« first day (3594 days earlier)      last day (1428 days later) » 
00:00 - 21:0021:00 - 00:00

12:25 AM
Hi I have a simple question. In inner product we have a first definition that says, for u,v non-zero vector in $R^2$ or $R^3$, then the dot product is defined as: $u . v = |u||v| cos \theta$. Now, the second definition says that for u,v non-zero vectors in $R^n$, then $ u . v = u_1v_1$.
My question is: Is the first definition restricted to only $R^2$ or $R^3$? why don't we have like the first definition over $R^n$
 
your second definition is most certainly off
also tell me what $\theta$ is
 
The angle between two vectors.
@user777
 
12:43 AM
@Thorgott sorry, it should be as following: for u,v non-zero vectors in $R^n$, then $ u . v = u_1v_1 + u_2v_2 + .... + u_nv_n$.
 
right
the answer to your question will be that the same thing still works in arbitrary dimensions, but you have to provide a definition of the angle between two vectors in that general setting and that's slightly more annoying to do than this definition, which is more practical
 
@JackOhara hey :D
 
1:18 AM
another way to look at it is that, taken together, the two definitions together provide a perfectly good definition of "angle between two vectors"
i.e., you define the angle between two unit n-vectors as "the inverse cosine of their dot product"
 
 
2 hours later…
3:48 AM
@Semiclassical once you prove Cauchy-Schwarz.
 
Is there an example of a field other than the surreal numbers that contains the ordinals under Hessenberg arithmetic as a subsemiring?
 
 
2 hours later…
5:52 AM
morning
everybody
 
6:22 AM
@Semiclassical I asked a question and I don’t know how the answer that I received is in relation with my question, can you please have a look:
continued fractions should be practiced by hand; the calculations are all quite easy, but writing them out with letters and subscripts is a mess. I put an example as answer, where the two original numbers really are coprime. If I did the continued fraction for $\frac{64}{48},$ the final convergent comes out in lowest terms, here $\frac{4}{3}$ — Will Jagy 9 hours ago
 
 
2 hours later…
8:11 AM
today my small cousin asked me about the value $\pi$ ,he asked me about the unqueness in the value of $\pi$ that why we have use the value 3.14..... for the circumference and area?and wether we are unaware of the circumference of the circle without the discovery of $\pi$ i do not have the answer for this .
i feel $\pi$ is unique due to its irrationality that it is longest irrational number.
 
What does "longest" irrational number mean to you?
 
does this irrationality cause the uniqueness or is there are some more formulas where the multiply or addition of $\pi$ changes the whole mathematics?
@AFURIOUSMIND something whose end we can see
unlike the other numbers who ends at infinity
3.1459265359
as far i know it is the longest irrational number
 
does infinity end?
np
The three dots in 3.14... mean "and so on" without end.
Just like 1/3 = 0.333...
or 1/9 = 0.111...
infinitely many 1s^
or 3s
 
8:26 AM
@robjohn good morning sir
 
with the number pi there are infinitely many non-repeating digits: 3.14...
with respect to your small cousin it usually recommended to start with the irrationality of the square root of 2
here @Yuvraj
 
8:57 AM
longest irrational number?
 
 
1 hour later…
10:25 AM
@Yuvraj The value of the circumference of a unit circle is $2\pi$; you can tell your cousin to take that as definition. I don't understand what "uniqueness" means - we defined it to be something unique, namely, length of a unit semicircle.
"Longest irrational number" sounds like hot garbage to me.
There is something nice to be asked: What is the distribution of occurrence of digits in the decimal expansion of $\pi$? It is believed that it's a uniform distribution, with each digit appearing with probability $1/10$, but this has not been proven.
Such numbers are called base $10$ normal numbers, and it is known that almost every real number is normal.
(In the sense that if you pick a real number "randomly", it will be normal with probability 1)
 
10:43 AM
what's your probability distribution on R
anything absolutely continuous wrt Lebesgue measure works, I guess
 
yes
 
how's the proof that almost all reals are normal
I've never looked at it
 
I dunno
 
1
Q: What's wrong with the following proof that almost all real numbers are normal?

Sebastian OberhoffSay $U \sim \text{U}[0,1]$. Then $\mathbb{P}[\,U\text{ is normal}\,] = 1$. This is evident from the fact that a Bernoulli process can be used to sample the decimal digits of $U$, leading to a normal number with probability 1. But the probability measure for a uniform random variable is just the L...

