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12:13 AM
That's what it ought to be, but I don't see a direct approach. I don't want finitely many open sets to cover something, I want infinitely many open sets to intersect non-trivially. I'll think about this again tomorrow.
 
 
5 hours later…
5:30 AM
Ciao @AlessandroCodenotti, and all. Really all of them? Wow, that sounds a lot....
 
 
2 hours later…
7:21 AM
is the logarithmic integral analytic?
 
whats the logarithmic integral?
 
The offset logarithmic integral is defined as $$ \text{Li}(x)=\int_2^x\frac{1}{\log(t)}~dt. $$
it's asymptotic to the prime counting function.
 
sure, its derivative is log, which is analytic on certain regions of $\mathbb C$
oops 1/log
 
fair enough
so $x/\log(x)$ is a good asymptotic formula as well
for the prime counting function, but $\text{Li(x)}$ is "the best"
possible asymptotic formula apparently
I'm wondering if there's any use in constructing an asymptotic, analytic function, that outperforms $x/\log(x)$ but is not quite as accurate as $\text{Li(x)}$
in terms of an approximation of $\pi(x)$ (prime counting function)
 
i returned all my number theory to my lecturers so don't know, sorry. I know $Li_s$ is notation for polylogarithms but they don't seem related
 
7:36 AM
0
Q: construct an asymptotic, analytic function, which outperforms $\frac{x}{\log(x)}$ but isn't quite as good as $\text{Li(x)?}$

geocalc33The offset logarithmic integral is defined as $$ \text{Li}(x)=\int_2^x\frac{1}{\log(t)}~dt. $$ It can be shown that $\text{Li(x)}\sim\pi(x)$ where $\pi(x)$ is the prime counting function. It can also be shown that $\frac{x}{\log(x)}\sim \pi(x).$ Is there any practical use in number theory f...

I'm curious!
I strongly doubt there's any use though
 
Hey
 
8:52 AM
2
Q: Find the smallest prime \$k\$ such that \$n!+k\$ is never prime

MathphileGoal Write a program in C/C++ to find the smallest prime \$k\$ such that for all \$n\in \Bbb{N}\$, \$n!+k\$ is never prime. You can use any number-theoretical methods to achieve this but must explain in-depth to why it works. Basic Concept It is elementary to see that for any \$n\ge k\$, we ha...

@LeakyNun you might be interested in this
 
9:34 AM
Hi @Balarka
 
hey
 
@robjohn I understand what you were saying before. You mentioned that taylor series and now I understand it just adds and gets binomial theorem thus is not superfluous 😂😂😂
I was busy learning other than real analysis so my last two problem remains.
I am proving $f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (a\choose n)x^n$ for real $a$. It wants me to prove that $(1+x)f'(x)=a f(x)$.
$f'(x)=\sum (n+1)(a\choose {n+1})x^n$ was it's derivative.
After then I gave up.
And look answer since I am stupid.
And book has this answer: $n((a(a-1)...(a-n+1))\over n!)+(n+1)((a(a-1)...(a-n+))\over (n+1)!=((a(a-1)...(a-n+1))\over (n-1)!(1+(a-n)\over n)$
and it directly says: so $(1+x)f'(x)=a f(x)$
And I don't know how it is related
So can somebody with big brain install the explanation on my brain
How can that information be used to conclude $(1+x)f'(x)=a f(x)$ ?
 
9:51 AM
Use { } brackets around your \over's, otherwise your latex is pretty unreadable
 
Lol sorry
 
your computation of the derivative is correct. whats the coefficient of x^n in (1 + x)f'(x)?
 
What ways can I relate an $R$-module $M$ to ideals of $R$? For instance, if $M$ is of finite length then supposedly $M$ is finitely generated and $\operatorname{Ann}_R(M) \subset R$ is non-zero. I get that $M$ is finitely generated (finite length $\iff$ $M$ noetherian and artinian, submodules of noetherian modules are f.g. and $M$ is a submodule of itself), but why does $M$ have non-zero annihilator?
I guess I should also mention that $R$ is a PID lol
 
Something like this: suppose nothing annihilates M. let a be a nonzero element in R, if aM is a strict submodule of M then you get an unbounded chain M > aM > a^2M > a^3M > ... contradicting finite length (a^n is never zero because R is a domain)
 
@BalarkaSen you mean (n+1)? and (a\choose n+1)?
 
