« first day (522 days earlier)      last day (2295 days later) » 

7:07 AM
> I don't think that's a question that can be answered. Robert Munafo makes the point that if we went beyond formalism and computability theory, we'd by definition have nothing to define.
> There probably is no hard limit that we are going to bump into in googology, but ... that will still all be within a formalism that we can't escape, and that will place a certain fundamental
> limit on what kinds of finite numbers we can express. The catch is, we'll probably never be able to describe the size of that box without barry paradoxes or worse. So some finite numbers
> will probably always be inaccessible to us. We know they must exist, but that's about all we can say without being self-contradictory. If it's true that we can't escape computability theory then it proves the point I was trying to make with my site: that saying we can "continue indefinitely" is not exactly true. Not at least in the sense that there is no fundamental limit Sbiis Saibian (talk) 23:41, February 6, 2013 (UTC)
Fruit for thought for predicativists in this chat
-> There exists finite uncomputable integers
btw, they are referring to Berry Paradox
 
7:43 AM
3
Q: Can mathematics actually define 'one'?

Mozibur UllahIs there is difference between being singular and first? It appears to me that there is - though both notions can be described by the figure of '1'. Here what I mean by singular - it has no successors, nor any predecesors; to be exact - it is not a part, or a term. But can mathematics actuall...

 
8:09 AM
@DavidReed @AlessandroCodenotti: This assumption is not necessary in any reasonable foundational system, because having a proof verifier program is simply equivalent to having a recursive axiom set, for any first-order theory. Even in natural language, the definition of "recursive" is via programs.
@Secret That's false. Every finite integer is by definition computable; just output it. "Uncomputable" can only refer to functions.
@Secret Berry's 'paradox' is not a paradox at all, because if you actually attempt to make it logically precise you will find that it is impossible to get what you actually want. You should maybe point that person to the following post:
 
The famous godel liar post :P ?
 
Well that too is one, but it does not explicitly address how one could define "definability". Here it is:
10
A: Do numbers get worse than transcendental?

user21820Let us be more precise about definable numbers, to avoid common pitfalls. Suppose we have chosen our favourite foundational system $S$, which is in modern mathematics ZFC. $S$ of course can be implemented by a computer program that will given any input theorem and purported proof will output "ye...

 
right
 
It's sometimes good to see how it actually can be done with restrictions, rather than me just saying it's difficult to get right or get what the 'paradox' needs.
@skullpatrol Oh look Mozibur answered his own question with some nonsense. If his question was not about mathematics, that would still be acceptable.
@skullpatrol Incidentally, before coming here I just posted an answer that implicitly addresses the question of whether we can define 1 as a natural number:
0
A: Decidability and "truth value"

user21820I think that sentence is not 100% precise but was intended to mean: Undecidability of a sentence over a deductive system is merely whether or not that system proves or disproves the sentence, and is a purely syntactic matter (at least if you believe in the classical properties of finite strin...

Of course, one could argue that "one" can be treated as a single concept of "uniqueness" and not as part of any structure, but it's a bit weird to still use "1" if we don't also want to relate it to "2" and other naturals.
 
8:25 AM
Thanks for sharing.
 
 
1 hour later…
9:25 AM
@user21820 please clarify to me why when you are talking about having a proof verifier it is necessarily recursive/turing computable
I am a program myself
from a perspective
I am a proof verifier
I don't see how you could disregard that you need to assume that recursiveness encapsulates the notion of computability
@AlessandroCodenotti See above
 
 
3 hours later…
12:09 PM
@user21820 Hello there!
I am at airport on the way to galapagos
 
12:28 PM
I suppose you could say a proof verifier on a MODERN machine, but we have no way of knowing whether futuristic computers will be stronger than turing complete. Especially given all the AI advancements going on (neural network etc.).
 
@DavidReed are you claiming that you are stronger than a turing machine?
 