 
11:04 AM
yeah i was thinking it has to be something obvious because you just take $X_0, X_1, \cdots \sim \text{Ber}(1/2)$ and set $U = (0.X_0X_1X_2\cdots)_2$ to simulate a uniform distribution
wasn't sure so didnt say it
 
11:57 AM
@BalarkaSen i mean, Why is this number equal to 3.14159....? Why is it not some other irrational number?
 
cause we can calculate it
and that's what the calculations give
 
i find it hard to explain
and i did some research and after hours of search i got
Archimedes did: using polygons inside and outside the circle!
 
I mean, it's just a number
 
@Thorgott sorry sir ,it has some proof
 
now if you were to ask why the ratio of the circumference to the diameter turns out to be a constant that's ubiquitous in many other seemingly unrelated parts of mathematics, that is a reasonable question with potentially deep answers
but the reason why that number is equal to 3.14159265358979323... is simply cause that's what it turns out to be
polygonal approximations are simply a way to approximate pi by rational numbers
 
12:03 PM
i got one more question
Another question to ask is that if $\pi_1r^2$ is the area of the circle and $\pi_2r$ is the circumference why $\pi_1=\pi_2$? What geometries or metrics will result in 1≠2 ?
something which more complex
 
no, what you get is $\pi_1=\pi_2/2$ in that setup
if $r$ is the radius of a circle, its area is $\pi r^2$ and its circumference is $2\pi r$
 
@Yuvraj You can compute it using calculus
 
here @Yuvraj is how you calculate the digits
 
@skullpatrol hi
 
hi pal
Satisfied? @Yuvraj
 
12:22 PM
 
@BalarkaSen do you have any?
 
Do I have what
 
Hi pals anyone can give a hint?
 
@BalarkaSen any
 
lol
 
12:24 PM
🤷
 
Y'all Lives Matter
 
skull it's much more meaningful to show up on the street to demonstrations than to comment on them online given the opportunity. if it's something you care about then you gotta show up
 
I'm not the one posting black stereotypes in a chatroom, pal.
 
are you nuts? it's a joke on a line in the David Chappelle show, not a black stereotype
 
12:40 PM
@Yuvraj hey there
 
Have you ever heard the American southern accent?
 
@MikeMiller hats? hoodies? hints?
 
Yeah what about it?
 
Define: y'all
 
i can't make sense of what you are saying
seems like nonsense to me
 
12:44 PM
Y'all (/jɔːl/ yawl[2]) is a contraction of you and all (sometimes combined as you-all).
 
i would recommend avoiding taking every cheap opportunity to post black lives matter comments on the chat and instead showing up at the protests, like mike is doing at the moment. it only hurts the movement's reputation
 
Y'all ( yawl) is a contraction of you and all (sometimes combined as you-all). It is usually used as a plural second-person pronoun, but the usage of y'all as an exclusively plural pronoun is a perennial subject of discussion. Y'all is the main second-person plural pronoun in Southern American English, with which it is best associated, though it also appears in other English varieties, including African-American English and South African Indian English. == Etymology == Y'all arose as a contraction of you-all. The term first appeared in the Southern United States in the early nineteenth century...
 
@BalarkaSen Normal is stronger right? You want $n$ digits strings to have probability $10^{-n}$ for all $n$
 
 
1 hour later…
2:21 PM
if $\pi_1\colon E_1\rightarrow B,\pi_2\colon E_2\rightarrow B$ are two vector bundles and $\Delta\colon B\rightarrow B\times B$ the diagonal map, then $\Delta^{\ast}(E_1\times E_2)=E_1\oplus E_2$, right?
 
Flags were raised. Are room owners and/or moderators available?
 
@Mast Chat flags are shown to all users with more than 10k rep network-wide
 
@M.A.R. I know, that's what brought me here and hence the comment.
 
@Thorgott Yes, that's correct
 
If RO/mods are available we can leave again, otherwise I'll keep an eye out for the next hour or so.
 