10:01 AM
if (a)M = M then there exists some r = 1 mod (a) such that rM = 0 by Nakayama
so r is nonzero annihilator
 
@Balarka lol nice
 
u should double check if this works
i just woke up lol
@StupidKid I mean coefficient of x^n, some n
 
lol nah it's fine, I'm confused by the hint on the pset
"use that $R$ is not artinian"
 
huh
 
$\frac {n((a(a-1)...(a-n+1))}{n!}+\frac{(n+1)((a(a-1)...(a-n+))}{(n+1)!}=\frac{((a(a-1)...(a-n+1))} {(n-1)!}(\frac{1+(a-n)}{n})$
 
10:04 AM
write it in binomial coefficients not this fraction crap
 
it is easy to identify it as binomial coefficient. I am just writing what book has written.
 
im telling you to write though not your book to write
 
Because astyx told me it is hard to read
You mean the binomial coefficient of x^n or else there are not some n
 
what is unclear about what i said? you have identified f'(x) as a power series, (1+x)f'(x) is also a power series. so for any natural number n, x^n has some coefficient. write it down
dont copy your book because that helps nobody
 
How can the group with presentation <x,y: x^2=y^2=e> be infinite?
What are it's members?
 
10:19 AM
$(x+1)(n+1)({a \choose n+1})$ is coefficient
Because I can only see the coefficient which is in $(1+x)f'(x)$
Oops Now I get it what you mean lol.
may be
You want me to expand the series and tell coefficient one by one?
may be I will try to understand it myself once I get out of the bus.
 
10:42 AM
@user736948 xy, xyx, xyxy,...
 
you also need to work on your avatar @StupidKid the one we see in chat has the head cut-off
 
@But xyxy=e no?
@loch xyxy=(xy)^2=x^2y^2=e
Oh I guess I'm thinking it's abelian...
@loch actually this should be true even if the group is non-abelian. Or am I missing something?
 
@user736948 Why should (xy)^2 be x^2 y^2?
 
10:59 AM
@skullpatrol well it is smoking einstien
I got migraine today crap.
 
not the one we see in chat pal @StupidKid you have go to your profile to see the head
:(
 
I know that. my pic doesn't fit in profile pic
 
oh
the profile editor is not that good
 
Is my profile pic changed?
 
nope
Just cut-off above and below
in chat
no big deal pal :-)
 
11:07 AM
Now it is changed.
Do I need to put mask on him ?
 
lol
 
@StupidKid You might want to change the location in your profile.
 
Brain.exe stopped working due to heavy migrane.
@Loong But that is my past location.
What should I do when I have migrane. Probably not Mathematics.
 
have a coffee
 
Does extra sleep help to relieve the pain of your migraine?
 
11:12 AM
I can't even sleep due to the pain.
 
Can you lay down and rest your eyes?
 
I think skull is not visible on your profile pic @skullpatrol
well I am gonna have extra nap bye guyz
 
cya pal
 
Is $\sum_{n=2}^{x-1}\frac{1}{\ln (n!+x)}$ always increasing?
 
11:45 AM
"Mochizuki developed inter-universal Teichmüller theory which, due to its nature and applications, has attracted a high level of attention of non-mathematicians"
Does anyone know why it has attracted a high level of attention of non-mathematicians?
 
drama and pop science articles
 
It's notable that those people aren't being attracted to the mathematics but rather the narrative
 
12:01 PM
yeah, people like big words
 
sanity check: Whats the negation of there exists infinitely many ideals $I_1,I_2..$ of $R$ such that $I_{n+1}$ is a proper subset of $I_n$ for all $n$?
 
