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12:05 AM
hot take
studying for law is combinatorics
 
i agree
 
only way to get good grades is to find strange patterns in the content
there's just too much info
at most you'll have time to review it once
so, given a power point slide and a concept and it's characteristics
you only got once shot
(do not miss your chance to blow)
cough sorry
you only got once shot to memorize it for a long amount of time
so a concept and it's characteristics is a puzzle: what's the way to memorize the whole thing without individually memorizing the elements
 
 
2 hours later…
1:57 AM
i agree
 
this is why the concept of the "administrative function of the public administration understood as an entity" is solved by a concrete bridge sustained on a tripod-like pillars, stabbed into a teat-like terrain elevation with spanish bullfighters running on it
it is permanent, unmediated and material, and we notice the conjunction of "ma" and "me" which are alike in these characteristics, which remind of the french word "mamelle", thus the tripod structure on the terrain of that shape
generally spontaneous, where "pont" is a bridge in french, and bullfighters because... they're spanish, so that explains the "s" in front of "pont"
and well it is a concrete bridge because... the administrative function is concrete
i feel like i'm using controverted mnemonics like Michael's in the Office, but in principle the image is way faster to manifest than this whole explanatory text
let no one doubt that this is hard science
 
3:02 AM
my room is full of obscene scenes with stick figures
 
 
1 hour later…
4:05 AM
i think that's enough peyote for one day
 
4:38 AM
@Ajay If $n|m$ then $F_n|F_m$. $F_3=2$, so every 3rd Fibonacci number is even. $2+\frac{F_{3k}/2}{F_{3k+3}/2}$ is a good approximation to $\sqrt5$
Dyslexia is fun...
Eg, $(2+\frac{72}{305})^2 + \frac1{305^2} = 5$
@shintuku Reminds me of administratium
 
4:58 AM
A path connected space is 0-connected. Right?
 
This is the only nobel prize I can hope for lol
I don't want to ruin the joke so removed
(removed)
 
are zero divisors not allowed in the denominator of elements in fraction rings because they cause distinct elements to be mapped to 0?
 
5:15 AM
Can a zero divisor have a multiplicative inverse?
 
For example, @SillyGoose, can there be $x\in \Bbb Z_6$ with $\bar 2x= \bar 1$?
 
5:39 AM
Happy thanksgiving
I think tonight was our first really traditional Thanksgiving in may years, as in turkeym stuffing, etc.
 
i asked my daughter what she was thankful for and she said she wasn't thankful for having to go to day care. so i changed the subject to complaints about the previous year. it was a lot of fun actually
 
Did you win the most complaints?
 
no, munchkin did.
 
6:07 AM
I meant — hers about others.
 
oh, the cat won. in fact, it turned into a collective airing of grievances about the cat, who happened to be sitting on the dinner table at the time.
 
6:36 AM
@copper.hat my mom cooked a full thanksgiving lunch. I got to stuff the turkey, hehe.
 
6:48 AM
jokes aside, it was a lovely meal.
 
7:14 AM
while ye celebrate and Thank, I have become Pain
student of Law. I have prostituted my well-being, forsaken my sanity, all for what?
about three fiddy credits? These salacious drawings of stick figures engaging in the most indecent acts of debauchery?
no, this will not do, I shall not Thank
although stuffing turkey probably has some sweet mnemonic potential
 
7:34 AM
Any holomorphic map preserves the orientation?
 
@onepotatotwopotato yes
 
@LukasHeger How can I show that?
 
Complex matrices have positive determinant when considered as real matrices
More precisely, det over R is | det over C|^2
If you want an abstract argument: GL_n(C) is connected
And the real determinant maps into R \0
So the image is connected
Thus it can't contain negative numbers
 
7:51 AM
im not sure if this should surprise me but north korea has a math department. first author here has listed address "Institute of Mathematics, State Academy of Sciences, Pyongyang, Democratic People's Republic of Korea"
 
Hi @CalvinKhor!!
 
just curious
 
To steal bitcoin they anyway need to study math so there should be a math dept.
 
@Koro yo, long time no see, how you doing? :)
@onepotatotwopotato yes lol but still
I was stunned for a moment
 
8:03 AM
@CalvinKhor I'm doing alright. How about you? Indeed, it's been long since you were here.
Your room is also not visible in the list of rooms anymore.
 
p alright :) yeah the room is frozen lol
 
Steal bitcoin?
 