2:27 PM
Oh you meant flags were raised, not that you raised them
 
:-)
 
@Mast Meh, it's the math chat. Can't live a day without having flags here
I'm taking a nap
 
lol
Goodnight @M.A.R.
 
nice, that's a pretty economic of obtaining the direct sum then
 
Thorgott is already talking like an algebraic geometer
 
2:34 PM
this isn't even my final form
 
2:59 PM
@MikeMiller Mike you posted something which can be called objectionable and then you and @BalarkaSen together exercised majority power over @skullpatrol. It's quite weird that you got 4 stars in all, and Balaraka called skull as "nuts" and talked in a way that he shouldn't
 
??? There is nothing objectionable and Mike's comment and what I told skull.
 
Come on Balarka, it may be because you're not in America. We can make a very big fuss about what Mike posted here
I request you to please delete it as you're one of the room owner.
And as far as going on streets sic concerned,WE DO GO THERE
 
I am not a room owner. I don't see what fuss is there to make.
If you think something is objectionable make a coherent argument on why it is so
But better yet, stick to math and don't talk about politics here at all. Make another room for this
 
If I am given an orientable manifold $M$, and a local orientation at $x$ $\mu_x \in H_n(M, M-x)$. I should be able to find a ball $B$ (in chart around $x$) and a generator $\mu_B$ for $H_n(M, M-B)$ such that the map induced by inclusion $H_n(M, M-B) \to H_n(M, M-x)$ takes $\mu_B$ to $\mu_x$, right?
I mean this is what orientability means.
 
Okay. Just imagine someone is having his knees on someone's neck, and the man is crying "I cannot breathe, leave me, leave" but the man with knees on says "You're tough guy ha?"
 
3:05 PM
You don't need orientability for this, @feynhat. Just take a chart ball around $x$
 
And eventually the man who couldn't breathe dies.
Can you imagine it pal?
 
We are all aware of the death of George Floyd and don't support police brutality. How does that have any relevance here?
This is what I mean when I say these conversations read to me as nonsense. It's just not coherent.
 
Can't you take any chart ball and flip it around if you get the wrong generator?
 
Why to post something with a black man saying something? (He posted in a matter where it was not needed)
 
Huh? It's a crime to post a picture of a black man saying something?
That seems like racism to me!
Absolutely ridiculous statement
 
3:08 PM
Well okay
IF thats the case then see what skull said
3 hours ago, by skullpatrol
Y'all Lives Matter
and how Mike replied :
3 hours ago, by Mike Miller
skull it's much more meaningful to show up on the street to demonstrations than to comment on them online given the opportunity. if it's something you care about then you gotta show up
 
He's right, the internet anti-racism discussions lead nowhere. You should be out on the streets, not on the internet, when protesting these things.
 
Well Mike posted first
 
Lest these protests get undervalued
 
What?
 
My question is if I am given a generator, ofr $H_n(M, M-x)$ (say a simplex with $x$ in its interior). Is there some way to come up with a a generator for $H_n(M, M-B)$. Can I stretch this simplex so that its boundary lies in $M-B$?
 
3:11 PM
And don't call anyone "nuts" it is considered rude and as a misbehavior.
 
@feynhat Take $B$ to be a chart ball containing $x$. Then the inclusion induced map $H_n(M, M - B) \to H_n(M, M - x)$ is an isomorphism by excision. Just look at preimage of the generator you chose in $H_n(M, M - x)$.
 
I want to know what this pre-image looks like.
Can I represent it by a simplex?
 
Yeah you just stretch the simplex. Flow outward by a radial vector field centered at $x$
Then you have stretched the simplex so that $B$ is contained in it's interior
 
oh man
 
@Knight It's not rude, but it is meant to show contempt. I really do believe it's preposterous to think that meme had anything to do with black stereotype.
 
3:17 PM
@Knight You live in Chicago, right? There is a march scheduled at union park at 11; I encourage you to attend if you can make it there
 
@MikeMiller Will you meet me up there?
Coz I have to make plans for tomorrow if I have to go there, it’s far away
 
Stay safe; Lori hired 500 private military contractors for the weekend
 
Okay, I’ll send you in few minutes on your email
 
👍 I'm out for now
 
3:41 PM
Hi @MikeMiller - your message got flagged for containing personal information. To preserve your privacy, mods have removed the message from the chat log, but please be aware that this chat is publicly visible and searchable, and be careful sharing things like emails here.
 
