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05:00 - 13:0013:00 - 14:00

5:38 AM
hi
@user21820
hi
 
@toto: Hi.
 
hi @user21820
 
So how is it going?
 
hi I have a small Doubt about simple Interset Problems, are you free Now/
 
@user36188: Just ask your question. I'll answer it now if it's easy to answer.
 
5:49 AM
Hi
Divide rs 2379 into 3 parts so that their amount after 2,3 and 4 years respectively may be equal, the rate of interest being 5% per annum at simple Interest, what will be first Part
I have Tried
amount will be equal for all the three parts for n=2,n=3 and n=4 Amount = Simple Interest + Principal 2379/3= will give the value for each part it constitutes 793 , we cannot directly divide that three parts May be another three different types of Number

let the first part Number part i will be take x, surely the second part will be 2379-x and how will take the value for third part,Please anyone share the Answer and Logi
 
room topic changed to Logic: All about logic. Feel free to join in but please stick to one topic at a time. =) [formal-systems] [foundations] [logic]
@user36188: Sorry that's not about mathematical logic. Please either ask on the main site or in another forum.
 
ok thank you
 
@user36188: I meant "in another chat-room".
 
which chat room for this type of question
Actually I am New
 
@user36188: Actually, the best is to ask a question, since it will be seen by everybody. Chat-rooms are more for informal or extended discussion.
 
5:53 AM
ok
 
@user36188: I see you have already asked one question so far. Just carry on asking more!
 
ok
 
@user36188: Do note that you should use proper sentences and punctuation.
 
why they are always Devoting Me for asking the question
 
@user36188: You had 10 upvotes and 2 downvotes. You included your attempt in your original question, which is good. But you didn't use proper sentences and punctuation and didn't check your spelling. Furthermore, you didn't use LaTeX, as instructed by the FAQ which you were told to read before posting. Thus the downvotes were justified.
I personally wouldn't have downvoted though.
 
6:02 AM
@user36188 Probably the main chatroom: chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/info/36/mathematics
 
@MartinSleziak: Hello! Thanks.
 
ok Now I have Understand My Mistake
 
@user36188: No worry. Just format your questions nicely and they'll be good to go.
 
 
1 hour later…
7:21 AM
@MartinSleziak: And what to do with crankpots who keep posting nonsense about Godel's incompleteness theorem? I'm tired of them already.
3
 
7:59 AM
@user21820 ignore? vote to close and vote to delete, uf that makes sense?
 
@MartinSleziak: I would like to but since I've interacted with this crankpot quite a lot in trying to encourage them to actually start learning logic, I can't vote to close and delete without it seeming like I'm enforcing my opinion.
@MartinSleziak: The questions themselves are nearly gibberish, but I can guess the underlying ideas, which laymen are bound to have without a proper logic foundation. I guess I'll answer to that idea one more time and see how it goes.
 
 
2 hours later…
9:42 AM
Hey user21820, how you doing ?
maybe you're sleeping now ?
@user21820 i was just wondering how we can define the minimum element of a subset of natural set
 
@toto: It depends on what you mean by "define".
Easiest way is to introduce a new function symbol "min"
 
actually i'm talking about that because in the proof about the induction theorem
 
after you've proven that there is a unique minimum.
 
well, cause i heard that you can define that by ordinals
using the definition of naturals from von neumann
 
Do you know how to prove that there is a unique minimum? You need non-empty set by the way. No ordinals involved.
 
9:55 AM
no don't know
well, i suppose you have to do it by induction
like proving that : exists y in A, forall x in A, y <= x
and prove that by induction
 
Take any non-empty set S <= N.
If not exists m in N ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ):
| Let P(k) assert that forall x in S ( k <= x ).
| Then P(0).
| Given any k in N such that P(k):
| | ...
| | P(k+1).
| Therefore P(k) for every k in N.
| Let c in S.
| Then P(c+1).
| Thus c+1 <= c.
| Contradiction.
Therefore exists m in N ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ).
I'll leave you to figure out the missing part. It's where you need to use the "no minimum".
That proves existence of a minimum. In this case it is easy to prove uniqueness from that.
 
That's a prove from absurdum right ?
 
Yes.
It's crucial. We can't prove it directly.
 
i must do the induction part right ? the ... part ?
 
Yes.
 
10:04 AM
ok so, first, you take a subpart of N
you suppose that there isn't a minimum element
you prove that there isn't a minimum element by induction
 
No.
 
then, it means that if you pick an element from the subpart of N
 
Read the proof outline carefully.
We are not proving what you think by induction.
 