You tell me, and then I'll check your sanity
 
for every infinite collection of ideals $I_1,I_2...$ of $R$, there exists $n$ such that $I_{n+1}$ is not a proper subset of $I_n$.
@MikeMiller
 
Yeah
 
12:26 PM
I have a compact topological group $G$ acting on a metric space $X$. Is it true that $\dim X\leq \dim(X/G)+\dim G$? Or equivalently what is the relationship between $\dim G$ and the dimension of the orbits? ($\dim$ always refer to the Lebesgue covering dimension)
Or is there some combination of adjectives in front of $G$, $X$, or the action making this true?
 
12:49 PM
@Thorgott Did you figure out flows
 
no, I didn't even figure out ODEs
apparently the solution of the IVP depends smoothly on the initial value, which is used
but I also haven't figured out why that guarantees simultaneous solvability at least locally
 
Yeah, for any $C^\infty$-function $X : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ there exists $\varepsilon, \delta > 0$ such that there exists a $C^\infty$ function $F : B_\delta(0) \times (-\varepsilon, \varepsilon) \to \Bbb R^n$ such that $dF(x, t)/dt = X(F(x, t))$ for all $x \in B_\delta(0), -\varepsilon < t < \varepsilon$ and $F(x, 0) = x$.
 
Hausdorff dim but maybe it doesn't matter
 
Funny I was thinking about something on the Hilbert cube
but then lost track
 
Hm, the Hausdorff dim is kinda weird in that it is not a topological invariant, so it can disagree with the covering dimension. Still interesting though
 
1:00 PM
@StupidQuestionsInc Hello! How are you?
 
mathoverflow.net/questions/54071/dimensions-of-orbit-spaces there's also this question but Lie groups is more restrictive than I was hoping for
 
If $G$ is a compact Lie group acting on a smooth manifold $M/G$ is a stratified space. The top stratum is of dimension $\dim(M) - \dim(G)$
So that case is particularly well behaved
Well
I guess the top stratum can be of lesser dimension, I am imagining the case where non-identity elements of $G$ does not fix every element of $M$. That is to say $\bigcap_{x \in M} \text{Stab}(x) = \{e\}$
Anyway the point is stratified spaces are triangulable and for simplicial complexes Lebesgue covering dimension is the affine dimension of the complex.
 
ok, I guess I should look at $C^{\infty}(B_{\delta}(0)\times(-\varepsilon,\varepsilon),\mathbb{R}^n)\rightarrow C^{\infty}(B_{\delta}(0)\times(-\varepsilon,\varepsilon),\mathbb{R}^n),\,F\mapsto((x,t)\mapsto x+\int_0^tX(F(x,t))\mathrm{d}t)$ and pray it's a contraction for small $\delta,\varepsilon$
 
@BalarkaSen What are the strata? (I just read the definition of a stratified space on wiki and I'm a bit confused)
I have an intuitive picture in mind by thinking about the action of $S^1$ on $\Bbb C$
 
@Alessandro Right, so there the quotient is $[0, \infty)$, obtained from quotienting the open submanifold of $\Bbb C$ on which the action of $S^1$ is free, namely, $\Bbb C \setminus \{0\}$ and quotienting the left out bit, $\{0\}$, on which the action of $S^1$ is the very opposite of free.
This picture generalizes as follows.
Look at conjugacy classes of subgroups of $G$. For any such conjugacy class $[H]$, define $M^{[H]} = \{x \in M : G_x \in [H]\}$.
These are called the "orbit types" in $M$. In the earlier examples, we had two orbit types, $\Bbb C^{[1]} = \Bbb C \setminus \{0\}$ and $\Bbb C^{[S^1]} = \{0\}$.
 
1:12 PM
actually, are these $C^{\infty}$ even complete
 
Can someone give me a hint how I can show $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^\frac{-1}{x^2}}{x^p} = 0$ for $p > 0$ ?
 