3:55 PM
can the product of non-trivial vector bundles be trivial?
answer is no when they're over the same base
 
product? you mean whitney sum?
then yes, take Mobius strip over circle
 
no, I mean product
 
square of Mobius strip is trivial rank 2
What do you mean by product of vector bundles?
 
if $\pi_1\colon E_1\rightarrow X_1,\pi_2\colon E_2\rightarrow X_2$ are vector budnles, the product is $\pi_1\times\pi_2\colon E_1\times E_2\rightarrow X_1\times X_2$
 
But take $X_1 = X_2 = S^5$, $E_1 = E_2 = TS^5$? $E_1 \times E_2$ is then $TS^5 \times TS^5 = T(S^5 \times S^5)$ which is trivial because it's parallelizable
Why is the answer no when they're over the same base?
 
4:05 PM
why is $S^5\times S^5$ parallelizable
 
Product of any number of spheres where one of them is odd dimensional is parallelizable. The point is $TS^{2k+1}$ has a rank 1 trivial subbundle, so you can manipulate around with that, using $T(M \times N) \cong \pi_M^* TM \oplus \pi_N^* TN$, to get it to be trivial, using the fact that $TS^n$ is 1-stably trivial (direct sum-ing with a trivial bundle makes it trivial of rank n+1)
So I am confused. How did you prove the answer is no over the same base?
 
urgh, I made a mistaken then, it seems
that's what I get for only sketching
 
4:21 PM
so, more elementary measure stuff. was trying to prove that countable additivity (of pairwise disjoint sequences of sets) implies countable subadditivity (of a generic set sequence)
my immediate thought was to show that worked in the case of two sets, then use induction to prove in the case of finitely many sets
and then take the limit to get countably many
now, for finite sequences, i'm pretty confident that's enough
but i'm less confident re: countably many
 
how do you prove it in the case of two sets?
 
$A\cup B = A\cup (B\setminus A)$
 
Using the same trick you would get P(cup A_i) = sum P(A_i \ cup_{j \neq i} A_j) \leq sum P(A_i) by using a termwise inequality (monotonicity of P)
 
right
 
well my expression isn't exactly correct but you get my point
 
4:30 PM
yeah
so you get $P(\cup_{i=1}^n A_i)\leq \sum_{i=1}^n P(A_i)$
i.e. finite subadditivity
the question, i think, is whether it's legit to take $n\to\infty$ at that point to get countable subadditivity. what makes me hesitant is that "finite additivity" does not imply "countable additivity"
see for instance en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
 
well, to reasonably take a limit on the LHS, you need some sort of continuity of the measure
there are such types of continuity, called continuity from above and continuity from below
for finitely additive maps, countable additivity, countable subadditivity and continuity from below are equivalent
continuity from below is that if a sequence of sets $A_n$ is increasing, then $\lim P(A_n)=P(\bigcup A_n)$
 
increasing as in $n<m\implies A_n\subset A_m$?
 
right
 
(should probably be $\subseteq$, since it can be a proper subset. ugh, notation)
 
so if you can show continuity from below, you can take the limit in your inequality to get the countable case
conversely, you can extend the trick you already have to a countable sequence of sets and directly obtain subaddivity and then derive continuity from below
then you will have in fact established their equivalence for finitely additive maps
 
4:41 PM
the text i'm using has us prove that $A\subseteq B\implies P(B)=P(B\setminus A)+P(A)\geq P(A)$ prior to the "countable additivity" part
and the codomain of $P$ in this case is $[0,1]$
so if you've got an increasing sequence of $A_n$, you also have an increasing sequence of $P(A_n)$ which is bounded above by $1$
is that enough to establish that $\lim_{n\to\infty} P(A_n)$ exists?
 
sure, a bounded, monotonically increasing sequence converges to its supremum
 
huzzah, monotone convergence
one proof attempt I'd made went like this. since $P$ is subadditive, we have $$P(\cup_{k=1}^\infty A_k)=P(A_1\cup[\cup_{k=2}^\infty A_k])\leq P(A_1)+P(\cup_{k=2}^\infty A_k)$$
and more generally $P(\cup_{k=1}^\infty A_k)\leq \sum_{k=1}^n P(A_n)+P(\cup_{k=n+1}^\infty A_k)$
with the task seeming to be: does $P(\cup_{k=n+1}^\infty A_k)\to 0$ as $n\to\infty$
in that case, though, we're taking fewer and fewer sets, and therefore the sequence of sets is decreasing rather than increasing
so now would this be an argument via continuity from above?
my main suspicion being that, if this route worked, then it should work too for the case of $=$ rather than just $\leq $
 
