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00:21
Let $\lambda$ denote Lebesgue measure on $R$. Suppose $f : R \to R$ is a Borel measurable function such that $\int|f|d\lambda<\infty$. Then $\lim_{k\to\infty}\int_{[-k,k]}f=\int\,fd\lambda$
$E=\cup[-k,k]$, if $f$ is a simple function, by additiviy, we are done
00:35
DCT
DCT is the more economic option. An approximation argument works too: You first need to prove it for characteristic functions (Hint: continuity from below), then it follows for simple functions by additivity indeed and the general case follows by approximation.
I see. but not quite sure how to apply DCT, I don't see any pointwise convergent sequence
What's the definition of $\int_{[-k,k]}f$?
$\int\,\chi_{[-k,k]}f$
Indeed, do you see a sequence of functions here?
00:52
$\chi_{[-k,k]}f$?
Yup, does it convergence to anything pointwise?
it converges to $f$ since we can split $[-k,k]$ to many subsets
which is a approximation
the conclusion is true, but I don't understand that argument
$\chi_{[-k,k]}f=\sum\alpha_i\chi_{A\cap[-k,k]}$
01:20
I don't follow
then, I am not sure.
 
3 hours later…
04:40
Well. This is becoming a non event
 
2 hours later…
06:52
Hi. I found two questions on the main site which seem to ask about the same thing. Is it ok to flag the new question as a duplicate of the older one which is well-explained? I'm having this doubt because the "new" one was asked 5 years ago and wasn't closed.
Old one (original): https://math.stackexchange.com/q/11307/693070
New one (maybe a duplicate): https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1054086/693070
07:04
Is someone skilled in elementary number theory?
 
1 hour later…
08:12
Someone must be, yeah
I guess Ramanujan would have been
@BalarkaSen wanna play?
@BalarkaSen this is not the philosophy room
How to partition $\mathbb R$ into uncountably many uncountable sets?
Pick a bijection $f:\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$ and look at $f(\{x\}\times\Bbb R)$
@LeakyNun Fuck I dunno I have forgotten chess
08:25
@AlessandroCodenotti Must that bijection be everywhere discontinuous?
@Alessandro Big if true
@BalarkaSen let's pick it up
i'm going home for two weeks because of corona, lets do it after i arrive there
@Ante hmm not sure
I can easily show that it cannot be continuous on an open set, but at a few isolated points? Dunno
08:33
yes, we are trying to extend theorem about mappings now with that question of mine
from $\mathbb R^n$ onto $\mathbb R^m$
bijections
space filling reacc only
it was something Cantor and Brouwer worked on, right?
@AlessandroCodenotti
about impossibility of continuous bijections
but can they be continuous at at least few points
let us solve that here and write a paper! :D
it it´s not known
@LeakyNun what would fill such bijection if continuous at one point?
@LeakyNun those are not injective
oh right
Baire reacc only
open mapping reacc only
In mathematics, an Osgood curve is a non-self-intersecting curve (either a Jordan curve or a Jordan arc) of positive area. More formally, these are curves in the Euclidean plane with positive two-dimensional Lebesgue measure. == History == The first examples of Osgood curves were found by William Fogg Osgood (1903) and Henri Lebesgue (1903). Both examples have positive area in parts of the curve, but zero area in other parts; this flaw was corrected by Knopp (1917), who found a curve that has positive area in every neighborhood of each of its points, based on an earlier construction of Wa...
08:42
Time to learn the proof of Chern-Gauss-Bonnet maybe
08:53
I forgot the forms formalism for differential geometry. I think it goes something like: Choose $(e_1, \cdots, e_n)$ local orthonormal frame on $M$ at $p$. Then $\nabla_{e_i} e_j = \sum_k \Gamma^k_{ij} e_k$, so the Christoffel symbols are $\Gamma^k_{ij} = \langle \nabla_{e_i} e_j, e_k \rangle$.
We can "dualize" the Christoffel symbols by letting $\omega_{ij}$ to be the $1$-form such that $\omega_{ij}(X) = \langle \nabla_{e_i} X, e_j \rangle$.
This is essentially rate of change of $X$ in the $e_i$-direction, felt in the $e_j$-component.
$\omega = (\omega_{ij})$ is a matrix of $1$-forms near $p$. This is the connection $1$-form if I recall right
OK, $d\omega + \omega \wedge \omega$ is the curvature 2-form I think
Sometimes I wonder if there is a relation between measure and topology
a set with positive measure vs a set with zero measure or is immeasurable seemed to have a lot to do with the topologies between borel sets and the target set
in particular, that the outer and inner measures mismatched in a nonmeasurable sets reminds me the non jordan curves on a torus
they got "stuck"
09:10
I almost do not understand ordinals in set theory at all, does someone knows how to easily explain that concept?
9
A: Definition of Ordinals in Set Theory in Layman Terms