Why would you use C^inf? If you get existence and uniqueness then you can show the solutions are smooth even if a priori they're not
Usually you're solving x' = f(x) for f C^{0,1} aka Lipschitz
 
What's the maximum of this function $f(x, y, z) = 2xz e^{-x} - 2y^3 + y^2 - 3z^3$
 
In general, these orbit types $M^{[H]}$ are submanifolds of $M$, and the decomposition $M = \bigcup_{[H]} M^{[H]}$ into the orbit types form a stratification of $M$, and $G$ acts on $M^{[H]}$ with stabilizers always conjugate to $H$ (by definition), so by slice theorem $M^{[H]}/G$ turns out to be smooth manifolds as well.
Then the decomposition $M/G = \bigcup_{[H]} M^{[H]}/G$ turns out to be a stratification of $M/G$
 
1:16 PM
It's not obvious to me why this decomposition satisfies the definition of stratification, but the decomposition itself makes a lot of sense
 
Yeah that requires work.
You're right
 
I can trust you that it works out for the time being then :P
 
oh right, of course
it's rewritten as an integral equation after all
 
The point is, essentially, equivariant tubular neighborhood theorem - which says these $M^{[H]}$ always admit nice $G$-equivariant neighborhoods in the whole of $M$.
So when you quotient the whole thing by $G$, it descends to a set-theoretic stratification such that each manifold stratum has a nice "tubular neighborhoods" inside $M/G$.
This notion of a stratification with a "tubular neighborhood" happens to be equivalent to the definition you say, which I assume is Whitney stratification
 
I was looking at this but the Whitney stratification seems nicer
 
1:20 PM
Ah yeah haha that definition is also equivalent to both the definition I mentioned
That's a hard theorem of Thom lol
 
@BalarkaSen This is not what you mean to say. For instance, take SO(3) acting on RP^2 --- then the stabilizers vary over the circle subgroups. You meant that the minimal dimension of stabilizer is 0
 
I think the reason nobody really cares about stratified spaces is because it quickly becomes very technical. The general idea is very clear but to do reasonable mathematics with it one has to work so hard
 
I for one don't
 
Sorry they're not formalized in Lean yet
 
The limit I asked about above is so obvious, and just lies in the fact that exp grows much faster than any polynomial - but I somehow struggle to express this formally. L'Hospital also does not lead to anything useful.
 
1:24 PM
@MikeMiller I think what I meant to say is $gx = x$ for all $x \in M$ implies $g = e$, that is, the action is effective
 
ok, I'm starting to believe the ODE thing
I have to carefully write down the details after this seminar, but I convinced myself with a sketch for now
 
if $gx=x$ for all $x$ then $ge=e$ so $g=e$
 
Because essentially I want the top stratum of $M/G$ to be $M^{free}/G$ where $M^{free}$ is the open submanifold of $M$ on which the action of $G$ is free. Only then can I say the dimension of the stratified space $M/G$ is $\dim M - \dim G$, right?
@LeakyNun That's a good troll.
Hi, @Pig
 
@BalarkaSen Yeah again that's true of the action of SO(3) on RP^2
Every non-trivial rotation rotates the sphere nontrivially
 
that sounds tautologous
 
1:35 PM
Yes
You really do want to say "the top stratum of M/G is dim M - dim G when the minimal dimension of the isotropy group is 0"
Otherwise you get additional (+ minimal dim of isotropy groups)
 
@StupidKid I am guessing that you never got ChatJax installed. It would help so that you can proofread your MathJax in chat.
besides helping you see what others write.
@StupidKid I assume what you meant is $f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty {a\choose n}x^n$ and you want to show it equals $(1+x)^a$
 
@MikeMiller I am not sure I see why I want the minimal dimension of the isotropy group to be 0; that completely rules out most actions eg S^1 acting on S^3 by Hopf action
I also don't understand your example. SO(3) is a 3-dimensional group, RP^2 is 2-dimensional
 
I've a question, why $\mathbb{E}[X]$ and $\mathbb E_\rho$ written differently? I mean why some are written inside square brackets and some as subscripts..?
 
because different people have different conventions
 
means?
didn't get it?
do they mean differently or there's something I don't have a clue of?
 