I have one question: Suppose that (F,f) is a free module on set S, then f is 1-1.
Proof: $f:S\to F$. Suppose f(x)=f(y). I'll show that x=y. Let (S) be the module generated by S, and let in:$S\to (S)$ be the identity. So by definition of free module, there exists a morphism $h:F\to (S)$ such that hof= in. This implies that in(x)=h(f(x))=h(f(y))=in(y), whence x=y. QED.
 
@NotTfue whaaaaaaaaat
 
Can anyone please let me know in case there is anything missing in this? I ask because the book gives a very different proof.
 
8:07 AM
@CalvinKhor you saw it right
 
8:19 AM
I don't believe it, its @NotTfue
@Koro whaddaheckisa free module
 
I have posted my question on MSE here and the definition is included there.
@CalvinKhor
 
I think it would be good to have "I ask because the book gives a very different proof." as the last sentence in your Q
@Koro
 
I wanted to ask this in DaRT room too but it seems that it is only for ring theory.
I removed that part from the post.
To show that f is injective, let x, y in S be such that $x\ne y$; we have to
show that $f (x) \ne f ( y)$. For this purpose, let M be an R-module having more than
one element (e.g. R itself will do) and choose any mapping g : S --> M such that
$g(x) \ne g( y)$. Let $h : F \to M$ be the unique R-morphism such that $h\circ   f = g$. Then
since $h[ f (x)] = g(x) \ne g( y) = h[ f ( y)]$ we must have $f (x) \ne f ( y)$.
Here is the the proof in the book.
I think that my proof is also correct.
 
 
1 hour later…
9:59 AM
@CalvinKhor Hello! Remember me?
 
 
1 hour later…
11:02 AM
Given than (F,f) is a free R module on S. If there is a unique R morphism j: F--> F' s.t. jof=f', then how to show that (F',f') is also a free R-module?
The problem is that: j is not given to be invertible.
 
11:21 AM
Hello!
 
11:37 AM
0
A: Stein complex analysis exercise 4.12

one potato two potatoI looked up this problem again today and I found that it's not a very hard question. I think I'm misunderstanding something when I asked this question. From the post, I concluded that $$|F(z)| = |g(z)e^{\gamma z}| = |g(z)|e^{\operatorname{Re}\gamma z} = ce^{\pi|z|(1-\epsilon_{\theta})},\quad \eps...

Not a very hard question. I don't know why I asked at that time.
 
@Koro not true
you very much want to assume j invertible
 
@Thorgott thanks a lot :-).
I guess that's a typo in the book then.
It is to be noted however that the book does assume invertibility of j in the proof.
 
note that, by definition, there is always a unique R morphism j s.t. jf=f' for any f', so if that claim was true, youd be saying any pair (F',f') is a free module and that's absurd
 
11:57 AM
1000
 
@onepotatotwopotato mine is visited 1105 days, 62 consecutive.
my consecutive streak broke and I don't know why. Else it would be more than 1 years consecutive!!
Aug 20 at 22:18, by Koro
At of now, I visited mse 1009 days, 547 consecutive.
@Thorgott yes :-).
 
12:56 PM
If $f$ is holomorphic on the strip $0<Im(z)<1$ continuous up to the boundary and $f$ is bounded on the boundary $Im(z) = 0,1$ then $f$ is bounded on the entire strip?
No the question statement is stronger
 
1:12 PM
Oh, the question is assuming $f$ is bounded. Ignore the question.
 
1:27 PM
I want to use this result (planetmath.org/everymapintospherewhichisnotontoisnullhomotopic) to prove that $\pi_1(S^n)=0$ for $n\ge2$.
But to do that I need to show that $[0,1]\to S^n$ loops are not surjective. How to argue that?
 
there are surjective loops $[0,1] \to S^n$
one can prove that every surjective loop is homotopic to a non-surjective one, but that is difficult
one could proceed e.g. by the smooth approximation theorem in differential topology
if you want to show that $S^n$ is simply connected for $n \geq 2$, it's easier to use van Kampen
 
okay that's why they used that partition lemma
@LukasHeger hmm but I was trying to use the result given in the link.
@LukasHeger in algebraic topology do we assume loops to be not self intersecting? Also the surjective loops you are saying, are they self-intersecting?
anyway I'll just use Van Kampen theorem.
 
loops are allowed to self-intersect, the maps $S^1 \to X$ need not be injective
the surjective loops are non-injective yeah
 
okay
 
maybe this is just due to my ignorance in topology, but I know of no easy way to prove directly that every map $S^1 \to S^n$ is homotopic to a non-surjective map
maybe @Balarka knows this
this follows from some big theorems, such as smooth approximation, cellular approximation or of course if you just compute $\pi^1$ via van Kampen
 
this is exactly what I said!
I said use smooth approximation lol
 
hmm I was just giving a reference.
 
okay
 
I didn't think that it would be so complicated to prove S^n simply connected.
😮
Path connected follows from pathconnectedness of $R^{n+1}-\{0\}$.
 
