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00:08
@r9m Oops. Sorry about that!
00:30
Today I learned of the "missing strip plane" - $\mathbb R^2$ with all points with $x$-coordinate in $(0,1]$ deleted. It satisfies almost all of the axioms of Euclidean geometry!
It doesn't satisfy the parallel postulate, for sure - what else does it not satisfy?
(We also throw away any vertical lines or circles that are entirely contained in the strip.)
Note that it does satisfy a completeness axiom: every line looks the same as $\mathbb R$, on its own.
(Another part of the model - the length of a line segment is defined to be the length of the portion outside of the strip. Which actually distorts the shapes of circles, I think)
 
1 hour later…
01:43
1
Q: Proper subsets of connected spaces and proper product

topologicalorientablesurfaceLet $A$ be a proper subset of $X$ and $B$ a proper subset of $Y$. If $X,Y$ are connected. Show that $X\times Y\backslash (A\times B)$ is connected. Lemma: Let $X$ be a space and $A_1,A_2...,A_n$ a finite sequence of connected subsets in $X$. If $A_j\cap A_{j+1}\neq \varnothing$ for each $j=1,2....

 
2 hours later…
03:15
@TedShifrin Hi
03:51
Hi, a @Balarka.
I am convinced I would be adrift without moving frames, @Ted
LOL, you're just kissing up. :)
I just proved a Riemannian metric admits diagonalizing charts implies Weyl tensor vanishes
Charts ... very different from moving frames, who are always diagonal :)
Sure used it to compute though
03:55
Interesting.
It's in garbology, if you want to read walls of texts
I am currently going to try and compute sectional curvature of CP^2, I think. Moving frames again
No walls this instant, but ....
Best way to do that is with Lie algebra stuff for symmetric spaces.
Yeah I don't know this stuff at all.
But that's where you'll end up with unitary frames.
I was trying to come up with examples of conformally nonflat Riemannian manifolds; I can now show that conformally flat Einstein manifolds are constant sectional curvature and I "know" CP^2 is Einstein. It surely doesn't have constant sectional curvature; on complex 1-dim subspaces of the tangent space the sectional curvature is 1 clearly. The real planes will be a mess.
@TedShifrin I'll have to look at your notes carefully
I should do this calculation it seems extremely important to me
03:59
1/4
Hermitian Einstein, not Riemannian.
Oh ok, that's because of the scaling. The complex 1-dim subspaces exponentiate to round spheres CP^1 in CP^2, which is why I guessed.
It's "homogeneous in the complex directions"
@TedShifrin Oh huh alright
Sorry, but Hermitian Einstein implies Riemannian Einstein, or am I confused? Just take the real part?
of Ric = kg
I dunno. Actually, for me, the holo sectional curvature is $4$ and the real planes are $1$.
Oh
So it's quarter-pinched.
Wow.
 
1 hour later…
05:11
@BalarkaSen 12 hours
 
6 hours later…
11:25
@TedShifrin Is there a relatively simple reason that $S^{4k+1}$ admits <= 1 linearly indep v.f.s?
12:01
The obstruction theory approach should work. $\pi_{n-1} V_2(\Bbb R^n)$ is $\Bbb Z/2$ in dimensions 0,3 mod 4 and is $\Bbb Z \oplus \Bbb Z/2$ for dimensions n = 1,2 mod 4; the projection to $\pi_{n-1} V_1(\Bbb R^n)$ is an isomorphism on the $\Bbb Z$ factor. Assuming the existence of a section of a rank $n$ bundle $E \to S^n$, then, the obstruction to finding two lin indep sections lies in $\Bbb Z/2$ in all dimensions $n$ --- the part of the obstruction in the $\Bbb Z$ factor vanishes
But then we need to actually compute this guy
(Equivalently, take the complement of your trivial line summand --- this is a rank $n-1$ vector bundle; a global section of this bundle over $D^n$ gives rise to such a global section over the boundary sphere, which gives one an element of $\pi_{n-1} S^{n-2} = \Bbb Z/2$, so long as $n \geq 5$)
Seems possible but unpleasant
 
1 hour later…
13:28
0
A: Analytical expressions for acceleration due to zonal harmonics of a gravitational field?

uhohtl;dr: I'm almost there. I can reproduce Wikipedia's result for $J_2$ and $J_3$ so far (only $J_2$ shown) except for a minus sign in both cases, which reminds me again of the unresolved issue mentioned in What is the sign of Earth's J2? Let's look at @mmeent's comment suggesting that the spher...