1:45 PM
It is the same thing, but some prefer it to write the one way, some the other
 
Why not written as $\mathbb E_X$? Is that correct to write that way?
 
"Correct" is always a matter of definition, I guess
 
notations cannot be correct.
 
@abhas_RewCie If you make it clear what you mean, you can write it however you want.
 
that's the same issue as people asking whether 9/3(2+1) = 9 or 1
 
1:46 PM
@LeakyNun not the notation itself, but the implied statement "what i have written is equal to something"
 
@LeakyNun But both are different....
 
@LeakyNun well... there is an actual precedence for that
 
@BalarkaSen What? The isotropy groups there are all zero dimensional.
 
Can I write Markov's identity as $x \text{Pr}(Y>x) \leq \mathbb E_Y$?
 
@BalarkaSen This is false.
That's what I'm telling you.
Let $SO(3)$ act on $RP^2$. The former is 3 dimensional. The latter is 2-dimensional. You're not gonna tell me the quotient is $-1$ dimensional
But the action is faithful
 
1:48 PM
@MikeMiller stacks reacc only
 
:54346154 So is that true?
 
@abhas_RewCie if you make it clear what you mean by $\mathbb{E}_Y$, then it is true
 
@robjohn $\mathbb E [Y[$
if $\mathbb E[Y]$ and $\mathbb E_Y$ are same
 
@abhas_RewCie Tell the reader that $\mathbb{E}_y$ is the expected value of the variable $Y$
 
(stacks of negative dimension for those interested)
(which is the empty set afaic)
 
1:51 PM
Nobody is interested man
Sorry
 
@robjohn So, (according to usual convention) $\mathbb E_Y$ and $\mathbb E[Y]$? (in books)
 
@abhas_RewCie I am used to seeing $E[Y]$. I don't think I have seen $E_Y$, but if it were stated in the article, I would understand and it would be correct.
 
@robjohn Okay...
wait, I've to show that to you
@robjohn Page 37 of The Elements of Statistical Learning
 
For me $\mathbb E_Y$ is conditionnal expected value
 
@MikeMiller Oh I see what you mean now. OK, yes, I did mean there is some $x \in M$ such that $\text{Stab}(x) = \{e\}$.
 
1:58 PM
$\mathbb E_Y(X) = \int XP(X|Y=y)$
 
@robjohn I already prove it now after getting out of bus.
 
Using pascal identity.
 
@BalarkaSen Yeah, once you have that you're fine
And of course that implies that the action is effective
 
And the power series expansion.
 
1:58 PM
@Astyx Hmmm.... But the book uses condition of condition using that notation.
 
@Astyx I believe that is also written as $\mathbb{E}[X|Y]$
 
also some little identities.
 
Yeah your stabilizers of the SO(3)-action on RP^2 were different circles intersecting at the identity, that is clearly not enough. I was taking "intersection upto conjugation", which is really a convoluted way of demanding there to be a trivial stabilizer.
 
@robjohn yes I've seen that used as well
 
@Astyx Okay, what if $(X)$ isn't written? Like $\mathbb E_X$? then what that means?
 
1:59 PM
$\mathbb{E}_Y[X]$ would be the conditional of $X$ with respect to $Y$, $\mathbb{E}_Y$ by itself looks horrendous
 
Sorry, that was confusing.
 
@Thorgott Book has written that way
without $[X]$ also
 
@abhas_RewCie Then it's a function on random variables
 
@robjohn does elementary number theory teach the euler pentagonal theorem proof? Or it is really necessary to prove it in euclidean geometry?
 
@Astyx means?
 
2:01 PM
can anyone help me tackling $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{e^\frac{-1}{x^2}}{x^p}$ for some $p > 0$ ?
 
@T_01 Taylor Expansion... See using that
 
@abhas_RewCie I believe that $\mathbb{E}_Y$ in that book is conditional expectation as Astyx was mentioning.
 
thank you, i try that
 
$\mathbb E_Y$ is something that takes a random variable and returns the conditional expected value of it
 
@robjohn Conditional to what?
 