5:07 PM
Oh you're doing something else, nevermind
Wasnt following the discussion
I don't see why this is turning out to be a long discussion though. Let $X_n = \cup_{k = 1}^n A_k$. Then $\{X_n\}$ is an increasing sequence of sets whose union is $\cup_{k = 1}^\infty A_k$.
 
the argument does and would work
continuity from above is slightly less well-behaved than continuity from below
you need a decreasing sequence of sets whose first element has finite measure
 
Write $Y_n = X_n \setminus X_{n-1}$. Now $\{Y_n\}$ is a disjoint sequence of sets whose union is all of $\cup_{k = 1}^\infty A_k$ once again
 
of course, for probability measures that's always a given
in the general case, you can have the sequence $[n,\infty)$, which decreases to the empty set, but each element has infinite measure
of course, this reasoning works for = rather than just <= too
but you're not proving anything new in that case
 
cause continuity from above follows from countable additivity, but not necessarily from finite additivity
in fact, continuity from above will also be equivalent to countable additivity, at least for probability measures
I'm not sure whether that holds for general measures tbh, I'd assume it fails
 
5:14 PM
so: both continuity from above and below work here, but the former has to be made more carefully?
 
nah, both work just fine here (and so does Balarka's argument)
 
They are both true for probability measures
 
continuity from above behaves worse only in more general settings
 
hmm
well, by "has to be made more carefully" I include having to invoke properties specific to probability measures
 
Yeah you need that the whole space has finite measure
 
5:17 PM
@Balarka do you know if continuity from above for a content implies countable additivity in general
 
Otherwise starting to decrease from an infinite measure set will be complicated
 
but I guess the argument from below does invoke that $P$ is bounded above by 1
 
In the general setting you need to assume that there is a set with finite measure in your sequence
 
so either way you do use the fact that $P$ assigns finite measure
 
@Thorgott Not off the top of my head, nope.
 
5:19 PM
What is a content? @Thorgott
 
finitely additive map on a $\sigma$-ring
and such that empty set has $0$ content
codomain $[0,\infty]$
 
that was probably wrong
math.stackexchange.com/questions/448605/… I don't know about $\sigma$-rings, but it seems true for finitely additive measures
 
that's continuity from below
this equivalence holds in full generality too via the same proof
 
5:55 PM
@BalarkaSen Does it work if I work in charts and stretch the simplex so that it contains the ball? Lets say, I have a simplex containing x in its interior (suppose this simplex lies inside a chart around p). Suppose B is the chart ball on which the local consistency holds. Look at the image of our simplex in the chart at stretch it so that it contains the image of B. Then, bring it back to the manifold.
 
6:21 PM
No way he slept this early.
 
yeah, I don't believe that lol
 
6:35 PM
Hi all.
 
6:53 PM
@feynhat Yeah for sure, that's a simpler way to say flowing radially outward by some field centered at x
lol
sorry for writing "multiplication by c" in a complicated way
 
Hi Balarka.
 
Hey
 
What's up?
 
Nothing really
 
Things been going okay?
Been keeping busy, I hope.
 
6:55 PM
more or less
wbu
 
Learned anything interesting lately?
I have been busy, but not with what I want to be busy with. :P
Just marking stuff.
 
yeah a bunch
gotcha
 
Any bite-sized morsel you can share?
 
Hi Anakhro
 
Hey Alessandro! Perhaps you have some mathematical morsel to share.
 
7:06 PM
morsel theory
 
Depends on how interested you are in dimension theory and/or descriptive set theory lol
 
I am open to absolutely anything.
I am not picky when it comes to mathematics.
 
I'm trying to figure out why $\mathrm{Homeo}(X)$ is $G_\delta$ in $C(X,X)$ now for compact metrizable $X$ now
 
@anakhro Let $f : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ be a smooth function such that $f(x) = f(-x)$. Prove there is a smooth function $g : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ such that $f(x) = g(x^2)$
 
Pig
hi all
 
7:10 PM
ok, who wnats to hear about colax-slice 2-categories
 
Hi @Pig
 
Pig
just show continuity of derivatives at 0 of the natural candidate @BalarkaSen?
what's colax slice lol
 
yeah
well, and you have to extend beyond 0
 
Pig
but there shouldn't be any issue at all outside of 0 for the natural candidate
at 0 you may need to worry about left/right
 
what is the natural candidate
yeah left/right is what i mean
 
7:12 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti after doing that, was there something you wanted to use it for in particular?
 