I'm there except for a minus sign, I am beginning to wonder if Wikipedia is wrong
14:26
I read that if $G$ is a compact group acting on a metric space $(X,d)$, then the metric can be averaged by integrating wrt the Haar measure, $d'(x,y) = \int_{G} d(g^{-1}\cdot x,g^{-1}\cdot y) dg$, to give a $G$-invariant metric $d'$. But is it clear that $d$ and $d'$ induce the same topology?
I'm mostly interested in the case where $G$ is a finite discrete group and we're just summing over the orbit. $d'(x,y)\geq d(x,y)$ is obvious
14:50
Anyone know how to work out the solution? $\varphi_1(B)=\exp\bigg( \frac{\log^2(C_1)}{\log(B)} \bigg)=B$
Oh maybe this works. If $g\in G$ is fixed, then $d'(x,y)=d(gx,gy)$ induces the same topology as $d$, since $x\mapsto gx$ is an isometry, and sum of metrics inducing a topology induces the same topology
$B, C_1$ are matrices in the special linear group
is it as simple as I think it is?
just have to solve $\log^2(C_1)=\log^2(B)$
So $C_1=B$
 
1 hour later…
16:17
Leaky where can I ask about some function of my mobile? I mean which SE site or chat room?
16:52
Hello all! We know that if $A,B$ are sets then $|A\times B|=|A|\cdot|B|$. What happens if $|A|=\infty$ and $B=\emptyset$?
Can we use the mentioned property? Or it fails when one of them is infinite?
In that case I would do $|A\times B|=|A\times\emptyset|=|\emptyset|=0$. Is that correct?
$|A\times B|=|A|\cdot|B|$ is the definition of the RHS
your last line is correct
Okay, so the property is vaild if and only if both $A,B$ are finite, correct @Thorgott?
no, $|A|\cdot|B|=|A\times B|$ is always valid, because that is the definition of $|A|\cdot|B|$
if $A,B$ are finite, this multiplication agrees with the usual multiplication of natural numbers
@Thorgott what happens when are infinite?
I can't do $|A\times B|=\infty\cdot0$ because $\infty\cdot0$ is not a number
@manooooh $\infty$ is also not a cardinality
17:02
@TobiasKildetoft in my textbook there is a proposition: True or false?: $|A|=\infty\to\forall B(|A\times B|=\infty)$
well, what do you think based on the example you brought up?
@manooooh $|A| = \infty$ just means that $A$ is not finite
And I said it is false for $B=\emptyset$, and I justifiy "In that case I would do $|A\times B|=|A\times\emptyset|=|\emptyset|=0$. Is that correct?"
The statement about products of cardinalities only holds when you actually have those
@TobiasKildetoft I have both: for $A$ is not finite, and for $B$ is zero
17:04
(and even, then, the rule is somewhat counter intuiitive, though fairly simple)
yes, that is correct
can you figure out what happens if $B\neq\emptyset$
@Thorgott @TobiasKildetoft the question I am asking if it is valid to do the following: $|A\times B|=|A|\cdot|B|=\infty\cdot0=0$
@Thorgott of course the product is not finite
No, because the product there is meaningless. Exactly as you said
In general, if $A$ is infinite and $B$ is non-empty then $|A\times B| = max(|A|,|B|)$.
@TobiasKildetoft ok. Thank you!!
@TobiasKildetoft interesting!
(assuming choice)
17:08
right (as always)
$[0,1]^{[0,1]}$ is not metrizable.
i suppose it is
then since its compact by tychonoff
it is seperable
and therefore second countable
now what?
it's compact, but not sequentially compact, which can't happen in metrizable spaces
why is it not sequentially compact?
its not first countable, much less second countable
17:16
Why don't you try to prove that? It's a direct set theory argument
Take the 0 sequence. There's too many open neighborhoods around that
The point is separable does not imply second countable. That's only true in metrizable setups
Well, first countable and separable implies second countable (EDIT: Nah, the lower limit topology)
 