If not exists m in N ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ):
Doesn't it means that you suppose that a minimum element doesn't exist ?
 
Yes. But the induction is not what you think.
The induction is about something else.
 
10:08 AM
you mean that
| Then P(0).
| Given any k in N such that P(k):
| | ...
| | P(k+1).
Isn't a proof by induction ?
 
You must read what P is instead of assuming.
As I said, the induction is not about what you think.
 
i thought induction was about
having a predicate P(n)
proving P(0), then P(n)=>P(n+1)
and then conclude P(n) forall n in N
isn't it ?
 
Yes, but you're still not paying attention to what I'm saying.
You said "you prove that there isn't a minimum element by induction".
That's wrong.
If you read carefully what P says, it is not about minimum elements.
 
hum
Let P(k) assert that forall x in S ( k <= x ).
so it means that given a k integer >= 0, for every element x in the set S, k<=x
 
Yes. Sorry I forgot to say "for k in N".
 
10:16 AM
ah well, it means supposing that there exist a minimum called k
right ?
and prove that it exists by induction
 
No.
Just read it at face value; don't guess.
P(0) is trivially true, and says nothing about minim elements.
*minimum
Take any non-empty set S <= N.
If not exists m in N ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ):
| For each k in N let P(k) assert that forall x in S ( k <= x ).
| Then P(0).
| Given any k in N such that P(k):
| | ...
| | P(k+1).
| Therefore P(k) for every k in N.
| Let c in S.
| Then P(c+1).
| Thus c+1 <= c.
| Contradiction.
Therefore exists m in N ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ).
Oops.
Sorry typo.. Corrected version below.
Take any non-empty set S <= N.
If not exists m in S ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ):
| For each k in N let P(k) assert that forall x in S ( k <= x ).
| Then P(0).
| Given any k in N such that P(k):
| | ...
| | P(k+1).
| Therefore P(k) for every k in N.
| Let c in S.
| Then P(c+1).
| Thus c+1 <= c.
| Contradiction.
Therefore exists m in S ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ).
What I said about P is correct. I just accidentally put "N" instead of "S" in the assumption.
 
i don't understand what i misunderstand
 
What does P(0) say?
 
P(0) says that 0 is less or equal than every elements in S
 
Exactly. It is trivially true and has nothing to do with minimum elements.
P(1) says that every element in S is at least 1.
 
10:23 AM
yeah
 
And so on. Your goal is to finish the induction step, which does not prove that the minimum element exists.
 
so it says that 1 is the minimum element
 
No!!
That's exactly why I keep saying you're guessing wrong.
 
oh, okay
i thought the aim was to say that every subpart of N has a min element doing so
 
Find me a counter-example to your claim that P(1) says that 1 is the minimum element.
 
10:27 AM
well, if 1 is the minimum element
it means that every i in S is greater or equal than 1
so a counter example would be if S contains 0
 
No.
A counter-example to your claim means that P(1) holds but 1 is not the minimum element.
 
you want me to find a counter example of P(1) ?
 
Your claim is "P(1) <=> 1 is the minimum element".
This is false. Find me a counter-example.
 
well, if S contains 0, it will be a counter example
and the only one i though
no ?
 
No. Compute the truth value of both sides. They are the same.
 
10:31 AM
I think i don't understand the idea
what i see though your request is
 
Because you're not reading P correctly.
 
"you have a set S, which contains some elements"
 
You read it correctly at first and then you guess its meaning until it becomes something else different.
 
"i claim through P(0) that you an take each element of S, and every element of S will by less or equal than 0"
 
Wrong.
Read what you write carefully.
 
10:33 AM
well, it seems i've got a big problem so, because i don't understand P :(
 
You're not systematically translating P.
Don't anyhow guess. It's the worst thing to do.
State precisely in English what P(1) says.
 
P(k) assert that forall x in S ( k <= x ).
 
English.
 
so, i replace k by 1
P(1) assert that forall x in S (1 <= x)
so in english now
P(1) says that, in the set S which is a subset of N. If i take each element x of S
x will verify the predicate 1<=x
for me it's the same as saying
int check(k, S) {
foreach (x in S)
{
if (k > x)
return false;
}
return true;
}
isn't it a good way of thinking ?
 
Yes that is correct so far.
 
10:38 AM
okay
 
But just now you said:
> "i claim through P(0) that you an take each element of S, and every element of S will by less or equal than 0"
That's incorrect.
 
oh yeah you're right
every element of S will be greater or equal than 0
 
Right. And also, earlier you claimed that P(1) <=> 1 is the minimum of S. That's also false.
 
and for 1
 
Find me a counter-example.
 