Pig
oh hm i was thinking about $g(x) = f(sgn(x) \sqrt{|x|})$ or something
maybe there is some subtlety here
 
I just want to say that Homeo(X) is a Polish group
 
Hello all. I haven't been here in months. Just glad my masters degree is finally done with everything that's happening.
 
it's like the slice 2-category, but you don't require the natural trafos that constitute your 1-morphisms to be invertible and it's lax/colax depending on the direction in which it goes
 
Pig
i don't even know what a slice 2-category is lol
 
7:15 PM
like a slice-category, but the defining triangle for 1-morphisms only commutes up to a 2-morphism
 
@AlessandroCodenotti ah explains the descriptive set theory premise.
 
Pig
i have to take it back, i don't know what a slice category and what a 2-category is =_=
let me take a look lol
alternatively, any typical example i can keep in mind?
 
@Pig it seems doubtful that that will in fact work at 0
one of them will
but I could be wrong
 
@anakhro Fair enough
Do you know what the Lebesgue covering dimension is? @Anakhro
 
Yup!
 
7:18 PM
Nice
 
take a category $\mathbf{C}$ and consider the new category $\mathbf{C}^{\prime}$ whose objects are tuples $(X_i)_{i\in I}$ where each $X_i$ is an object in $\mathbf{C}$ and $I$ is some set and the morphisms from $(X_i)_{i\in I}$ to $(Y_j)_{j\in J}$ consist of a function $f\colon I\rightarrow J$ and a morphism $X_i\rightarrow Y_{f(i)}$ in $\mathbf{C}$ for each $i\in I$
 
Is this related, @AlessandroCodenotti?
 
@Thorgott so the functor category
 
this is a certain subcategory of a certain colax-slice 2-category
no, it's not
 
Recently I learned that every space separable metric space $X$ with $\dim X\leq n$ embeds into $\Bbb R^{2n+1}$ (in fact it embeds into $N^{2n+1}_n$, the Nöbeling subspace of $\Bbb R^{2n+1}$ of points with at most $n$ rational coordinates)
 
7:20 PM
it's almost (a subcategory of) the slice category $\mathbf{Cat}/\mathbf{C}$ except the the triangles only commute up to a natural transformation
 
@anakhro No, it's just a cool fact that I learned recently
Well the proof first deals with the case in which $X$ is compact and it does use that $C(X,\Bbb R)$ is Polish (in particular Baire)
 
@AlessandroCodenotti there was some result in measure theory that uses it prolifically. I don't recall what it is now.
 
Hm, I'm not aware of any such result, let me know if you remember what that is, sounds interesting!
 
The Lebesgue covering dimension, that is.
The Polish space stuff I have not heard much about.
I had a friend who was into Polish space stuff but at the time I was not very good with analysis so I didn't quite follow most of what he liked about it.
 
Pig
@BalarkaSen ah you are right, hm
 
user462942
7:29 PM
Hello
 
7:54 PM
Hi @Semiclassical, long time no chat. How's it going?
 
8:26 PM
Well, there's that erstwhile statistician, @Clarinet.
 
Hi @Ted, long time. Just finished my M.S. this semester, and as of last November, I now work at the U of Minnesota
as a data analyst
 
Very cool.
 
I'm self-learning measure theory before the fall. Haven't committed to the PhD program yet; they're willing to let me try it part-time if I do well on the qualifying exams.
 
Oh oh ... sounds scary :)
 
Oh, and I'm now a faculty member at a community college as well. I teach one 3-credit class, now for a year - an intro data science class
 
8:33 PM
Oh oh ... Clarinet is growing up :D
 
Life's been pretty good to me, even despite what's happening out here in Minneapolis and with COVID-19. My data science students - keep in mind, this is the first semester of data science they've taken - recently competed in the "advanced" level against 4-year institutions. We were the only 2-year school in the contest, and we made 3rd place. I'm so proud of them.
 
That's quite awesome.
 
