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04:00 - 09:0009:00 - 12:00

4:08 AM
@Abcd Morning :-)
 
@JohnRennie Please see
 
Anonymous
Coming up: Solar eclipse today, longest lunar eclipse in century and date with Mars later this month
 
Anonymous
But the solar eclipse will not be visible in India, lunar one will be.
 
@Abcd that's an Ampere's circuital law problem isn't it?
There's going to be a discontinuity at the cylinder because as you move inwards the current enclosed by your loop falls as you pass the cylinder.
So it's either B or C. I'd have to actually calculate the field to tell which of B or C it is.
 
4:19 AM
@JohnRennie Not getting how to use it
 
Consider a circle of radius $r$ centred on the axis of the cylinder. The field is tangent to this citcle, so the integral of the field around the cylinder is just $2\pi r B$. OK so far?
 
@JohnRennie How big will that circle be
 
The circle has a radius $r$, so the distance from the axis of the cylinder to the circle is $r$.
 
@JohnRennie No I mean is it larger than cylindrical circle?
 
To answer the problem we need to consider $r$ both greater and less than the radius of the cylinder.
 
4:24 AM
@JohnRennie Okay
 
Call the current in the wire and cylinder $I$ so the total current is $2I$. Outside the cylinder, i.e. $r > R$ we get $2\pi r B = 2\mu_0 I$
So $$B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{\pi r} $$
 
@JohnRennie Yes
@JohnRennie Dont we have to care about the direction and stuff?
like we did in the case of rectangular sheets
direction of line integral
 
Once we get inside the cylinder, i.e. $r < R$, the current enclosed is just $I$ so $$ B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r} $$
The nice thing about this approach is that the field B is always tangent to our circle.
Because the field lines around a straight conductor are circles.
That makes the integral trivially easy.
 
@JohnRennie how?
 
The field lines around an axially symmetric conductor are circles ...
 
4:30 AM
@JohnRennie why?
@JohnRennie not sure why it should be a circle
 
@Abcd the system is axially symmetric, so the field has to be axially symmetric too.
I guess you could use Biot-Savart to show that the field lines are circular, but it should be obvious.
 
@JohnRennie Hmm, but why would they be circular because of the cylinder too?
@JohnRennie $$\int \vec{B}.\vec{dl}$$
Won't B be perpendicular to dl that way?
SO it should be 0?
 
@Abcd A cylinder is axially symmetric
@Abcd let me draw a diagram
 
@JohnRennie Kay
 
4:45 AM
@JohnRennie Oh Okay
 
The field lines are circular i.e. the direction of the field on the circle is always tangent to the circle.
 
@JohnRennie Now what about the graph?
 
Well what is the field for $r$ infinitesimally greater than $R$?
@Abcd infinitesimally greater than $R$ not infinitesimally greater than 0.
21 mins ago, by John Rennie
So $$B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{\pi r} $$
 
For r<R, $B = \dfrac k r$, for r>R, $B = \dfrac k{2r}$
@JohnRennie $\to \dfrac{k}{R}$
$k = \dfrac{\mu_o I}{\pi}$
 
Yes, and what is the field for $r$ infinitesimally less than $R$?
 
4:50 AM
@JohnRennie $\to \dfrac{k}{2R}$
so its lesser
 
Right, so as we move from just outside of the cylinder to just inside the cylinder the field halves.
 
@JohnRennie But how to decide between options B and C?
 
C shows the field falling to about a third of the value outside, so that's wrong.
Actually, wait a moment ...
B looks as if the field is going to infinity i.e. the line goes straight up. I wonder if that's bad drawing.
It's a pretty rubbish figure really, but C is definitely wrong because the field only halves at the cylinder.
 
@JohnRennie won't field be $\to \infty$ at $r= R$
 
@Abcd No
 
4:54 AM
@JohnRennie so what would it be at $r= R$?
Function is discontinuous at r=R , but it can have some value there
 
@Abcd yes. Discontinuous but finite.
 
@JohnRennie One more question, do you have time?
 