@Koro after you prove Van Kampen then it'll be easy.
 
1:49 PM
iirc the existence of surjective continuous maps $S^n \to S^m$ for $n<m$ is a major annoyance when you try to prove the cellular approximation theorem
so this problem is a general technicality that can't always be solved with Van Kampen
 
0
Q: $\sup_{x\in\Bbb R}|F(x+iy)|\leq M_0^{1-y}M_1^y$ on the strip $0<Im(z)<1$ for bounded holomorphic function $F$

one potato two potato$\newcommand{\ep}{\epsilon}$ The following is Problem 4.3 in Stein complex analysis Suppose $F(z)$ is holomorphic and bounded in the strip $S = \{z:0<Im(z)<1\}$ and continuous on its closure. If $|F(z)|\leq 1$ on the boundary lines, then $|F(z)|\leq 1$ throughout the strip. Question. For the mor...

Hmm...
 
@onepotatotwopotato: I think that such F can be extended continuously to a map F on all of C and having absolute values in [0,1].
This is basically by Tietze extension theorem.
 
How does that help?
 
Your problem would be solved if the extension were unique but the uniqueness is not guaranteed by Tietze extension theorem.
Ohh. Please ignore the message. I was thinking about the part before 'Question' in your post as your question.
 
2:08 PM
@onepotatotwopotato can you apply Phragmèn-Lindelöf to G?
 
@LukasHeger Maybe. That's what I'm trying to.
@Koro The bound is only on the boundary lines. Extension does not show the prescribed $F$ is bounded by $1$.
If it's analytic then true by the identity theorem but what maniac would prove that extension is analytic?
 
hello guys!
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4513761/find-distance-between-a-point-and-a-catenary-curve?noredirect=1#comment9478217_4513761
I have formula like this from question. My `q` will be 0.0.
Now i need to find `p` value where `y` difference between x=0 and x=my value will be equal to detination difference. So basically i have two values of `x` and want to find `p` that will give me destination `y` diff between both `x`
 
2:37 PM
Does anyone know what symbol this is?
 
flat
it's a musical symbol
ah not flat
but's it's a musical symbol
In music theory, a natural (♮) is an accidental which cancels previous accidentals and represents the unaltered pitch of a note. A note is natural when it is neither flat (♭) nor sharp (♯) (nor double-flat nor double-sharp ) (nor triple-flat nor triple-sharp). Natural notes are the notes A, B, C, D, E, F, and G represented by the white keys on the keyboard of a piano or organ. On a modern concert harp, the middle position of the seven pedals that alter the tuning of the strings gives the natural pitch for each string. The scale of C major is sometimes regarded as the central, natural or basic...
 
2:51 PM
A tangent on the graph of $f(x) = 4 - 0.25x^2$ goes through the point $P(0|5)$.
At what point does this tangent touch $f$?
Can we solve this using $t(x) = mx + k$ or do we need $t(x) = f'(a) * (x - a) + f(a)$?
Using $t(x) = f'(a) * (x - a) + f(a)$, we can plug in $x = 0$ and calculate $a$ which will be the point's x-coordinate
 
I have formula: $a\cosh\left(\dfrac{x-p}{a}\right)$
My example data will be equal a = 1138 and two points P1(0, 1138) and P2(77.10, 1145.05).
I need to fit my curve to this two points, so I need to convert this formula to formula that I could minimize using Newton'` method.
Can someone help me in creating function to minimize?
basically it don't need to fit to the points, but i need to have "part" of the curve, where on distance 77.10 i will change y value by 7.05
 
3:29 PM
@LukasHeger thanks :)
 
3:44 PM
@CalvinKhor Shark doesn't know that cow exists
The best thing about North korea is it's low crime rate. Nothing impressive about the math olympaid.
And it's the amount of light pollution is so low that it's the best place to observe the cosmos.
 