user21820Counting has two purposes, namely for specifying sizes and indices. These are directly related for finite quantities, because the number of natural numbers (including $0$) less than $n$ (before the position $n$) is $n$. But in set theory, when generalizing to infinite sets these two notions becom...

@Secret Thanks, still complicated to me. :) I am relatively new to strictly formal set theory and ordinals.
How much of general set theory I miss if I skip ordinal numbers? :(
for an extremely gentle introduction without set theory stuff
09:25
@Ante pretty much everywhere in set theory ordinals are used
:( why?
Because they're useful
for what?
All sorts of (transfinite) recursive constructions
hmm... ok, so nonmeasurability does not really have to do with homology
because eh... a line is going to stay a line regardless of what measure you use on it
@AlessandroCodenotti do you know of any mathematical terminology or related concepts that studies how much a given outer and inner measure of a set differs?
09:38
@Secret Can one exist and other not?
no...?
you always going to have a infimum and a supremum for a measure
and so there is always an inner and outer measure for any measure
@Secret not really
hmm ok
 
4 hours later…
14:12
@AlessandroCodenotti I was talking to someone (in real life) and in between our conversation he said that Mathematics education almost ends with Bachelors course, and when we enter Masters or PhD it’s more like a research rather than a study
As you are a masters student, can you please tell me if he was right ?
14:24
Masters in the US and in Europe are two very different things, I can only talk about the European ones. They're pretty much the same as a bachelor, just with more advanced courses
Some programs are more research oriented and expect masters thesis to have something new research wise, but not even that is always a requirement
But you still have to take courses and pass exams
In good research oriented universities master courses might be about very recent developments in their field, but they're still standard courses with a lecturer and an exam rather than independent research
As far as I know very few people (few in comparison to other fields) take interest in the axiomatic set theory research, so if we take your example (f you don’t mind) then what is happening with you in Masters? Are you focusing much on recent developments or studying the things?
I took two masters level set theory courses, the first one was an introduction to forcing and inner models, the second one was about more advanced applications of forcing (class forcing, iterated forcing, forcing axioms, in particular MA and PFA and how to build models of them, applications of forcing to the tree property, Prirky forcing, Namba forcing etc.). I also took a seminar on large cardinals and a seminar on independence results outside of set theory
None of this courses is cutting edge research level, even though the second set theory course is much more advanced than courses offered on average in masters programs
Apart from those I also took courses in topology and analysis to fulfill the credits requirements for the program
14:41
Wow! Thank you. We had a nice conversation
14:53
It's a very basic theorem but I can't seem to find a formal proof (from some book). The theorem: if there are $m$ equations and $n$ variable for $m<n$ then there are infinite many solutions or no solution. Can someone please point me where I can find a formal proof?
@vesii: Are you talking about linear equations?
yes
Do you know how to convert a system of linear equations into an augmented matrix?
I do
Finally, do you know about reduced row echelon form?
15:06
I have the general idea of how to solve it. My problem is how to write it "mathematically"
Consider the reduced row echelon form. It is either consistent or inconsistent.
If it is inconsistent, there are no solutions.
If it is consistent, we have to rule out a unique solution.
What is the maximum number of pivots (also called leading 1's) in the reduced row echelon form of an m x n matrix?
15:19
Why $n-r=n-m$?
Are you only working over $\mathbb{R}$? The theorem is false otherwise
why is it false?
Consider $0$ equations and $1$ variable in any finite field
is it possible to have zero equations and non zero variables?
also, why $n-r=n-m$ in that proof?
It isn't, but rather $r \leq m$ so $n - r \geq n - m > 0$.
15:23
it is, the zero equations are fulfilled by all variables (of which there are finitely many over a finite field)
this just corresponds to looking at the kernel of the trivial map that sends everything to zero
What's true over any field is the following: The inhomogenous system either has no solution, or the solution space is a translate of the solution space of the corresponding homogenous system. This is the kernel of a linear map $K^n\rightarrow K^m$, where $K$ is the underlying field, and rank-nullity together with $m<n$ implies that the kernel has positive dimension. If $K$ is infinite, then it necessarily has infinitely many elements.
 