The discontinuity is of course only there for the ideal case of an infinitely thin cylinder wall
Yes, I don't have to start work for an hour yet.
I'm just staring out of the window and drinking coffee :-)
 
nice.
I just drink coffee to stay awake at night during exam times.
Because it does help stay awake
 
I drink it to wake me up in the morning :-)
 
4:57 AM
But I dont like it
I just drink it forcefully
it gives me headache when I wake up
 
I used not to like coffee when I was younger, but I love it now.
I suspect it's effect is mostly psychological
 
May 16 at 5:35, by Abcd
@JohnRennie And what about this one? A solid conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is enclosed by a thin metallic shell of rafius 20 cm. A charge q= 20 $\mu C$ is given to the inner sphere.*Find the heat generated in the process*. The inner sphere is connected to the outer sphere by a conducting wire
@JohnRennie this one^
@JohnRennie When they are not connected what will be the situation like?
Shouldn't field inside the solid sphere be 0?
 
It's a spherical capacitor
The field inside the solid sphere is indeed zero. You need only consider the surface of the sphere.
 
@JohnRennie But when they aren't connected how will the solid sphere make field inside itself zero?
 
The zero field inside the sphere follows from the spherical symmetry and Gauss' law.
 
5:03 AM
@JohnRennie But charge is enclosed.
So how can Field be 0
(In inital situation, when they are not connected by wire)
 
The field inside a conductor of any shape is always zero.
 
@JohnRennie I know but how
For initial condition
It cant just loose its charge
 
Initial condition is just a charged conducting sphere. The charge will all be on the surface of the sphere because the electrons repel each other and going to the surface is the way of maximising the distance between the electrons.
So there is no charge inside the sphere. If you draw a Gaussian surface inside the sphere the enclosed charge is always zero.
@Abcd that's what I just said
5 mins ago, by John Rennie
The field inside the solid sphere is indeed zero. You need only consider the surface of the sphere.
 
@JohnRennie But what if we take the Gaussian surface passing through the surface of the sphere then?
 
Why would you draw a Gaussian surface like that? It's not symmetrical so it's not use for doing calculations? The field outside the sphere is non-zero, because there will be enclosed charge inside your Gaussian surface.
 
5:09 AM
@JohnRennie Okay, what;s the next step?
 
I wonder if we're talking at cross purposes. Outside the charged sphere the field is just the same as a point charge at the centre of the sphere. That's pretty standard stuff.
 
@JohnRennie I know
1 min ago, by Abcd
@JohnRennie Okay, what;s the next step?
 
If the sphere and shell aren't connected I don't think the shell has any effect on the field. It will just be the same as if the shell weren't there.
 
I know right
There will be induced charge on inner surface of shell though
 
No net induced charge
If you draw your Gaussian sphere just inside or just outside the shell then the field has to be just due to the charged sphere because the shell doesn't have any net charge.
 
5:23 AM
@JohnRennie just inside there will be no field though
@JohnRennie Whats the next step in the problem?
 
@Abcd when you connect the shell to the sphere charge is going to flow from the sphere onto the shell. In fact, all the charge is going to flow off the sphere onto the shell.
 
@JohnRennie Why all :O
 
Because the shell is a spherical conductor and the field inside a spherical conductor is ... ?
 
@JohnRennie but field could be 0 even if there was charge on it?
Like the case before connecting the two
 
@Abcd I'm not sure I understand what you're saying there.
 
5:28 AM
@JohnRennie Look when we hadn't connected the two things, still the field inside the shell was zero right?
 
:(
 
Just inside the shell the enclosed charge is non-zero because it's the charge on the sphere
And just outside the shell the enclosed charge is also non-zero because it's the charge on the sphere
In fact the field just inside the shell and just outside the shell is approximately the same because the enclosed charge is the same and the area of our Gaussian surface is approximately the same.
 
@JohnRennie but field should be zero inside the shell because its a conductor
 
No
Ah, hang on, When I say inside the shell I mean $r < 20$cm
I'm assuming the shell is infinitely thin
I guess when you mean inside the shell you mean in between the inner and outer surfaces of the shell
 
5:31 AM
@JohnRennie ya, so field should be 0 there right otherwise it would violate the principle that field inside a conductor should be 0
@JohnRennie ya
 
Yes, but the question says it is a thin shell which is exam speak for treat the shell as infinitely thin
i.e. don't worry what happens inside the shell
 
@JohnRennie I am talking about field at P
Shouldn't field there be 0?
Or the "inside" in field "inside" a conductor stands only for the material of the conductor ?
 
