i do not understand why this seemingly trivial inequality holds:
if $x \geq y \forall x \Leftrightarrow inf(X) \geq y $
i guess we can write $ x - inf(X) \geq \epsilon , \epsilon > 0 $ and in the limit of $ \epsilon -> 0 $ the inequality $ y \geq x- \epsilon \leq inf(X)) $ would result in a contradiction but i mean we never actually reach zero we just get arbitrarily close so why does y still have to be smaller then the infimum