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1:54 AM
Room
You know how you can expand a group to a groupoid?
 
@leslietownes
right so you can see that, right
identity mult becomes id of each object which corresponds to an element
so it's like a connected, complete groupoid
So there is obviously a map back to groups, so the two categories of groups and connected, complete groupoids are isomorphic, right?
Small groupoids I mean to say
since groups are sets
 
there's some category crap about groups and groupoids and going back and forth, i think.
maybe more one way than the other.
 
Okay, a group is necessarily connected, so...
 
i have never thought about topologizing groupoids. it seems that when you use them to encode local symmetries, they might naturally be disconnected.
what? a group is necessarily connected? hardly.
 
2:07 AM
?
No not in topological
terms
 
groups don't have to come with topologies. groups that do, often come with topologies in which there are identifiable components.
 
I mean its groupoid is always connected even if you take a disjoint product of groups
 
e.g. GL_2(R) with matrix multiplication. the stuff with det > 0 is not in the same component as the stuff with det < 0
 
@leslietownes take the powerset of the group, or the trivial topology
 
yeah, i'm tapping out of this. i don't know anything about groupoids.
 
2:09 AM
Those form topologies always
Your statement is wrong! :D
QED
Also the powerset is of course always a topological group by definition
I mean the group with the powerset as topology
 
@Primegaphomologystonermon. Not in my mathematical universe!
 
What about though: $\{ U_a : a \in \Bbb{Z}\}, U_a = \{ an^k - 1: n \in \Bbb{Z} \}$? It should form a topo basis, and $f(n) = an^k - 1$ should be continuous (or something).
 
We are not listening.
 
Do you mean reading?
 
ears covered
 
3:05 AM
preparation g
 
I just proved $\Bbb{P}_{\text{odd}} - \Bbb{P}_{\text{odd}} = 2\Bbb{Z}$. where $\Bbb{P}$ are the prime numbers and $-$ is elementwise.
Iow, the set of differences of odd primes covers all even integers.
It's an immedate consequence of Helfgott's finiteness on Ternary, but could be had at even larger than ternary sums of primes, just any finite sums $q_1 + \dots+ q_n$ covering (almost all of) $2\Bbb{N}$ or $2 \Bbb{N} + 1$
will do
 
3:38 AM
I'm searching for the second even prime.
 
4:00 AM
Is calculus by James Stewart good?
 
4:13 AM
@leslietownes
 
i think leslie is out swimming at the moment.
 
5:09 AM
@JaiSriKrishna It’s standard. Good for what? Good for whom?
 
Not a "gold" standard, Dr. @TedShifrin?
/jk
 
@copper.hat $-\frac1{12}$
Positive integers are closed under addition and that is $1+2+3+4+\cdots$. It is not divisible by another integer.
 
5:27 AM
Hi pal.
 
i used stewart. it is a fine, standard-issue calculus book.
@copper.hat today was my day off swimming.
first day in many days.
grandad did not get the day off.
he's swimming still.
 
6:12 AM
@robjohn At some point I did come across an April's fool joke about the even primes.
@leslietownes he's just sampling the water quality
 
6:38 AM
@leslietownes Thank you It's good
 
I want to eat samosa but it's not available here.
 
@TedShifrin Thank you I wanna learn calculus so I asked!
@Koro Even I wanna eat it πŸ˜₯πŸ˜₯
 
yeah, it tastes so good with a good sauce while it is medium hot. Add some green chilly and some ginger tea, it tastes even better.
 
πŸ˜‹πŸ˜‹
Find an expression for the area under the graph of f as a limit
f(x)=x^1/4 1<=x<=16
Is the answer Lim n-->oo sigma x=1 to 16 (15/n)x^1/4
 
6:58 AM
do you know how the graph of f looks like?
 
Making a sketch may help
 
Yeah
So isn't my answer right?
Since in the integral a to b f(x)dx, we could replace x with any variable we call it the dummy variable?
 
@JaiSriKrishna it doesn't look right. What is sigma x=1 to 16?
 