Draw a Gaussian sphere passing through P
 
@JohnRennie Ya, there should be field there
19 secs ago, by Abcd
Or the "inside" in field "inside" a conductor stands only for the material of the conductor ?
Please clear this "doubt"^
I think I have badly misinterpreted "inside"
 
@Abcd yes, when we sya the field is zero inside a conductor that means actually in the material of the conductor.
 
5:37 AM
@JohnRennie Okay, so if we draw gaussian surface passing just through the material of the outer sphere then?
Sorry for troubling @JohnRennie
 
@Abcd I'm not sure to be honest. If we consider the shell as infinitely thin then the problem doesn't arise, because an infinitely thin shell has no inside.
I guess with a shell of finite thickness we have in effect two spherical shells, i.e. the inside surface and the outside surface, connected by a wire.
 
14 mins ago, by John Rennie
Because the shell is a spherical conductor and the field inside a spherical conductor is ... ?
@JohnRennie but you used "inside" in above statement^
 
@Abcd When you connect the sphere and the shell with a wire you have a single connected object. The charge on that object wants to get as far away from all the other charge in that object, so it's all going to flow to the outer surface of the spherical shell.
So all the charge is going to flow off the sphere onto the shell.
 
@JohnRennie I get that. So your 14 mins ago statement was wrong?
 
@Abcd by inside I meant r < 20cm
My point was that all the charge is now on the shell, so for r < 20cm you are inside a charged shell.
 
5:44 AM
@JohnRennie Oh I get it. So basically the entire thing is a new conductor and field inside the material of the conductor (which includes the vaccuum space between the two spheres) should be 0.
 
Yes
 
@JohnRennie Nice, so how to find the heat generated?
 
Just to clarify, is the question asking for the heat generated when we connect the two shells?
 
@JohnRennie yes
 
So in effect it's the energy change when we let a 10cm radius charged shell expand to be a 20cm charged shell
 
5:49 AM
@JohnRennie yes, how to find that?
 
Good question ...
I guess you could calculate the self energy of a charged sphere and take the difference between r=10cm and r=20cm.
Or just take the force on the charge on the shell and integrate it from r = 10cm to 20cm to get the work.
I don't think I've ever done that calculation, but it should be straightforward.
Wait a minute. Isn't it just the potential at the surface of the sphere times the charge on the sphere?
 
@JohnRennie why?
 
If we have a shell of radius $r$ and charge $Q$ then the potential at the sphere is just $-kQ/r$.
And the potential is the work per unit charge needed to move a charge from infinity to the distance $r$.
 
@JohnRennie + not - ?
 
So multiply by the charge $Q$ and we get the work needed to move the charge $Q$ from infinity to the shell.
 
5:57 AM
@JohnRennie I dont understand why you are brining a charge when the solid sphere is already charged, initially
 
@Abcd to charge the sphere you had to bring that charge in from infinity to the surface of the sphere, and you had to do work to move the charge.
If the potential at the surface of the sphere is $V$, and the charge of the sphere is $Q$, then the work needed to bring that charge $Q$ in from infinity to the surafce of the sphere is $QV$.
 
Q^2 / (8pi epsilon R)
 
Isn't the constant $1/4\pi\epsilon_0$ not $1/8\pi\epsilon_0$
 
@JohnRennie we will have to integrate
potential at any instant is q/4piepsilon R
TO bring dq
W = Vdq
 
So the energy change would be: $$ \Delta E = \frac{kQ^2}{r_1} - \frac{kQ^2}{r_2} $$
 
6:05 AM
$\int_0^Q Vdq $
 
where $r_1$ = 10cm, $r_2$ = 20cm and $Q$ = 20 $\mu$C
 
I have got the right answer though...
1 min ago, by Abcd
@JohnRennie we will have to integrate
Potential at any instant is $V = \dfrac{kq}{r}$, if charge q is there
$W = \int_0^Q Vdq$
 
Ah, OK.
Yes, you're right.
 
@JohnRennie I would also like to know why heat was generated
and where was it generated
 
We know that the energy of the final state is less than the energy of the initial state, so that energy must have turned into heat. Exactly how it turned into heat doesn't matter. Presumably due to the resistance of the wire connecting the two spheres.
 