2:02 PM
To $Y$
$E_Y(X)$ is a function of $Im(Y)$
 
@Astyx $\mathbb E_Y$ means gives the expected value of $Y$ conditioned to $Y$? What that even mean?
 
@abhas_RewCie Or better to say, I already tried. It leads to $\sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty \frac{x^p}{x^{2k} k!}$ = $\sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty \frac{x^{p-2k}}{k!}$
 
alright it is taught in analytic number theory
 
$\mathbb E_Y(X)(y) = \int xP(X=x|Y=y)$
 
@StupidKid I would think that that might be covered in a Discrete Math course, or possibly an elementary number theory course. It all depends on the level of the course and the instructor.
 
2:05 PM
@Astyx What only $\mathbb E_X$ means? not $\mathbb E_Y(X)(y)$
 
Well then my curiosity tells me to buy Number theory book authored by gh hardy lol.
 
@abhas_RewCie A function that takes a random variable and a value that $X$ take and returns what I wrote above
 
I'm not completely sure that's what it means here, I have not studied probability theory in a long time
 
I hope it exists in partition in table of content.
 
2:09 PM
@StupidKid Your profile is f..... genius.
 
I honestly forget how the notation for conditional expectation goes. $\Bbb E[X|Y]$ is the random variable which takes value $\Bbb E[X|Y = y] = \displaystyle \int x \;d\Bbb P(X = x|Y = y)$ with probability $\Bbb P(Y = y)$, right?
 
@abhas_RewCie XD
 
@StupidKid lmao
 
Well, $y \mapsto \Bbb E[X|Y = y]$ is a function on the probability space of $Y$, rather.
 
@abhas_RewCie Robjohn is real genius here.
Bye guys have a good time solving Mathematics without getting mentally affected.
 
2:12 PM
His profile is ordinary....
I'm also making a cool profile pic for me, inspired from @robjohn
 
Ah, no, if $Y : \Omega \to \Bbb R$, I compose this with $\Bbb R \to \Bbb R$, $y \mapsto \Bbb E[X|Y = y]$, to get the RV $\Bbb E[X|Y]$ defined on the probability space $\Omega$.
 
@T_01 can you do $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}x^pe^{-x^2}$?
 
@BalarkaSen Does intersection up to conjugation even make sense
I guess so.
 
I tried for a while but it seemed too much work with too little payoff
 
Say x lies in a family of subgroups up to conjugation if it's conjugate to an element of each subgroup (by an element depended on the subgroup)
if the family of subgroups is closed under conjugation, like for the family of isotropy groups, this is a group
Perhaps this is what is called "the generic isotropy"
The generic isotropy should be finite
 
2:20 PM
Ah OK
Why is product of two elements lying in the family of subgroups upto conjugation also of that form?
Let F be the family of subgroups in G, then for every H in F, g_H x g_H^{-1} in H for some g_H, and similarly h_H y h_H^{-1} in H for some h_H
Erm do you demand this g_H to be unique for every H
Only dependent on H, and not on x that is
I guess you do
 
no I was just wrong
lol
 
It was a fun idea tho
 
Also clearly it's not
Because then for RP^2 this "intersection up to conjugacy" would be all of SO(3) lmao
 
Yeah good point
lol
 
How can we relate the second de Rham cohomology group to covering spaces?
 
2:33 PM
what kind of relationship are you looking for, eg, are there any expectations you have for an answer
 
Well, the goal is to understand the comparison between de Rham cohomology and étale cohomology. I am trying to understand whether the topological case could be easier.
 
chokes
 
The first cohomology group is somehow more obvious. Given a closed 1-form $\omega$, the indefinite integral $\int\omega$ corresponds to a covering space.
 