7:12 AM
Where did you get the 15/n factor?
 
@JaiSriKrishna you have to be careful in definite integrals. Upper/lower limits may change when you substitute something for x.
 
Label everything you do on your sketch.
 
@JaiSriKrishna so try approximating the area using 'small' rectangles.
 
@Koro Yeah I am trying it
 
Take your time :-)
 
7:16 AM
Btw what if the point ( left end point ) is not in the domain of the function?
For computing area using left end point
 
@JaiSriKrishna you mean computing area on (a,b], a<b? In such a case, you try to find integral from a+h to b, h>0 and then take limit $h\to 0$.
In such a case, if the function f is bounded on [a,b] and continuous on (a,b], then the limiting value of the integral $\int_{a+h}^b f (x) dx $ as h tends to 0 gives you $\int_a^b f(x) dx$
 
7:31 AM
Oh
So I should take the limit of f(a+h) as h tends to 0?
 
no. can you see math formulas here?
If not, then get the bookmark from LATEX in chat link available in this room's description.
 
No I can't see the formulas correctly It's in mathjax format
Oh yeah I can see the formulas clearly now
 
coolio
 
:)
 
but, for now, rely more on your sketch and the labels
 
7:44 AM
What if after the computation of integral it is F(x) what if 'a' is not present in the domain of F(x)
:)
yeah sure
 
Arranging the given information in a chart may be helpful.
 
Integral $(\int_{a}^{b}f(x)\,dx)$ = F(x) what if a isn't defined in the domain of F(x)
 
Separate the different cases in your chart.
Each with a sketch
 
why do authors write 'homotopic to zero' when they really mean 'homotopic to a point'?
 
Is David Burton's Number theory a standard book?
 
8:09 AM
@copper.hat zero is a point, is it not?
if you make an algebra of curves, what would be the zero curve?
stabbing in the dark, here.
 
you mean sigma algebra?
or algebra in measure theory?
:)
 
@robjohn You've got a point there
 
8:27 AM
N
 
N?
 
 
1 hour later…
9:39 AM
Math is evil. You have to spend so much time feeling stupid.
When I spend time cooking food, I get the food to eat, but when I spend time learning math, I get nothing.
 
You're supposed to get food for thought, ie
something to think about.
 
But when you finally understand the true beauty of what you are learning, you are overwhelmed with wonder and feel at peace with yourself
I mean, studying Math and struggling through it is surely frustrating but eventually it gives you so much it's worth it
 
Indeed, the mental nourishment helps you grow!
 
9:55 AM
Regarding the "feeling stupid" I guess we can't help it, I feel that all the time too. Nonetheless, remember that the mathematicians who proved the theorems you read on your books didn't just wake up and write down the proof
 
Is Indefinite Integration "defined as" the inverse process of differentiation
 
Let $f:I\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ The indefinite integral of $f$ is defined as the set of all functions $F:I\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ such that $F'(t)=f(t)\quad\forall t\in I$.
The indefinite integral is a family of functions
 
Yeah
So is the function defined as inverse of derivatives?
Also the author mentions $\int f(x) dx $ is really infinite valued
what does that mean?
 
10:22 AM
@JaiSriKrishna If you have a differentiable function $g$, then $g\in\int g'(x)dx$ i.e. $g$ belongs to the set of the antiderivatives of $g'$, but there are infinitely many. I guess "infinite value" is a crude way to say this
It turns out that all the elements of such set are of the form $g(x)+c\qquad c\in\mathbb{R}$
 
Oh Yes @Feynman_00
I get it
 
can someone help me understand why $D$ needs to be integral over $A$ in this proof?
i dont see where that assumption is being used
'Lemma 7.14' here refers to 'If $A$ is a subring of $B$, and $I$ is an ideal of $A$, then the integral closure of $I$ in $B$ is $\overline{I} = \sqrt{I \overline{A}}$
 