10:40 AM
ah well, i see
if k is 1, and S contains the integer greater than 3 for example
P(1) will be true
but 1 will not be the minimum of S
 
Give me a specific counter-example.
{1,3} contains 3 but 1 is still the minimum of S.
 
let S := {n in N | n > 3}
 
Good.
Or just {2,3}
 
yes
 
Anyway so you can see that P(1) says nothing about the minimum.
 
10:42 AM
right
 
So at first you may find the induction strange.
We're simply proving that 0 is not a lower bound, 1 is not, 2 is not, and so on.
By induction every natural number is not a lower bound.
Argh1!
I don't know what I'm talking.
We're simply proving that 0 is a lower bound, 1 is also, 2 is too, and so on.
By induction every natural number is a lower bound.
 
yes
that's right
Let c in S.
| Then P(c+1).
| Thus c+1 <= c.
i don't get this part
i understand it like
chose a c element in S
 
S is non-empty so we can get some c in S.
 
then we know that P(c) is true, and P(c+1) true too
 
We don't need P(c).
We only need P(c+1).
 
10:46 AM
so if P(c+1) is true
it means that
forall x in S, c+1<= x
 
Yes, and now apply it to c.
 
forall x in S, c <= x
 
No apply the quantified statement.
Not P.
c in S.
forall x in S ( c+1 <= x ).
Thus what?
 
thus c <= x-1 ?
 
No.
"forall x in S ( c+1 <= x )" says something about every x in S.
Apply that to c, which is in S.
 
10:52 AM
ah, you mean, replace x by c ?
c+1 <= c
and thus contradiction since c+1>c
 
Right. Note that "c <= x-1" is meaningless because "x" is undefined.
 
hu... that's great, but well, i never find that by myself
 
I purposely didn't want to say "replace" or "substitute" because although that's the programmer's way (systematic and excellent), you must first grasp the meaning.
 
yes
so well, i'm now trying to catch the global idea
we try to prove that each element of N is a lower bound
 
If you haven't read my post about Fitch-style natural deduction for quantifiers, you should. It gives you the systematic rules for deduction using them, including this one.
 
10:54 AM
and then, when we succeed
 
Yes.
 
we prove that an element can't be it's own lower bound right ?
 
an element of S plus 1 can't be a lower bound.
You need the "+1".
 
hum, okay, hard to visualize (actually i try to visualize everyting, don't know if it's a great way ?)
 
I always try to balance your reasoning out. Sometimes you think syntactically and miss the semantics (meaning). Sometimes you want an intuitive visualization but it may be easier to just chase the symbols.
There is a visualization though.. Just follow the induction.
At first we know that 0 is a lower bound.
So 0 can't be in S, otherwise it would be a minimum of S.
So 1 is a lower bound.
So 1 can't be in S, otherwise it would be a minimum of S.
So 2 is a lower bound.
Induct.
 
11:01 AM
"At first we know that 0 is a lower bound"
why ?
from P(0) ?
but it states that for 0, forall x in S, 0<=x
meaning that we can have an x element in S equal to 0
so 0 could be a minimum and not a lower bound
 
0 is always a lower bound on any set S <= N.
my "lower bound" means "less than or equal to"
 
oh
 
"strict lower bound" means "strictly less than"
Just terminology issues.
 
i thought lower bound means strickly less, sorry
 
No problem; I could see that.
 
11:04 AM
so well wait
P(0) means, 0 is a lower bound of S
then you suppose that P(k)'s true, so k is a lower bound of S by hypothesis
and then we try to prove P(k+1) from P(k)
 
Yes.
 
well i'm trying to prove the induction step from the hypothesis
meaning that from a given k we assume that forall x in S, k <= x
 
Yes.
 
so i tried
k+1 <= x+1
k+1 >= x
right ?
well no
absolutely not
 
I don't know what's happening haha.
Ask yourself whether k in S or not.
 
11:11 AM
k+1 <= x+1
so that means that x+1 could not be in S
 
I don't know what you mean.
 
well, since x isan element of S
x+1 could be outside of S ?
 
How about this. I know you don't want to leave this topic, but it might be more efficient if you first learn natural deduction.
 
yes
 
Specifically look at the rules for quantifiers in math.stackexchange.com/a/1684204.
 
11:13 AM
haven't you a book about that ?
 