@LeakyNun I'm claiming there's no rigorous way to compare
The strength of the thesis comes from the fact that all of the major proposed models of computability have been found to be equivalent
Let David model some machine S: S evaluates the function from S --> bool by :

f(S) = 0, if David is experiencing an emotion at the time of the function call and 1 otherwise
is a very imprecise argument that suggests I can do things modern computers cant
 
12:46 PM
sure, some computers can output sounds while some cannot
does that mean it has a stronger computability?
 
input ---> processing ---->output
the distinction is I am talking about the processing part and you are talking about the output part
have to go
flights boarding
I'll discuss this later tonight or when I get back from trip
 
 
4 hours later…
4:46 PM
@LeakyNun :)
I'm in the flagship lounge
it is AMAZING
Anyways I was thinking, other things I can do that turing cant
for relatively large values of n, I can compute a random number
 
a number that one believes is random
 
for large values of n it is random
 
it only appears random
 
i can randomly truncate the beginning numbers that would be pseudorandom
eventually though I will just write down a string of numbers without preference for any of them
 
that's what you believe
 
4:52 PM
Are you talking about predestination or subconscious stuff
let me phrase it this way
write down 10,000 1's and 0's randomly (or however you would prefer to do it) other than the only algorithm is whatever number pops into your head
do it again
 
@DavidReed yes
@DavidReed oh this is the classical example
 
compare the two
you applied the same algorithm twice
 
If the person in question knows nothing about statistics, he will avoid having long consecutive runs of the same number
 
and very likely got very different answers
 
however if you "really" generate random numbers, you will very likely get a long run
 
4:55 PM
you are talking about the famouse heads and tails flip that instructor did
 
which shows that we merely believe that we are generating random numbers
yes
 
NEGATIVE
Which shows they wanted to have the numbers appear random
and felt that that many consecutive heads would be unlikely
so specifically and intentionally avoided it
 
hmm
 
they had a motive, simply put
For short values of n there unquestionable bias, like ppl always think of the ace of spades and nine of diamonds when asked to think of a card
but for long runs i surmise that it would very much be random
The other thing I can do that turing machines are infamous for not being able to do is compute things about mysefl
I also think I might have a stronger ability to engage in proof verification: Is there a program that is capable of learning the English and symbolic math language sufficiently to do proof verification with the input effectively the paragraph form of proofs. That is, proof verification in English language. I would have to think about that, would require going back into grammers :(
In intro to comp sci class it is a common open saying : "Computers are extremely dumb, they are just very fast"
 
5:32 PM
I have one small question
How is the semantic of formula with free variables in FOL defined ?
In wikipedia it says that the formula is true iff the universal closure of the formula is true (universal closure means that we place Uni-Quant before any free variables )
Small correction, the wikipedia says the formula is satisfiable iff...., not "true"
but my professor seems to say that the formula is satisfiable iff there is an interpretation in which it is true
in other words, it just has to be true for a particular assignment of these free variables in a given structure
then it is satisfiable
so my question is, which one is correct/ more standard ?
 
 
1 hour later…
6:50 PM
@TungNguyen It depends on the particular system. My preferred one doesn't assign semantics to formula having free variables. Others assign it to be true if the universal closure of the formula is true
 
Thank you, there are so many systems in place in logic ^^
 
Universally, no matter what system, a formula is satisfiable if there is an interpretation in which it is true
that is always the definition
now with free variables
one moment while i think how to explain this
ok
when you are talking about the universal closure being true/false
you are saying with respect to an interpretation that has already been provided
The problem with universal closures is you may not have a closed term for every element of the domain
so defining what it means for just $\forall x F(x)$ to be true is tricky in general
Actually I would have to know more about your particular system to answer that part of it, come to think of it
but neither one is "more correct/standard" as they are both correct. They don't contradict each other
@TungNguyen Bottom line, a formula is satisfiable if there is an interpretation in which it is true
A formula having free variables is true (in a given structure/interpretation) if its universal closure is true
both are correct
 
 
3 hours later…
10:17 PM
Hello, @user21820 You might be sleeping right about now! Just wanted to let you know I'm back.
 

« first day (522 days earlier)      last day (2295 days later) »