 
1 hour later…
11:45 AM
what's the bar notation? wouldn't make sense to mean integral closure
 
the way its stated verbatim is 'the integral closure of $I$ in $B$ is $\sqrt{ I \overline{A}}$
where $\overline{A}$ is the integral closure of $A$ in $B$
 
oh, I misread a part
yeah, you don't need to assume $D$ to be integral over $A$
it's redundant since you assume $x\in D$ to be integral anyway
and the argument does not change if you replace $D$ by $A[x]$ (by which I mean the subring generated by $A$ and $x$ in $D$, not the polynomial ring over $A$), which is integral over $A$ if $x$ is
 
12:03 PM
I see, thanks!
also in the proof, am I right in thinking they tacitly work in some field extension of $A[x]$ where $x$'s minimal poly splits?
(that may be larger than $D$)
 
oh yeah, for sure
didn't even register for me cause I always implicitly work inside an algebraic closure
 
yes of course, I just paused a bit because up till this point they've been pretty painstaking in stating every step explicitly (its an introductory commalg course)
come to think of it though this is par for the course at least in my experience, 12 week short courses tend to go really slow for the first 75% of the course, and then at least 3x faster in the last 25
 
12:45 PM
I don't really like integrality as a topic in a comm alg course, but perhaps that's just cause I'm not super fond of the topic to begin with
it's pretty useless unless you get into algebraic number theory
 
oh i see, im going through these notes because im taking an algebraic geometry course when semester starts
so maybe I should skip some of this stuff in interest of time,
ive been spending a while on these 'going up/down' results
are they needed for AG?
(the course i will be taking tries to cover hartshorne ch1 and 2.1-2.5)
and the notes im using roughly follow eisenbuds book
 
1:55 PM
Hii, my friend is preparing for JEE and he showed me 3 short-cut formulas for finding second order derivatives.

Here are the formulas.
$$\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \dfrac{\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)(\frac{d^2y}{dt^2}) - \left(\frac{dy}{dt}\right)(\frac{d^2x}{dt^2})}{\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)^3}$$

$$\dfrac{d^2x}{dy^2} = \dfrac{-\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}}{\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3}$$

$$\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2} = \dfrac{\frac{dx}{dt}\cdot \frac{d^2y}{dt^2} - \frac{dy}{dt}\cdot \frac{d^2x}{dt^2}}{\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)^3}$$
Some application questions are,

1.) If $y = t^2 + t$ and $x = t + \frac1t$, then find $\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}\bigg|_{t=3}$.

2.) If $\cos^{-1}(\frac y2) = \ln(\frac x5)^5, |y| < 2$ then which of the following equation is true?

(i) $x^2y'' + xy' - 25y = 0$
(ii) $x^2y'' - xy' - 25y = 0$
(iii) $x^2y'' - xy' + 25y = 0$
(iv) $x^2y'' + xy' + 25y = 0$

3.) If $y = \frac{2x^2 + 3}{5x + 4}$, then find $\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}$.
 
2:28 PM
@HelpMeToUnderstandContours Let dy/dx=p. Then, $\frac{d^2 y}{dx^2}=\frac{dp}{dx}=\frac {d}{dx}(\frac 1{\frac 1p})$
Please ignore that later half of previous message. $\frac {dp}{dx}=\frac 1{dx/dp}$
 
2:42 PM
Using $p$ is obscuring what's going on. $\frac {d^2y}{dx^2}=\frac d{dx}(\frac 1{dx/dy})=-(dx/dy)^{-2}\frac d{dx}(dx/dy)$
Use Chain rule again to write: $\frac d{dx} ()=\frac d{dy}() dy/dx$.
 
3:17 PM
all of this reads like borderline gibberish to me
stuff like $dy/dx$ is nonsense in general, let alone thinking about analogous higher derivatives
 
@Thorgott Yes, same here :(
 
3:37 PM
closed and bounded subsets of the isometry group of $\mathbb{R}^n$ are compact?
 
probably, but what do you mean by 'bounded'? not saying that this can't be given a meaning. just that it might not come with one.
 