Nobody does it the way I do, although there are similar variants. Unfortunately there is no online reference I could find.
Just look at the rules I gave; you're a programmer so it should be no trouble for you.
Notice that there is only one way to derive a sentence of the form "forall x in S ( P(x) )".. You must open a new subcontext "Given x in S".. and the proof will always look like:
Given x in S:
| ...
| P(x).
forall x in S ( P(x) ).
I want you to attempt to fill in the gap in the induction proof here in the format of natural deduction.
Let me reproduce the outline with a bit more detail so that you can see where this is going.
 
actually, i don't know what is the "way to follow" in order to do correctly a proof
hum, well, you're right, i must learn natural deduction first
but it feels weird for me
(go eating, come back in half an hour :))
 
If not exists m in S ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ):
| For each k in N let P(k) assert that forall x in S ( k <= x ).
| Then P(0).
| Given any k in N such that P(k):
| | forall x in S ( k <= x ).
| | If k in S:
| | | ...
| | | Contradiction.
| | k notin S.
| | Given x in S:
| | | k <= x.
| | | k != x.
| | | k+1 <= x.
| | forall x in S ( k+1 <= x ).
| | P(k+1).
| Therefore P(k) for every k in N.
| Let c in S.
| Then P(c+1).
| Thus c+1 <= c.
| Contradiction.
Therefore exists m in S ( forall x in S ( m <= x ) ).
 
Can we discuss physics in this chat room?
 
11:33 AM
@shashank: If and only if it is related to the mathematical study of logic.
A little bit of related meta-physics is fine, but not too much. =)
 
Nope, it isn't.
Sorry to bother you.
 
@shashank: There are chat-rooms for physics. See chat.stackexchange.com/….
 
12:08 PM
oh, by the way @user21820
i was looking at the proof of the recusion theorem
and i didn't get why do we need to prove the tird step
third*
this third step was about finding two function h1 and h2
such that h1 and h2 agree on {0...n}
 
12:25 PM
Quote it.
 
The third step is to let (hk)k∈N(hk)k∈N be a sequence of functions such that hkhk witnesses P(k)P(k) for every k∈Nk∈N, and show that hihi and hjhj agree on {0..i}{0..i} for every i,j∈Ni,j∈N such that i<ji<j. Again, this is by induction ('on jj').
 
Quote the formal one.
 
how ?
 
The one I gave you yesterday.
 
hu, i'll have to scroll back for a moment :o
Step 3 first does
for each k in N let h[k] : {0..k}->E such that ( h(0) = c and forall n in N[<k] ( h(n+1) = g(h(n)) ) ) )
Note that this is valid because we proved uniqueness. Here I'm reusing the variable name "h" and this time it is a sequence, which is nothing more than a function with domain N.
 
12:31 PM
Although this is a chat-room, you should save whatever you wish to keep, because it's a waste of time for me to keep searching for what I've typed previously. As you can see, it's troublesome to find it. I want the later version:
Given set E and function g : E->E and c from E:
| [Steps 1,2,3,4]
Step 1 proves
forall k in N ( exists h : {0..k}->E ( h(0) = c and forall n in N[<k] ( h(n+1) = g(h(n)) ) ) )
Step 2 proves
forall k in N ( forall h,h' : {0..k}->E ( h(0) = c and forall n in N[<k] ( h(n+1) = g(h(n)) ) ) and ( h'(0) = c and forall n in N[<k] ( h'(n+1) = g(h'(n)) ) ) implies h = h' )
Step 3 first does
foreach k in N let H[k] : {0..k}->E such that ( H[k](0) = c and forall n in N[<k] ( H[k](n+1) = g(H[k](n)) ) ) )
by lots of set-theoretic machinery and then proves
 
well yes, you're right
so, i don't uderstand why we must prove step 3
since we prove existence and uniqueness of h
why do we need to prove that restrictions agrees ?
 
Ok that allows us to do the first part of Step 3 which is to construct a sequence of functions H[k] for k in N.
The second part is needed for Step 4 to work.
Whether or not you classify it under Step 3 is a matter of taste.
in Step 4 we took the union of the whole sequence of functions. It is not obvious that the result is a function!
That is what the second part of step 3 is for. In general when we have a sequence of functions where the appropriate restrictions agree, the union will also be a function.
 
in step 4, i understood that we do the union of all the functions
and then we proof it's still a function
seems pretty logic to do that
 
Yes that proof will essentially be the same as proving that the restrictions agree, though you can do it directly.
 
but, why do we prove that each function agrees with another one which is it's restriction
ah well, i think i understood
you mean that, we create many functions which are a restriction of h on every n of N
 
12:37 PM
I'm not sure what you mean by your last sentence.
 
then you prove that they share the same element on the stronger restriction
and then you do the union of all functions
 
I think you mean "which are the restriction of the intended f"
not "restriction of h"
 
the first part of Step 3 which is to construct a sequence of functions H[k] for k in N.
 