1 hour later…
18:18
@BalarkaSen Do I spot a Balarka doing set theory?!
lol
Right now I am doing geometry
That is to say Taylor expansions
I'm also doing some ugly computations tonight so I can't really say anything
What do you call a space where each point is a matrix
and as you vary through the space the matrices smoothly vary
A submanifold of $M_{m \times n}(\Bbb R)$
ah okay
19:22
And my ugly computations are not even working out as I was hoping
:/
Do you want to think about some GGTish stuff with me?
Not right now, but I'd be glad to ponder after I wrap up computations on my end
No guarantees I can help though
19:27
No problem
Hey @ÉricoMeloSilva!
I sent you something on hangouts but I guess you didn't notice
howdy, demonic @Alessandro and a @Balarka
19:45
Hi @Ted!
Oh, yo, @Eric.
@BalarkaSen I did not notice yeah, I haven't logged onto my gmail in weeks
No worries. It was just some Riemannian geometry question. Feel free to look when you get time
19:47
Balarka knows better than to ask me Riemannian stuff. :)
Heh I will ask you soon when I do moving frames computations
have you checked if the first part of your question is correct since then @Balarka
visualizing it is hard and so I'd have to compute
yeah I haven't, I might try to do the computation
the geodesics that dont emanate along the meridians are weird
so im not sure
Yeah I think they might spiral like the (p, q)-torus knots, but this is all guess. I'll have to recall Clairaut's relation to do computations
19:55
yeah, I might do this too because it's a cute visual question
@TedShifrin I see here that we defined $H_{*}(X, A) \cong H_{*}(X / A)$ for $* > 0$, but we skipped the definition as far as I can see in dimension $0$. So how do you do it in dimension $0$?
also with regards to doing a Morse theory for d_p I've never seen anyone try such a thing but I think it's not hard to prove the homotopy type lemma for annuli that stay away from the cut locus for these guys but idk if you can get diffeomorphism the way you do in standard morse theory, the derivative of d is so bad @Balarka
mind you i havent written anything down
@JoeShmo: Balarka knows more algebraic topology than I do, but I don't get "defined." The relative homology $H_*(X,A)$ is defined from its chain complex, as is $H_*(X/A)$. Are you saying this is a proposition?
Does $IJ=I\cap J$ for ideals $I,J$ in a commutative ring $R$ imply that $I+J=R$ if they're both nonzero?
@ÉricoMeloSilva yeah I don't know how to write this thing down
@JoeShmo That's a weird definition. Like Ted said, relative homology is defined using the relative homology chain complex, and it is not always true that $H_*(X, A)$ is isomorphic to $H_*(X/A)$ using that definition. You need $A$ to be have a neighborhood in $X$ which retracts back to $A$ for this to hold
20:09
you need to figure out some definition of "critical point" and "index" that works here since all those things happen for d_p where it isn't smooth
I'll try to work the torus example out to gain more insight
I think it's true that cut locus of $p$ is homotopy equivalent to $M \setminus p$, by joining points on the cut locus to $p$ by minimal non-extendible geodesics, but it seems annoying to prove this is continuous
@Thorgott: I haven't thought about this in ages, but what if we take $I = (x)$ and $J=(y)$ in $k[x,y]$?
So maybe one only gains insight about the top cell.
@BalarkaSen this is true and you're right that continuity is nontrivial
@TedShifrin then that's a counterexample and I don't like that it is
thanks
20:17
heh
$IJ = I \cap J$ holds iff $\text{Tor}^1_R(R/I, R/J) = 0$, because if you tensor $0 \to I \to R \to R/I \to 0$ by $R/J$ you get $I/I \cap J \to R/J \to R/(I + J) \to 0$ and if $I \cap J = IJ$ that left thing is in fact the kernel
If $I$ and $J$ are coprime the Tor term vanishes but this is usually much weaker
maybe algebra was a mistake after all
correct take
@Thorgott Going back to analysis?
Typo: First term is $I/IJ$ @BalarkaSen
20:24
Thanks! Sorry
what do you call a space in which each point is a category and the categories smoothly vary from point to point in the space?
asking the right questions
@user714630 Does this manifest as some flatness criterion for the varieties $V(I), V(J)$ in $\text{Spec}(R)$?
I am not quite sure what this means yet
I remember doing something similar once
if 𝐸𝐻=4×𝑂𝐼
Should be weaker than that. I thought I came across an AG connection before though.
𝐴𝐼=4×𝑂𝐻
how do you know from that that O is 1 or 2?
20:27
is that a chemistry question?
no a math question
A, I, O and H are variables
Anonymous
Hi. Does anyone here know under what condition the order of a group $G$ can be written as product of orders of its factors (in its composition series)?
the differential computations on the next analysis sheet are certainly starting to look like greener pastures than this algebra sheet
it's meant to be simple but I don't see it
@SanchayanDutta always?
20:31
anyone see what is going on?
@fomin what if $I=H=0$
@Thorgott well exactly.. but see puzzling.stackexchange.com/a/97625/68951