@monoidaltransform yes, if you mean w.r.t the compact-open topology
the proof is basically use arzela-ascoli on a compact exhaustion
and then extract a subsequence by taking the diagonal, which gives you sequential compactness
since the compact-open topology is metrized by the usual metric related to local uniform convergence, a subset is compact iff its sequentially compact
 
@porridgemathematics whats the metric on the isometry group of a metric space $X$ ?
 
i thought we already discussed what it is before?
 
yes yes, but I can't seem to find it
 
3:48 PM
(assuming $X$ is hemicompact)
 
assuming $X$ hemicompact
 
you can think of isometries on R^n as pairs (a,b) where a is an element of R^n and b is an element of O(n), so these things sit inside R^(n + n^2), which you can metric-ify. that's one family of ways to get a metric on there.
i guess that doesn't work for a more general metric space.
 
leslie is absolutely right
 
yeah but you will need to use something about the structure of the isometry group to get equicontinuity anyway
so your method is more straightforward
 
the isometry group of $\mathbb{R}^n$ is $\mathbb{R}^n\rtimes O(n)$
so this property is an immediate consequence of good old Heine-Borel
 
3:52 PM
@monoidaltransform anyway, assuming $X$ is compact, just set $\rho(f,g) = \sup_{x \in X} d(f(x),g(x))$, for hemicompact take an increasing exhausting sequence, and consider $\rho_n = \frac{1}{2^n} \frac{\rho(f,g)}{1 + \rho(f,g)}$ on each $X_n \uparrow X$
then take the sum
of course this coincides with the straightforward approach to the question, just identify the group with something that is clearly a proper metric space
(you get the same topology)
uh but actually this is true for a general hemicompact metric space (and its isometry group)
because equicontinuity is immediate $d(f(x),f(y)) = d(x,y)$
that plus uniform boundedness on compact subsets will give you sequential compactness
(you get uniform boundedness on compact subsets if your set is bounded in this metric)
 
@robjohn it certainly is an identity in the right space.
 
 
2 hours later…
5:33 PM
recent years our math department has moved very toward the applied side
 
boooo
 
 
1 hour later…
7:01 PM
in the last sentence of this, shouldnt it say $A$ is complete if every cauchy sequence has a unique limit?
going by their definition of complete, where they define it to mean the map $A \rightarrow \hat{A}$ is a (ring) isomorphism
since it seems like every cauchy sequence having a limit would only give surjectivity
and unique would give injectivity
 
what does Cauchy even mean here?
 
i took it to mean how its defined for a topological vector space, so $\{x_i \}$ is cauchy if for any nhood of $0$ of $V$, there is some $N$ s.t. $n,m \geq N$ implies $x_n - x_m \in V$
(the note itself doesnt elaborate)
 
ok, that makes sense
I agree with you
injectivity is equivalent to $\bigcap\mathfrak{a}^n=0$, which is a nontrivial condition
 
7:18 PM
ah right, that makes sense
so in fact injectivity is equivalent to $A$ being hausdorff too
 
yeah
one of my favorite examples of a case where this condition is not met is the ring $A=C^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$ with the ideal $\mathfrak{a}=(x)$
if you only take germs instead, this is an example of a non-noetherian local ring with f.g. maximal ideal
 
ah yeah, thats neat
is non-noetherian here being seen via krull intersection theorem?
(and the $\exp(-\frac{1}{x^2})$ thing)
 
you can quote Krull intersection to get it immediately, but there also is a fun explicit argument
the functions in $O(\exp(-1/nx^2))$ form a proper infinite increasing chain of ideals
a funny related fact is that if you consider germs of continuous functions at $0$, they still form a local ring, but the maximal ideal is not f.g. anymore
 
Hey Thorgott
and mr. porridge
 
nice, I think I get the argument
hi :)
 
7:41 PM
@austere1993 I've added quite a bit of explanation to my answer.
 