6:09 AM
@JohnRennie No I really don't think it was due to resistance.
otherwise for different wires we would get different heats
 
@Abcd no. A higher resistance would give a lower power for a longer time. A lower resistance wire would give a higher power for a shorter time. Both would give the same total energy dissipated.
I suppose you could calculate the current in the wire ...
(if you wanted to :-)
 
@JohnRennie how?
 
You'd have to do the calculation of the current as a function of time then show the integral of the power dt was independent of resistance. But I have no plans to do that calculation.
 
 
1 hour later…
7:17 AM
@IceInk The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are given charges +4Q and -2Q. The capacitor is then connected across an uncharged capacitor of same capacitance as the first one. (=C). Find the final potential difference between the plates of the first capacitor.
Shouldn't it be 3Q/C ?
Anwer given is 3Q/2C
@JohnRennie If you have any time please see.
 
@Abcd hmm, my first thought is that it should be 3Q/C
 
@JohnRennie Isn't that violating KVL, the other capacitor would have volatage $Q/C$ but the sum of the two voltages isn't 0.
@JohnRennie Ok, must be an answer key error.
 
@Abcd the charge would spread over both capacitors, so both capacitors would have charges of +2Q and -Q.
 
@JohnRennie i don't get you
 
:45627340 you start with +4Q and -2Q on the first capacitor then connect an identical capacitor in parallel.
 
7:28 AM
@IceInk isn't the distribution something like (Q,3Q), (-3Q,Q) , (-Q,Q), (-Q, Q)
 
I have to work for about 15 minutes now
 
Anonymous
@JohnRennie Hmm yes, but why would +2 Q charge flow and not just +Q?
 
Okay.
@Ice do you agree or not?
A single bracket denotes two surfaces of a capacitor.
 
@IceInkberry because that would make the voltages on the two capacitors unequal
 
Anonymous
@Abcd I didn't get why there are four distributions..
 
7:31 AM
@IceInkberry there are 4 plates
[(Q,3Q), (-3Q,Q)] S [(-Q,Q), (-Q, Q)]
where S denotes series
2 mins ago, by Abcd
@Ice do you agree or not?
 
Anonymous
Oh, those are plates. Got it
 
Anonymous
But
 
Anonymous
Count the charges for yourself.
 
@IceInkberry Net charge is still 2Q
 
Anonymous
And on the inner one it is becoming zero?
 
Anonymous
7:34 AM
No
 
@IceInkberry ?
 
Anonymous
I mean why are you adding 4 + (-2)
 
@IceInkberry ????????
 
Anonymous
They are on different plates, right?
 
@IceInkberry Why shant I
@IceInkberry Charge flowed
 
Anonymous
7:35 AM
@Abcd From where?
 
Anonymous
It is joined to another capacitor
 
@IceInkberry Isn't that the trick, "place half half charge on outermost plates"
@IceInkberry Q charge got induced there
@IceInkberry okay, it didn't flow
@IceInkberry why shouldn't I add them
@IceInkberry Whaz the contradiction
 
Anonymous
But but, wait. I am posting an image, did you mean this?
 
Anonymous
 
Anonymous
Is this the charge distribution according to you?
 
7:39 AM
@IceInkberry No
 
Anonymous
Got ir
 
My 3Q one is on left side
 
Anonymous
I didn't understand your brackets first
 
Anonymous
And got them wrong
 
Anonymous
Now, I got it
 
Anonymous
7:40 AM
Yess
 
Anonymous
Agree
 
@IceInkberry SO my charge distribution is correct na?
@IceInkberry But why is it violating KVL
@Ice Please reply
 
Anonymous
___Nothing_____
 
Anonymous
Grrr, I act dumb at times.
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Yes, I think it is correct by our 'trick'
 
7:44 AM
But when you connect the second capacitor you have two identical capacitors in parallel. Why would they have different charges on them?
 
Anonymous
That's what I am wondering
 
Anonymous
But if we do it by what charge will be induced method
 
Anonymous
We get that distribution
 
4 mins ago, by Abcd
@IceInkberry But why is it violating KVL
@Ice please reply to this^^^^^^^
I am waiting
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Please explain me how it is violating KVL. I don't get it.
 
7:47 AM
@IceInkberry two voltages arent equal are they
 
Anonymous
You might probably be banging your head on your desk as to why you asked me but ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Ah, that's what.
 
