and the torque on the dipole is $B\mu = BIA$.
 
okay yes
 
They've made the calculation of the current rather involved because of the way they've given you the data.
 
9:54 AM
@JohnRennie Okay .
But how to us the data
 
@Scáthach If you know the linear charge density, in coulombs per metre, of the ring then you can multiply this by the linear velocity, in metres per second, of the ring and that gives you current, in coulombs per second.
 
how
i didn't follow what u said
 
The current is the charge that passes some point in one second. Yes?
 
yes
 
Now, the linear velocity is the length that passes some point in one second. Yes?
 
9:59 AM
yes
 
@JohnRennie A balloon of mass M with a light rope having mokey on the rope is in equilibrium. if the mokey starts moving up with accln a wrt the rope, then the accln of the centre of mass of the system is?
 
@Scáthach If you know the charge per unit length, $\rho$, then you can multiply it by the length $\ell$ to get the total charge corresponding to the length $\ell$ i.e. $Q = \rho\ell$.
 
yes
 
@Scáthach So if that length $\ell$ is the length that passes some point per second what you get is the charge that passes that point in one second.
 
okay.got till here
 
10:03 AM
So $I = \rho v$
The length that passes a point in one second is just the velocity $v$
And the charge that passes a point in oe second is just the current $I$
 
okay
 
But the question is deliberately obscure. For example it doesn't give you the radius of the ring. But if you write the radius as $r$ and do the calcualtion you should find the $r$s cancel out in the end to give you the answer as a number.
@Scáthach We can go through the calculation if you want ...
 
okay.let me try
 
@Abcd it's going to be zero isn't it? As the monkey climbs up the balloon will move down to keep the position of the COM constant.
 
@JohnRennie Why keep the position of COM constant?
 
10:12 AM
The net external force on the balloon/monkey system is zero because the upthrust due to the buoyant force is equal to the weight of the balloon and monkey. And without an external force the position of the COM can't change.
 
@JohnRennie Got it, forgotten some basics revising them only.
 
@JohnRennie can we go through calculation
 
@Scáthach OK. Let's start with the linear velocity because that's easy. We'll call the radius of the ring $r$, then the velocity is $v = r\omega$.
 
yes
 
The linear charge density is harder.
The circumference of the ring is $2\pi r$ so the linear density is $m/(2\pi r)$
 
10:22 AM
yes but shouldn't it Q/2\pi r)$
 
@Scáthach we are told the charge per unit mass is $10^{-5}$ - call this $q$
 
okay
 
Then the total charge of our ring is $Q = qm$
 
yes
 
The linear charge density is $Q/(2\pi r)$ so it's $\rho = qm/(2\pi r)$
 
10:24 AM
okay
 
Now we aren't told the angular velocity, just the angular momentum $L$, but we can use $\omega = L/I$. Yes?
 
yes
 
The moment of inertia is $I = mr^2$, so we get $\omega = L/(mr^2)$
And $v = r\omega = L/(mr)$
 
yes
 
And the current is $I = \rho v = qm/(2\pi r) L/(mr) = qL/(2 \pi r^2) $
@Scáthach OK so far? We're nearly done! :-)
 
10:33 AM
ok
 
The torque is BIA, and the area is $A = \pi r^2$, so $IA = qL/2$
The things we didn't know, $m$ and $r$, have cancelled out and disappeared! :-)
 
got it
 
And, amazingly after all that, we get an answer that matches one of the options! :-)
You just have to figure out the direction of the torque.
 
10:49 AM
@JohnRennie I get (a)
 
It's certainly (1) or (2). I'd have to think about the direction of the torque.
 
@JohnRennie Are you free for like 30 minutes..I still have some doubts
 
The left side experiences a force up out of the page and the right side experiences a force down into the page, so yes that makes the direction of the torque upwards in the plane of the page.
@Scáthach I have to go now I'm afraid. I'll be back later today or failing that tomorrow morning.
 