8:07 PM
howdy @robjohn
 
@TedShifrin this is a calculus of variations computation to compute geodesic equations. The integral over M is just part of the metric. I can tell the second line is just the product rule, but I can't figure out what is going on to get the last line. It doesn't seem to be the adjoint connection afaik
 
It doesn't make much sense to me. I assume there's an $\varepsilon$ parameter in $q(t,x)$?
 
Yeah they are viewing $q$ as a 1-parameter variation of a smooth path.
 
We need to know how $\partial_\varepsilon$ and $\partial_t$ are related, clearly.
 
The $\varepsilon$ is the variation, and the $t$ is the time of the path.
 
8:13 PM
Oh, this looks like some of the standard stuff with first and second variation that's in DoCarmo, etc.
 
Yeah, I just don't know what could possibly happening to get the very last line.
Just purely to change the integrand. I am effectively ignoring everything outside it.
 
We're swapping $t$ and $\varepsilon$ derivatives.
 
Is that a routine thing to do? I am not sure how one would swap them in practice.
Or do you mean it's like equivalence of second order partials?
That would actually make sense with the adjoint of the covariant derivative.
Because if you could get $g(\nabla_{\partial_t}\partial_\varepsilon q(t,x), \partial_tq(t,x))$, then taking the adjoint, you get something with a - sign, and then the divergence. But I think the divergence would probably be zero...
 
This kind of stuff appears, as I said, in DoCarmo and other standard treatments. See, for example, p. 195.
 
Do Carmo's surfaces book?
 
8:19 PM
No, the grad text.
It's in the surfaces book, too, I guess.
They use the notation $D/dt$, $D/ds$, etc., for the covariant derivatives.
 
"Riemannian Geometry" is the grad one? I actually have never looked at his grad book.
 
Yes.
 
I will have a look, thanks!
 
It's one of the standard resources, along with various French ones.
 
Yeah, so he does some similar swaps on page 195
 
8:49 PM
So yeah, it's actually just that $\nabla_\varepsilon \partial_t - \nabla_t \partial_\varepsilon = [\partial_\varepsilon, \partial_t] = 0$
So you can swap them, as you said.
 
Hey, @Ted! How are things?
 
So, I went to a sporting event last night. Based on the final score (16-7), you might think it was a football game.
Sadly, it was not.
 
Either a very active hockey game, or a boring basketball game.
 
It was 8 innings of baseball, followed by half and inning of amateur hour, little league BS.
 
Ah
 
8:54 PM
At the bottom of the 8th, the D-Backs were losing 8-7. It had been a tense game, in which Bumgarner managed to hold Pujoles to only two home runs and a base hit.
But in the top of the 9th, the wheels fell off.
Even the worst batter on the Cardinals team (season average: 0.190) managed to score a grand slam. Without the ball leaving the park.
Technically, it was a triple, plus a one base error.
But four runs scored.
Stupid Diamondbacks and their terrible team this year. And Oakland is doing even worse. Why can't any of the teams I care about ever win any games. :(
 
9:14 PM
I can stop a store or restaurant from carrying an item by saying I like it.
 
@robjohn Ouch. That sucks.
 
It does, even though one might think it gives you a kind of control. It is a Midas touch.
 
@anak how do you go from that commutation formula to the thing in the picture?
 
9:40 PM
@robjohn why would they do that?
 
@copper.hat The universe hates @robjohn.
 
sometimes i feel as though i am in that club too
 
@XanderHenderson Hyperbolicity!
 
10:03 PM
@TedShifrin Really? The universe has negative curvature?
 
Seems it might have an overall flat curvature, but I sit on a local saddle.
It is only 88° today, cool from the 104° days we've had recently, but 65° dewpoint, so the relative humidity is 47%.
 
10:21 PM
Just in the 70s here today.
 
83°F where I am now.
But it was hot in Phoenix yesterday, and this morning.
When I left my brother's house this morning at 8, it was already almost 90°F.
 
10:58 PM
its 72f atm here, but there is a nice breeze so its bearable
 
11:15 PM
LOL @ bearable
 

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