@TedShifrin yes, that's the correct definition of $|x|$. However, it is also true that $\sqrt{x^2}=|x|$ and my question was; can that equality be proven? Anyway, I already found an answer on the main site. $\sqrt{x^2}=|x|$ holds since this makes the square root a function :)
 
4:04 PM
There in LaTeX
 
4:21 PM
@LukasHeger I mean, that's what the van Kampen argument does and I'd say that qualifies as direct
it's the easier half of SvK, to boot
 
fair enough
but I meant directly from the definitions
Van Kampen becomes unavailable when you ask about why $\pi_n(S^m)=0$ for $n<m$
I did tell PNDas that one should just use Van Kampen, so I do agree with you
Van Kampen seems by far the easiest for $n=1$ though
 
there's a M-V/SvK-esque principle you can use to argue $\pi_n(S^m)=0$ for $n<m$
namely, if $X$ is covered by the interiors of two subspaces $X_1$ and $X_2$, $X_1$ and $X_2$ are $n$-connected and $X_1\cap X_2$ is $n-1$-connected, then $X$ is $n$-connected
 
oh okay
 
the argument is essentially from definition
but it involves some nasty subdivision business
and I do want to use the term "cofibration" when proving it
 
in my mind I always use cellular approximation for $\pi_n(S^m)$ for $n <m$
 
4:29 PM
can you prove cellular approximation without already proving this fact, tho?
 
not quite sure
 
4:43 PM
@Thorgott I should add that this is proven in "essentially the same way" as the van Kampen $n=1$ case, though a couple of more complicated techniques are invisible in the $n=1$ case cause there's an explicit alternative way to do it there
 
Hi how to calculate the fundamental group of three circles where the middle circle touches left and right circles (like two infinity symbol joined and middle two become one).
 
SvK twice
really not substiantially different from $S^1 \vee S^1 \vee S^1$
 
but there three circles join at a common point right?
 
the two spaces are homotopy equivalent
 
that's correct
 
4:52 PM
how to see that?
 
If you know the fundamental group of $S^1 \vee S^1$ via Seifert-van Kampen once, you can wedge this at a different point from original wedge point with $S^1$, this describes the space you have
and then just van Kampen again
 
Yes that's what I was trying to do
 
even if you wedge at different points, it's still a wedge of three copies of $S^1$
@PNDas then where are you stuck?
finding $U$ and $V$?
 
$X_1 = S^1\vee S^1$,$X_2 = S^1\vee S^1$, $X_1\cap X_2 = S^1$ right?
 
you need open sets!
and no that's too complicated
you want $X_1 = S^1 \vee S^1 + \varepsilon$ and $X_2=S^1 + \varepsilon$
 
4:58 PM
in general, if $X$ is path-connected, then there is only one $X\vee S^1$ up to homotopy equivalence, i.e. the resulting spaces of wedging at different point are always homotopy-equivalent. but this is stronger than what you need, anyway.
 
then $X_1 \cap X_2$ is contractible
 
makes the amalgamated product easier
 
Let me just write what I did: $\pi_1(X_1,x_0) = \mathbb Z\ast \mathbb Z, $, $\pi_1(X_2,x_0) = \mathbb Z\ast\mathbb Z$, $\pi_1(X_1\cap X_2,x_0) = \mathbb Z$
 
what you did doesn't work because SvK needs open sets
you cannot ignore this
and even if you add the epsilons to make it open, it's far easier to work with a contractible intersection
I mean what you did works fine
 
5:01 PM
Like we do for $S^1\vee S^1$, I am deleting a point from left circle and right circle. Doesn't it make that open?
 
yes that makes it open
so you wrote your sets only up to homotopy equivalence
I didn't know that
 
Yes
 
because I didn't know where you are stuck
then you get $\langle a,b,c,d \mid bc^{-1} \rangle= \langle a,b,c\rangle = \Bbb Z * \Bbb Z * \Bbb Z$
 
After finding the fundamental groups, what to do now? In the examples I have tried the intersection was trivial
 
I mean, I already told you how to make the intersection trivial in this example
 
5:04 PM
سلام!
 
but you can compute the amalgmated product in terms of generators and relations
that's the easiest
@someoneinexistence sorry for now anwering your greeting, I wasn't sure if you exist
 
I don't know how to do that. Any reference example
 
ظهو هبسعرذع مع
 
?
 
you observe me
 
5:05 PM
well, we can take this example
 
my arabic keyboard was on
sorry
 
meine deutsche Tastatur ist auch an
 
@LukasHeger what does epsilon mean here?
 
ach, deutsch?
 
just add a little bit to make it open
but if you want to work with a non-trivial amalgmation, we can take your decomposition
 
5:06 PM
what are we doing right now?
 