Anonymous
I don't get 'violating law' at times because I just don't know the laws
 
Someone HELPPPP
 
Anonymous
I think I got it
 
Anonymous
7:51 AM
Will think for few minutes if it is correct
 
@JohnRennie please tell why this violation is happening?
 
Anonymous
The charge distribution is incorrect
 
Anonymous
Your charge distribution is incorrect @Abcd
 
@IceInkberry :O
 
Anonymous
And JR's reasoning that both the Capacitors will have equal charges is correct but he didn't mention about the distribution
 
Anonymous
7:54 AM
Posting the distribution
 
@IceInkberry What about our Half-half trick?
 
Anonymous
 
Anonymous
@Abcd I think it works when the plates aren't joined together!
 
Anonymous
What I did is distribute half half charge on both Capacitors and did our trick.
 
@IceInkberry but you just said that our trick isnt valid
 
Anonymous
7:58 AM
@Abcd But if you consider a single capacitor, it is valid because in individual Capacitors the plates aren't connected in any way. Whereas doing it together to both capacitors, the plates of one capacitor are connected to other
 
Anonymous
And
 
Anonymous
And see the distribution
 
Anonymous
At the ends, it is Q at the ends of your distribution
 
Anonymous
That means there is 2Q inside the plate. Not possible.
 
Leave all this trick system its confusing
Better to give q1 and q2
then use KVL
and charge conservation
 
Anonymous
8:00 AM
Arey read my messages again, it is easy.
 
@IceInkberry but they are connected to other plates
 
Anonymous
I distributed -2Q and Q on each capacitors and separated them and then wrote the charge distribution.
 
Anonymous
Separating after halving the charges won't make any difference because the capacitance is same and after halving the charge won't flow from one capacitor to another.
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Connecting means the charge will be distributed, precisely it will be halved. I did that and proceeded.
 
Anonymous
@Abcd Got it?
 
8:05 AM
not really
 
Anonymous
Okay, listen.
 
Anonymous
You have two equal capacitors right?
 
Anonymous
@Abcd
 
Anonymous
Quickk, I have to run.
 
@IceInkberry yes
 
Anonymous
8:08 AM
@Abcd So, if you have 2Q on one capacitor and you connect it to another same capacitor, both will have Q charge, right?
 
@IceInkberry Kk
 
Anonymous
Similarly, if one capacitor has -4Q and +2Q charge, both the capacitors will have -2Q and +Q charge right?
 
Anonymous
@Abcd
 
@IceInkberry Huh?
 
Anonymous
@Abcd The charges will be divided equally
 
Anonymous
8:14 AM
I have to go
 
Anonymous
After you divide the charge equally between the capacitors, will there be any flow of charge in the wires?
 
Anonymous
No, there won't be!
 
Anonymous
Now, read my messages again.
 
Anonymous
Bye bye!
 
8:28 AM
@Abcd I'm still here but I got a bit baffled by the discussion. II seems to have taken half an hour to conclude I was right all along.
 
Anonymous
@JohnRennie Yes, you were right. My answer is based on that only. But, he isn't understanding how I did the charge distribution after halving the charges. Or maybe he isn't just getting the halving charge thing.
 
Anonymous
39 mins ago, by Ice Inkberry
user image
 
Anonymous
38 mins ago, by Ice Inkberry
What I did is distribute half half charge on both Capacitors and did our trick.
 
Anonymous
And deciding why our previous method was wrong:
 
Anonymous
39 mins ago, by Ice Inkberry
@Abcd I think it works when the plates aren't joined together!
 
Anonymous
8:36 AM
36 mins ago, by Ice Inkberry
At the ends, it is Q at the ends of your distribution
 
Anonymous
36 mins ago, by Ice Inkberry
That means there is 2Q inside the plate. Not possible.
 
Anonymous
@JohnRennie But, how did you get 3Q/C then?
 
8:52 AM
@JohnRennie are you free for some time........?
 
@harambe Hi, I'm free now
 
Thank you
 
@JohnRennie could you please explain what you did?
I didn't get Ices explanation :(
 
If you have a capacitor with a charge $Q_1$ on one plate, and a charge $Q_2$ on the other plate, then the voltage is given by:
$$ V = \frac{Q_1 - Q_2}{2C} $$
For example, with equal charges $Q_1 = +Q$ and $Q_2=-Q$ and that gives us:
 
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