What's been happening here lately? I've just been out of the loop
 
Some of the same old characters. Some of the fixtures from a few years ago have totally disappeared. (Except for Balarka and Ted.)
 
Are you still part-time teaching in CA?
 
8:38 PM
Nah, after the second year I decided it wasn't rewarding enough (the kids weren't putting in much time outside of our 1 hr 45 min classes — other than doing some of the on-line homework, which I wasn't that thrilled with).
So now I'm a full-time bum. I am only recently venturing out at all to do grocery shopping (including farmers markets). It's going to stay scary for a few years, I think. So proud of our government.
 
I think now, more than ever, is the perfect time to not have any commitments
 
So, congrats on the competition. Are you doing any good learning (I suppose I have to consider your learning Lebesgue analysis good)?
 
Yeah, I'm learning measure theory through Yeh's book before I take the slightly-less-detailed version that PhD stats people are required to take in the fall
 
Never heard of that author.
 
It's the only measure theory text that I've found with a solutions manual. amazon.com/Real-Analysis-Theory-Measure-Integration/dp/…
 
8:44 PM
People keep emailing me (often rudely) asking for solutions manuals for my various books. In two cases, they are available only to instructors through the publisher. But in the other two cases, they don't exist.
 
I do think that solutions manuals are nice when one doesn't have an instructor to guide you through material, but even then, they need to be used sparingly
 
Yes, based on what I see on MSE, students generally abuse answers.
That said, I did just write out a very detailed answer for a differential geometry/Lie groups calculation, but the OP put in extreme good effort, and I wanted to correct it a little and add some insight.
 
I took an algorithms class taught by a colleague at the community college this last spring. My colleague mentioned throughout the class to the students that he found a ton of cheating and/or copying-and-pasting of answers from Chegg. Quite unfortunate, since algorithms is probably one of the most important topics for a CS curriculum.
 
It was actually interesting. I did the computation two ways and was off by a sign. It took me a few minutes to realize what caused that.
Yeah, I don't have any knowledge of Chegg, but I hear it's a big cheat source.
 
He pays $5 a month to catch people cheating on there. I might have to do that myself... but honestly, it's usually pretty easy for me to catch cheating, since I make original homework assignments and quizzes every semester (yes, it's exhausting), and I make my students do exams orally
 
8:50 PM
Oral exams? Wow.
For me, making students write mathematics and grading their actual written work was essential.
 
Yes, because I did not want to at all deal with the possible complications of cheating this semester with COVID happening and my students were online already, I just moved all proctored quizzes and exams to all being oral
This class is very different from a typical math class
 
Yeah, I'm sure.
Still, there's always an issue with fairness and having exams be "comparable" or "the same."
 
Hi everyone.
So I've got a question, but it's a rather complex question and I don't know how to write it up. :D
 
Well, then we can just answer the non-question, @Tanner.
Here's your answer .... * * *
 
The question is, essentially: I've come up with a certain concept, and I'm sure it's a concept that other people have studied before; what is this concept actually called and where can I read about it?
 
8:53 PM
Right, so what I do there is for quizzes, because (as you might imagine from the results that I've gotten from the contest) I throw so much material at them, I give them a question list beforehand and select questions randomly depending on a number that the students give me before they take the quiz. No two students are allowed to have the same number. For the final exam, though, it's similar but they are allowed to use notes but will not see the questions beforehand.
 
Well, that may be impossible to answer or very easy to answer. Who knows.
That's a lot of hard work for you, @Clarinet. But kudos to you.
@Tanner: So what is the concept, or what does it concern?
 
The programming skills I've developed over my jobs have been really useful for things like this. I have some code that I've written in R which will automatically generate a weekly calendar given a start date and end date in LaTeX. I can't imagine going straight into teaching from grad school without being able to do things this way.
 
I'm still an old fuddy-duddy type of teacher.
 
Well, the concept is actually identical to the concept of a variety of algebras (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Variety_(universal_algebra)), except I'm only interested in the initial algebra of the variety.
 
OK, @Tanner, I know absolutely nothing about such things, but there are some folks who hang out here who might ...
 
8:58 PM
I'm especially interested in, giving two varieties-of-algebras V and W, proving that the initial algebra of V is essentially isomorphic to the initial algebra of W.
 
00:00 - 21:0021:00 - 00:00

« first day (3594 days earlier)      last day (1428 days later) »