@user714630 I expect it means some sort of transversality of $V(I)$ and $V(J)$
the way the question is phrased, I would assume that "Eh", "Oi", "Ai" and "Oh" are each a single variable
which makes my skin crawl
$\ht$
Hrm height doesn't work
Anonymous
20:37
@Thorgott Could you point me to a proof?
Doesn't this just follow from Lagrange? You don't even need a composition series, this works for any subnormal series $1=G_0\triangleleft G_1\triangleleft...\triangleleft G_n=G$. Then $|G|=\frac{|G_n|}{|G_0|}=\prod_{i=0}^{n-1}\frac{|G_{i+1}|}{|G_i|}=\prod_{i=0}^{n-1}|G_{i+1}/G_i|$.
Anonymous
@Thorgott Ah, nice!
@Thorgott Yeah haha this is horrible
quickmaffs
what objects can the log operate on?
Anonymous
@Thorgott Though, is subnormality required there? Wouldn't it hold for any arbitrary subgroup sequence too?
20:47
what does factor group mean if the sequence isnt subnormal
well, the equation still remains true, but $G_{i+1}/G_i$ doesn't carry a canonical group structure anymore then
Anonymous
Heh, right. Thanks
Time to do more geometry
aka more Taylor series
it's weaker than transversality, probably easiest to see this is e.g. take I = y-x^2 and J = y
(but transversality does imply this i think)
Yeah I was thinking of this example
20:55
but if Tor = 0, it means that (say when the intersection is zero), you can define the intersection multiplicity at a point by the length (dimension as a vector space) of the corresponding ring (localized at the point)
doesn't work if Tor non-zero though, and Serre tells us that we need to correct the number with a bunch of Tor terms
Let's say you have $\log(X)$ where $X$ is some mathematical object. I know that you can take the logarithm of some numbers, some matrices, some groups, some rings, etc.
Where does it stop? If $X$ is some category, can you take the logarithm of a category?
Something horrendous like I = xy and J = x - y then IJ = (x^2, xy, y^2) and I cap J is not this
so I guess it means three lines intersecting at a point is excluded by this
@loch Huh i see
@Thorgott You talking about differential forms?
yeah
Nice. One of my favorite topics :)
Of course, there's still (multilinear) algebra in them :D
21:15
I've read some weird things on "formed spaces" and forms on sets yesterday evening
Anonymous
Could someone point me to a proof of the fact that a group can have only finitely many different subnormal series?
The terminology is very weird, but I'm translating it to things I'm more familiar with in my mind and it's fine. It's a cool framework to deal with both large scale and fine scale topology
I can proudly announce that after multiple hours of feeling stupid, I have finally solved an algebra exercise... by Cauchy induction
this is the first time I have ever used Cauchy induction for anything
21:18
What is it even
you prove n=>2n and n=>n-1
the AM-GM trick
I have used double induction once
beat that
Oh, I've heard that called forward-backward induction in competition math things
double induction? does that mean induction over NxN?
21:20
There's also the classic thing where you do a proof by induction and the base case needs to be done by induction on some other variable
just do induction on ordinals am i right
Indeed
Why stop at $\omega$
Hmm, I've done double induction before, but this makes no sense to me.
at least double induction feels like a natural thing to do
but who on earth actually thinks about doing induction forward-backward
Proofs by transfinite induction are extremely common in set theory
21:21
yeah
I learned transfinite induction recently, it's really cool
Proofs by induction on well founded relations in general are fairly common, with $\in$-induction being the most common case
@TedShifrin I had to induct over (depth, dimension) of strata
it was horrible
How does transfinite induction work ?
Like induction but longer
21:24
instead of just successors you have to deal with limit ordinals as well
thats the only extra step
@Astyx: You're never done. :D
think of inducting over $\{1/n : n \in \Bbb N\} \cup \{0\}$
I remember when we proved that the ring of symmetric polynomials is the polynomial ring in the elementary symmetric polynomials, we first inducted over the number of variables and then over the total degree
That seems fun
Oh yeah that horrible @Thorgott
I hate that proof
21:25
You want to prove that some property $P$ holds for all ordinals. You prove that $P(0)$ holds, that $P(\alpha)\implies P(\alpha+1)$ and that $\forall \alpha<\beta P(\alpha)\implies P(\beta)$
You can sometimes turn those into single induction proofs by embedding the other quantifier into the inducting sentence.
(the second case is really already covered in the third, but I like to write them separately to distinguish successor and limit)
Hi, anyone who's doing Doctorate program in Europe?
Hm I don't think any of the regular users here is a PhD student in Europe
yeah, the proof was really convoluted
21:27
Best way to prove the fundamental theorem of elementary symmetric polynomials is obviously to show that $\Bbb Q(x_1, \cdots, x_n)^{S_n} = \Bbb Q(e_1, \cdots, e_n)$ which is immediate from Galois theory