Yes.
We can jump straight to Step 4 and take their union.
Then we need to prove that the union is a function.
 
oh, okay
 
12:40 PM
The proof will involve the same reasoning.
 
but why in the post you said that we first should prove
 
That's because it's the general structure of all such proofs.
 
that H[k] and H[k+1] are equal on the domain {0...k}
general structure ?
 
Yes. This technique is not just applicable for this proof.
 
what is the "general idea" ?
prove existence
then uniqueness
and union which is still a function ?
 
12:42 PM
In general, it goes: (1) Build a sequence of approximations; (2) Prove that any term in the sequence contains every preceding term; (3) Take union to get the result.
It applies not just to functions.
Note that for functions f,g to agree on Dom(f), it means that f is a subset of g. This is how it fits the general technique.
 
approximation ? what did you hear from that ?
 
Hmm. Do you understand the English word?
 
i don't know, maybe, i'll check the translation
for me the meaning is about finding something that is more or less what is expected
 
π ~= 3;
π ~= 3.1;
π ~= 3.14;
...
π == 3.1415926...
This is a reasonable analogy. We have a sequence of approximations to π.
 
huu ! great !
 
12:45 PM
Note that each approximation agrees with the preceding ones on all the digits that the preceding ones have.
 
yeah right
 
So we can 'union' (combine) them all to get an infinite sequence of digits
 
that's great !
where did you learn that ?
 
Nowhere.
 
from yourself ?
 
12:47 PM
Probably.
 
but how did you know that is a valid reasoning ?
 
I said it's an analogy. It's not valid reasoning since we didn't define π.
 
yeah okay, but, my question was much general
it was about, how did you know that a proof is a valid one ?
 
It's a general technique but you will have to verify each step of course.
 
i mean, you're on a problem, you want to find a proof of a theorem for example
how can you ensure yourself that the way you're reasoning is a valid one ?
 
12:49 PM
I didn't say it would always work!
In this case it does, because we can prove Steps 1 to 3.
 
user131753
Why don't you use LaTeX in chat?
 
yes okay, but my question is, how can you convince yourself that the prove is complete ?
what does tell you "okay, you're done, proof complete"
 
If you succeed, then the technique works and we know that Step 4 will work even without trying to prove it. (But for you, you must go and prove it.)
@user170039: Because it's slow to type LaTeX and I don't have MathJax support here.
@user170039: But everyone else is free to type in LaTeX. I can certainly read.
 
$\exists a \in C$
ho well just trying if latex was formatted
 
Let me repeat the technique.
 
12:53 PM
@user21820, the thing that disturb me
 
(1) Build a sequence of approximations; (2) Prove that any term in the sequence contains every preceding term; (3) Take union to get the result.
 
is that we try to prove something on an infinite set
so how can you say that you're resoning is valid on the infinite ?
Yeah, i understood
 
Erm, the proof doesn't involve infinity.
At least for the recursion theorem.
 
but, i just wanted to know if something tells us "that's okay to do it that way"
@user21820, but, you prove that the function is defined on all the natural integers
so you prove it on infinity no ?
 
Point out the step that fails. Each step is justified by the ZF axioms. If you disagree with ZF, then you'll have to pick another formal system. The first part of my answer at math.stackexchange.com/a/1893865/21820 is what you might expect to see in a system that does not have the notion of infinite sets.
 
12:57 PM
ah i see
 
If you already accept the notion of N as a single collection of all natural numbers, then you essentially have accepted enough of ZF to be satisfied by the ZF proof.
 
(1) Build a sequence of approximations; (meaning that you construct the approximations according to ZF, so, they're valid) (2) Prove that any term in the sequence contains every preceding term (proved by recurrence, so it was proved by a valid theorem, so true in ZF) (3) Take union to get the result (since the union is an axiom of ZF it's valid to do it).
 
Yes.
That's right.
But if you don't accept that there is a single entity that is infinite, then you can't take the union so simply, and I think you need to have a notion of procedures that may not halt, which is the way my first proof goes.
Notice that in that proof we construct a procedure (treat it as the description itself), which we can perform for any finite number of steps.
 
well, actually, i know the axiom of infinty (from ZF), used by the von neumann construction of naturals, so that's ok
 
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