@Yai0Phah Can you point towards what is the comparison precisely? As far as I understand etale cohomology just means sheaf cohomology over the etale site of a scheme to me, so I am not sure what is the topological analogue that you look for.
I mean, de Rham cohomology can be viewed as the sheaf cohomology of the sheaf of forms on the site of open sets in a manifold, I imagine
But this has nothing to do with covering spaces
 
Finite étale maps are finite coverings
 
2:43 PM
The connection between $H^1_{dR}(M; \Bbb R)$ and covering spaces that you describe (given a closed 1-form, pass to a cover on which it is exact) seems specific to $n = 1$, and comes from topology, because $H^1(X; \Bbb Z) = \text{Hom}(\pi_1(X), \Bbb Z)$, which classifies regular finite-sheeted covering spaces over $X$, essentially.
 
Yes, I want to understand whether higher cohomology groups could also be understood in that way.
 
@Yai0Phah Finite etale maps are local diffeomorphisms, and since in the topological category inclusion of open sets are already local diffeomorphisms, I imagine the etale site is not really different from the plain vanilla site of open sets - though I don't know how to formalize this
 
oh no, the é-word
 
Somehow this is too "fine", in the algebraic category the underlying topology is so coarse that things change drastically if you go to the etale site
 
It does not seem to be possible to talk about arbitrary "open sets" in the étale site. It is coarser.
 
Anonymous
2:51 PM
Hello, could someone help me a bit with this. I'm trying to see why this theorem is true: If $G$ is a group with a normal subgroup $K$ such that $G/K$ is solvable, and $H$ is a nonabelian simple subgroup of $G$, then $H \leq K$. On the main site, they're telling me to consider the homomorphism $\pi: G \to G/K$ but I'm not sure what to conclude from there.
 
@Yai0Phah I mean, inclusion of Zariski open sets is an open immersion of schemes, and open immersions are etale.
They are certainly part of the etale site
 
@Knight Hi! I'm good what about you?
 
But there are too few Zariski open subsets.
 
The only relationship that I know if is that there is an injection $H^2(\pi_1 X; \Bbb R) \hookrightarrow H^2(X;\Bbb R)$. And this is the only relationship, in that you can have $H^2(X;\Bbb R)$ be whatever you want given this relation.
This relation follows from the fact that you can construct $B\pi_1 X$ from $X$ by attaching cells of dimension 3 and higher.
 
Small typo: You meant from $\widetilde{X}$, I assume
 
2:56 PM
Definitely not
 
Hm.
Oh yeah
 
If I'm adding cells to $\widetilde X$ then the result is simply connected
 
Right, I misunderstood
 
Anyway, I would not call this a relation between second cohomology and the fundamental group.
I do not know anything about etale cohomology but you are going to have to use a different approach in degrees higher than 1
 
@robjohn Well it is for the same obvious reasons $0$, but I have the same trouble showing that.... Writing the exponential and its series expansion and multiplying by $x^p$ does not seem to be helpful
 
2:59 PM
It is not about the fundamental group
I don't know how to describe it rigorously.
Fundamental group classifies covering spaces, yes, but it loses the information of higher homotopies. That is to, you ignores the information how you identifies different covering spaces.
You identifies it by isomorphic classes, essentially taking $\pi_0$ of some space-like object.
 
I suppose formally it must be that every etale morphism X -> M of smooth manifolds can be written as a fibered product of "basic etale morphisms" U -> M where U is an open subset of M. So these guys should be a basis of the Grothendieck topology, whatever that means, which implies the etale site of a smooth manifold is completely useless
So I don't think there's an answer to your question in the topological world
Certainly not every etale morphism of schemes in general can be written as a fibered product of the inclusion of the Zariski open sets!
 
Let me describe the "philosophy". On one hand, it is about étale maps, covering spaces, etc. On the other hand, it is about differential equations (essentially, de Rham cohomology is about diff eqs)
 
If there is a useful answer to your question (I am deeply skeptical) I do not think anyone here will give it to you.
 
@MikeMiller Can you remind me the Hopf sequence again
It's time I internalize it I think
Something like $\pi_2(X) \to H_2(X) \to H_2(B\pi_1) \to 0$?
 