With some luck and some optimism I might be one in 5 months or so
I think it's the only time I've seen my algebra prof fail to freestyle a proof in lecture
there also was some additional statement on the degree that had to be included in the induction hypothesis just to make the inductive step work, but which was irrelevant to the conclusion
@BalarkaSen yeah, but how do you get to the rings from there?
@AlessandroCodenotti Nice! I am starting master in EPFL this year, and I want to proceed PhD if possible. Do you think the selection process is harsh for the PhD program in Europe?
inbefore commutative algebra magic
I don't really know, I just submitted my first application yesterday
21:30
Good luck for you! Have any friends who's applying as well? I just want to have idea how much grades I need to go PhD program.
One thing that I would really suggest though is to try and get to know potential supervisors during your masters personally, it's much easier to get a supervisor if he or she already knows you
Yeah definately will do that.
@Thorgott if $f \in \Bbb Q[x_1, \cdots, x_n]^{S_n}$ by above we have $f \in \Bbb Q(e_1, \cdots, e_n)$. But $f$ is a regular function on $\Bbb C^n$, so that forces the denominator of $f$ as a rational function on $e_1, \cdots, e_n$ to not vanish anywhere, which forces it to be constant polynomial by fundamental theorem of algebra, if you wish
As good as possible, but it's not like there's a clear cut point, grades are just one part of the application
I guess it also depends on how well known the institution you study at is in the area you are applying to positions for
its a "basechange and use rational locally regular = globally regular" argument in AG
21:32
what's a regular function?
polynomial function, sorry
From what I've heard it's not too hard to find a PhD at the EPFL if you're in the EPFL
Your professors probably will be able to help you in that regard
@Astyx That's a good news, but where did you hear about it?
I myself am going to start a master's next year
Haha, nice, math department?
21:34
Yup
hmm, that sounds not wrong to me
thinks to self: Everyone is growing up ... well, most everyone.
It's not as simple as I wrote, actually
EPFL didn't want me though
but I remember there was a reason for why he put in so much extra effort into proving it for rings
oh wait, this is only over Q
21:35
Yeah it's a little annoying. I will tell you a correct argument
Oh damn. But I guess you got a different acceptance?
but any algebraic closure should do a similar job
alright
Not yet but I'm confident
I'm assuming that between our president and the lovely virus that foreign students won't be coming to the US for a while.
21:37
I don't think that will effect much for the top schools.
Yeah I agree
I was hesitating for a long time between EPFL and the one I'm going to
I've heard they're all pretty equivalent
I don't even know how to judge the level of the math departments by schools since I am from different major.
Is it about faculty level?
I don't either to be honest
Does it really matter in the end ?
I don't think so.
I think the only thing it changes is how easy it is to find a PhD in some places
21:41
In the US the caliber of the school and the reputation/experience of the PhD adviser both play a rôle.
Does money matters in math department? Did not know that.
@Thorgott Right but this is not a polynomial of single variable story, you can't apply FTA. You have to notice if $f = P/Q$ where $f, P, Q$ are polynomial of $n$ variables over $\Bbb C$ then zero set of $Q$ is contained in the zero set of $P$, i.e, $V(Q) \subset V(P)$. That forces $P$ to be contained in the radical of $Q$, so $P = R Q^n$ for some polynomial $R$, by Nullstellensatz
This works over any field, you just take algebraic closure and basechange to that setup.
Ok, that explains why it's more difficult
Ya
You have to be an AG chad to notice this that's all
I thought FTA would work by just evaluating all variables but one wherever, but I guess this doesn't guarantee you get something non-constant
21:46
Yeah that sounds fidgety to me, I am not sure that works.
Nullstellensatz is a good theorem u should learn the proof sometime
I can give you a sheaf interpretation of this later if you want
the n Point Of View
I think my algebra power level is too low for that
Lol I promise it's actually geometry just put in an algebraic wrapper
thats what algebraic geometers do
they take simple statements and make them impossible to understand
thats their secret
I want to focus on analysis for my studies and I am weak in algebra. Do you think it is mendatory to learn Galois?
geometry is the art of making good mathematics out of bad pictures and algebra is the art of making bad mathematics out of good pictures
thats literally it
is there anything you don't call "actually geometry"
"yes, higher topos theory"
21:55
Lmfao
@JingeonAn Unless you're planning to do applied mathematics, yes.
What do you mean by applied math? I want to study in PDE, do you call it applied math?
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