@PNDas do you know what generators and relations for a group are?
 
Yes
@LukasHeger Actually I made that example to understand the non trivial case.
 
ah I see
I didn't get what you wanted to do
okay, so take this example, let's call the three circles $C_1$ and $C_2$ and $C_3$. We have that $X_1=C_1 \vee C_2$ and $X_2=C_2 \vee C_3$. We need to work geometrically with explicit choices of generators for our groups here. so $a$ means $C^1$ say counter-clockwise, $b$ means $C_2$ counter-clockwise so that we have $\pi_1(C_1 \vee C_2)= \langle a,b\mid \rangle$
similarly, let $c$ be $C_2$ counter-clockwise, but as an element of $\pi_1(X_2)$ and $d$ be $C_3$ counter-clockwise, so that we have $\pi_1(C_2 \vee C_3) = \langle c,d |\rangle$
 
@LukasHeger why are you typing like that? Is that just mathjax that isn't showing up on my computer?
 
and we have $e$ for again $C_2$ counter-clockwise, but this time as an element of $X_1 \cap X_2$, so $\pi_1(X_1 \cap X_2) = \langle e | \rangle$
@someoneinexistence everyone here just renders mathjax in their head
 
5:12 PM
oh god
I'm scared
 
no, jk
 
phew
I thought you all were legendary
 
you can find at the top right a link which instructs you to enable mathjax in chat
 
like all of you were arceuses- why did I not notice that
 
@LukasHeger just to be clear what is your base point?
 
5:13 PM
uhm
I mean here's it's really irrelevant
note that we have an inclusion map $X_1 \cap X_2 \to X_1$, this induces a map on $\pi_1$s that sends $e$ to $b$
likewise, there's an inclusion map $X_1 \cap X_2 \to X_2$ that sends $e \to c$
 
then b and c are identified?
 
exactly
that's what the amalgmation does here
in general for an algmated product of groups $G \star_H K$, you need five things: three groups $G,H,K$ and two homomorphisms $H \to G, H\to K$. Once you have all these assembeled, there's an explicit formula in terms of generators and relations to compute the amalgmated product
 
Okay thanks
 
I think this example is not very instructive
 
let me do more examples to understand this.
 
5:17 PM
try computing $\pi_1$ of a torus in a weird view
or $\pi_1$ of a Klein bottle
but the intuition for amalgmated products is like pushouts for spaces
you glue $G$ and $K$ together along $H$ somehow
well at least, you take the free product and then identify elements according to the homomorphisms $H \to G$ and $H \to K$
 
hi all
 
hey @Balarka!
I'm trying to give @PNDas examples for van Kampen computations where the amalgmation is nontrivial
probably you as our resident topologist have better ones
 
Try a cylinder S^1 x [0, 1] attached to a circle on one end by z^2 and on another end to another circle by z^3
 
https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/62440508#62440508
if you only had $t(x) = mx + k$, then you wouldnt make much progress here, right?
$t(x) = mx + k$ and it passes through (0|5), so
$t(0) = 5$, so $k = 5$
So: $t(x) = mx + 5$
$m = f'(a)$, so $m = -0.5a$ => $t(x) = -0.5ax + 5$
You would want to find a which isn't really possible here, is it?
 
Or try two copies of RP^2 glued along a common RP^1
 
5:24 PM
that's a picture of a torus (think of the edges identified accordingly). The blue set has hole in the middle, compute $\pi_1$ of a torus using this decomposition
that's an example where the amalgmation isn't trivial, but one of the factors is
very similar to the Klein bottle computation
 
I like the two Mobius strips decomposition of Klein bottle as well
 
oh yeah that's a good one, too
it's important to be able to "see" the generators and relations in your $\pi_1$ and not just think of them as abstract groups
 
shocking statements, coming from you
 
:P
I learnt topology from Banagl
he's very visual
 
oh hes great
I spent a lot of time reading his stratified spaces text
 
5:30 PM
ah I see
one of my professors made a great analogy between homological algebra and multivariable calculus today
 
In my notes $S^2$ is presented with a two sided polygon the sides are identified and the two points are identified
how to see this?
similarly for $\mathbb RP^2$ but sides have reverse diection
 
he said something along the lines of "deriving a functor is not unlike deriving a function. If you take total derivatives, then the derivative of the composition is simply the composition of derivatives (so he means using derived categories), but if you work with the Jacobian matrix of partial derivatives, you need to do some complicated matrix multiplication. That's the Grothendieck spectral sequence in homological algebra"
 
yeah its a lot like taking derivatives
 
So total derivatives is $D(F \circ G)= D(F) \circ D(G)$ and taking the matrix product of Jacobians is $E_2^{p,q}=({\rm R}^pG\circ{\rm R}^q F)(A) \Longrightarrow {\rm R}^{p+q} (G\circ F)(A)$
 
yeah, basically the same thing..
 