Well, the first cohomology could also be understood as a Riemann-Hilbert corr.
 
3:08 PM
If you try to write down "the space of covering spaces with fiber n points", like you would "the space of fiber bundles with fiber F", this space up to homotopy will be the space of unpointed maps $[M, BS_n]$. This splits up over connected components which do not carry information about higher homotopy, because the fibration sequence $\text{Map}_*(M, BS_n) \to \text{Map}(M, BS_n) \to BS_n$ is split, so splits into short exact sequences in higher htpy & the first term is discrete up to homotopy.
@BalarkaSen Yes, you add 3-cells to kill off $\pi_2$, which kills off the image of Hurewicz in second homology --- and because you never add 2-cells that second map is a surjection
(Then higher cells to kill off higher homotopy)
So $\pi_k \text{Map}(M, BS_n) = 0$ for $k \geq 2$.
 
@MikeMiller I imagine there must be a "space of branched coverings", though, in which you can move around and stuff
 
Maybe you are correct. The space-like object could also be spectrum-like object, that is to say, the correct information is "encoded" in negative degrees. Now I am not at a very good state to reflect deeply on this.
 
I don't buy it.
 
I need to reflect on it later.
Sorry
 
The important thing is presumably that you break up over local open charts / local covering maps, instead of global. In the smooth case this recovers the homotopy type of manifolds, because the Cech nerve of a good open cover recovers the homotopy type of the manifold.
In the singular setting I'm sure there are interesting things happening from the local etale maps and how they fit together.
But this is more than just talking about covering spaces of M
 
3:14 PM
What you are talking is correct, but in alg settings, the word "local" is much more rigid. By the way, I am only thinking about smooth cases.
 
I am aware.
 
I wonder if it helps if you look at the space $\text{Map}(X, \Omega^\infty S^\infty)$ instead of $\text{Map}(X, BS_\infty)$
 
You asked me about topology, so I was commenting about topology. You get nothing interesting from topology.
I agree that I'm sure there are interesting things in algebra.
 
@MikeMiller Ah gotcha makes sense
 
3:32 PM
How does one characterize a topology by specifying convergence of nets? E.g., very often authors will introduce the weak and strong operator topologies on $B(H)$ (for some Hilbert space $H$) by merely specifying convergence of nets. But I've never understood how this completely characterizes the topology.
 
@user193319 A set $A\subseteq X$ is open iff no net in $X\setminus A$ converges to a point of $A$
 
Hello
@robjohn Ah, my profile picture is ready... How'z it?
Created using Gimp v2.10
I messed a bit with hair... Eyes could have been better, but whatever, it's still okay :)
 
 
1 hour later…
5:30 PM
Looks great!
 
Let $G$ be any group, and let $\Bbb{C}[G]$ denote the complex group ring. Is it true that if $Z(G) = \{1\}$, then $Z(\Bbb{C}[G]) = \{1\}$; that is, if the center of the group is trivial, then the center of the group ring is trivial?
 
@LeakyNun Presumably the second characterization of $Z(\Bbb{C}[G])$ will allow me to prove the claim?
 
well it will allow you to investigate the claim
 
Ah, okay. So it's false. I was thinking $G = D_{3}$ might give me a counterexample.
 
5:47 PM
For sure the center of $\Bbb C[G]$ cannot be trivial, every complex number commutes with every element! It's at least $\Bbb C$
More nontrivially, look at sum of all the elements in a single conjugacy class of $G$. That commutes with everything as well
 
Ah of course!
 
Like Leaky pointed out, think of $\Bbb CG$ as ring of set functions $G \to \Bbb C$ with obvious pointwise addition and multiplication. Then $Z(\Bbb CG)$ is just the set of functions constant on the conjugacy classes of $G$ ("class functions")
The class functions are generated by the irreducible characters by representation theory, so that gives a full description of $Z(\Bbb CG)$
 
@BalarkaSen can we choose $\delta$ as large as we want here?
 

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