@JohnRennie Okay .See you soon
 
11:35 AM
@AdvilSell
 
 
2 hours later…
1:36 PM
Hello @JohnRennie
I have a doubt...are you free
 
@user8718165 I'm eating lunch
 
@JohnRennie Ok sir...fine
 
2:00 PM
@user8718165 hi, I'm free for about an hour now.
 
@JohnRennie can an ideal capacitor charge and discharge instantaneously?
I think yes
 
@user8718165 yes
 
@JohnRennie can't real caps ever do that?
 
@user8718165 It would require an infinite current, since current = charge per unit time.
Infinite quantities don't exist outside a physicist's imagination.
 
suppose a very small change in voltage $dv$. How would that require infinite current
 
2:09 PM
If the capacitor charges or discharges instantaneously that means some charge $Q$ flows on or off the capacitor in zero time. So the current is $I = Q/0 = \infty$.
 
@JohnRennie thanks a lot!got it sir:-)
 
@user8718165 Cool :-)
 
@JohnRennie
 
@pi-π hi
 
@JohnRennie, how does a zener diode work as voltage regulator?
 
2:23 PM
@pi-π how much do you know about diodes?
 
@JohnRennie, Forward and reverse characteristics. Also zener and avalanche effect
 
@pi-π OK, so you know that if you reverse bias a (non-zener) diode no current flows. Then if you keep increasing the reverse bias voltage at some point you get an avalanche breakdown and suddenly a huge current flows and the diode usually burns out. Yes?
 
 
@JohnRennie, Zener or avalanche breakdown depends on doping density? Yes
 
@pi-π zener diodes actually use two different mechanisms. In low voltage zener diodes the electrons quantum tunnel across the depletion zone at the zener voltage. Strictly speaking the term zener only applies to this mechanism.
However this doesn't work well for higher voltages.
So higher voltage zener dioides are designed to undergo an avalanche breakdown at the diode voltage, but they are designed so the breakdown is controllable, unlike in a conventional diode.
I usually don't distinguish between the two breakdown modes because the end result is the same.
 
2:32 PM
@JohnRennie, Oh.
 
@JohnRennie Are you there?
 
@Abcd hi
 
@JohnRennie Pic above^^
 
@Abcd I'm not sure what the significance of the plank is. As far as I can see it's just a smooth hemisphere on a smooth surface where smooth presumably means frictionless. In that case the centre of mass of the hemisphere cannot move sideways - only up and down.
 
@JohnRennie Okay.
 
2:41 PM
Suppose you stuck a pin through the centre of mass of the hemisphere (the point C in the diagram) so the hemisphere rotated about the point C. In that case the centre of the sphere would rotate in a circle about the point C.
But C moves up and down as the hemisphere slides on the smooth surface, so the path traced out by the centre of the sphere cannot be a circle.
My guess is that it would be an ellipse.
 
@JohnRennie ans is straight line
 
@Abcd I'll have to come back to this. I have to go in a few minutes.
 
@JohnRennie ok
 
@Abcd wait a minute. Should that say trajectory of C.M. of the hemisphere is
i.e. the trajectory of the point C?
 
@JohnRennie yes
 
2:51 PM
That can't move sideways because with no friction there is no external horizontal force. It can only move vertically.
I thought it meant the centre of the sphere from which the hemisphere was cut i.e. the point I've marked with a red arrow here:
 
Alright got it.
 
Got to go now. Back tomorrow.
 
Oh noes!
 
3:09 PM
Hello
Can someone help me with 3rd one?
 
3:26 PM
6 messages moved from JEE Chemistry Club
 
6 hours ago, by PolarBear
user image
Why is (D) not correct?
6 hours ago, by PolarBear
user image
6 hours ago, by PolarBear
I get F = q(x² - y²) k
Why is (C) not correct then?
 
@PolarBear D should be correct imo
 
3:53 PM
Hmm
 

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