5:42 PM
but i think the real relationship lies in the nonabelian setting of calculus of functors
 
oh yeah the Goodwillie stuff
 
its a fantastic idea
has a lot of geometric applications too
 
someone should write a book titled "A Course in Calculus" on calculus of functors
Serre basically pulled off the same joke with "A Course in Arithmetic"
 
is serre still alive?
haha, same thought
 
we need a whole sequence of math books with troll titles. We also already have Weil's classic "Basic Number Theory"
so for arithmetic, I suggest Serre, for algebra, I suggest Lang, for calculus Goodwillie and for basic number theory Weil
3
of course everyone reading a book called "Basic Number Theory" knows a what a Haar measure is
 
5:51 PM
its more fun to assume the readers know something they dont than to assume they dont know something they do
 
6:05 PM
but the latter allows one to be comically pedantic
 
If A and B have the same cardinality, then free R-modules on A and B are isomorphic.
But I'm not sure how to prove that the free R-modules R^n and R^m are isomorphic iff m=n. Here R is commutative.
 
do you know this if $R$ is a field?
 
no R is a commutative ring.
 
read again
 
no, R is not a field in this exercise.
 
6:21 PM
that's not what I'm asking
 
oh sorry.
 
I'm asking if you can answer the question when $R$ is a field
 
No I don't know this even if R is a field.
Ah wait.
No I do.
 
0
Q: Principal Bundle Definition Question Action restriction

MathematicallyInterestedLet $G$ be a topological group and $\pi: P\rightarrow M$ a fiber bundle with fiber $G$ (working in continuous category). We say that $\pi$ is a principal G-bundle if (1) $G$ acts freely on the right of $P$. (2) For each $p\in M$, there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ and a fiber preserving home...

 
In that case, we have a vector space!!
 
6:22 PM
exactly
 
Is the following correct?- $e_i$'s, i from 1 to n generate R^n. Suppose f is an isomorphism between them (from R^n to R^m) . We want to show n=m. f(e_i)'s are all distinct and linearly independent.
 
so I suggest you think about trying to reduce this case to the one where it is a field, perhaps by constructing some field from $R$
 
Suppose that n>m. $E_i$'s i from 1 to m form a basis of R^m. Not sure how to get a contradiction from here.
 
@LukasHeger this is gold, lol
 
R is not an integral domain so I am not sure how to get a field using R.
If it were then I could inject it inside its field of fractions.
 
6:33 PM
all of this is true
 
6:44 PM
0
Q: $R^m\simeq R^n$ iff $m=n$, where $R$ is a commutative ring and $R^m, R^n$ represent free $R-$modules.

KoroIf $m=n$, then it is true that $R^m\simeq R^n$. Now for the other direction, let $f:R^m\to R^n$ be an isomorphism. The standard basis $e_i$'s, $i=1$ to $m$ generates $R^m$ and therefore $f(e_i)$'s also generate $R^n$. But I'm not sure how to show from here that $m=n$. If $R$ is a field, then $R^m...

 
this will most certainly be flagged as a duplicate
without looking it up, I'm beyond certain this has been answered multiple times already
 
Uh. Could anyone help me with the proof that linearly ordered spaces are hereditarily normal?
I'm starting with some linearly ordered space $X$ and taking subspace $A\subseteq X$ then convex components of $A = \bigcup_\alpha C_\alpha$ I see that $C_\alpha$ are normal
 
12
Q: $R^n \cong R^m$ iff $n=m$

TheoremHow can i show that two $R$-modules of finite rank are isomorphic if and only if they have the same rank, i.e., $R^n \cong R^m$ iff $n=m$.

 
So... do I take $A$ to be open then each $C_\alpha$ will be open?
and it's known that for hereditarily normal it suffices.
okay I just figured it out
but I've never seen the proof that it's enough for all open subspaces to be normal so I'm going to do that first
 
yeah, hereditarily normal is equivalent to all open subspaces being normal
 
6:53 PM
I was stuck at this proof, all the ones available online are pretty complicated to me. But this one I'm going for isn't that bad
 
I think it's just some trick, let me think
 
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