2 hours later…
17:09
@Ante by elementary number theory do you mean number theory that doesn't involve plural quantification? Which is pretty much another way of saying not number theory but ideally Number theory ought to be elementary and algebraic
But no I don't know if im skilled I don't have a certificate saying so
 
2 hours later…
19:16
Can anyone help with this question? math.stackexchange.com/questions/3582994/…
must I calculate the all angels in the space?
19:50
What I find remarkable with people in mathematics is they can process layer after layer of abstraction within it's boundaries, but it's unthinkable for such a thing to be true in an applied sense, ridiculous to not take anything at face value
Hey chat
hi^
@AdamL interesting
What is the name for a surface formed by taking the cross product of two vectors in $\Bbb R^2$ at each point and defining a new point directly above?
for example, if $S=(0,1)^2$ with a chart, and 90 degree angles between gridlines, one gets a plane, 1 unit above the surface
but if one deforms the mesh, $\psi: S \to S$ with a homeomorphism $\psi$, and then computes the cross-products at each point the plane is now deformed into a curved surface with boundary hugging the boundary $\partial S$
if $\psi$ is a made a continuous mapping, then you could run a program that lets you see how the surface deforms in real time. so you could associate a geometry to a set of warped curves on a plane
and the class of all homeomorphisms $\{\psi\}$ up to isotopy, could be given a group structure by quotienting by certain compatible objects. You could take the class of homotopies and do some cool stuff
2
Q: Interesting patterns related to the sums of the remainders of integers

MathphileLet us define, $$r(b)=\sum_{k=1}^{\lfloor \frac{b-1}{2} \rfloor} (b \bmod{k})$$ After reading the posts Surprising fact about a certain number-theoretic function and Do primes have special sums... I decided to play around with the $r(b)$ function and after performing some computations using PARI...

@EnjoysMath nice
:L)
:>
@geocalc33 what cohomology does is just take $C^m$ a module of general functions into a ring (since you can pointwise add and multiply by scalars, you have a module) and defines a differential map betwene $C^m$ and $C^{m+1}$ such that $d^2 = 0$ the zero map. Then magical things happen
@EnjoysMath you might post that to mathoverflow?
looks complicated
nice!!
You define $H_n = \ker d_n / \text{im} d_{n-1}$ as the $n$th (co-)homology module
21:28
that sounds interesting
It measures things like how many remainder maps there are left after quotienting by a submodule of a certain type.
I need to decompose a manifold into rings
but I don't know how to do it
@geocalc33 Do you know essentially what a module is?
no I have no idea what a module is
It's like a vector space except the field of scalars is replaced by the ring of scalars.
21:29
oh
So you can't divide by a nozero scalar, but you can multiply by one
oh okay
So For instance $\Bbb{Z}$ is a ring, so that $\Bbb{Z}$ itself is a $R$ module where $R = \Bbb{Z}$ itself.
so I could easily decompose a manifold into a module
$\Bbb{Z}^2$ under componentwise addition and multiplication is a ring but also a $\Bbb{Z}$-module in disguise
See how it can be two things?
Also prove to me that every $\Bbb{Z}$-module is an abelian group and the converse holds. Therefore they are the same things.
It's like letting $\Bbb{Z}$ be an additive group, but when you say ring you're looking at more structure (including distributive mult.)
So a module is in between a group and a ring
Since every ring $\Bbb{R}$ is naturally an $R$-module.
21:32
and a field
No
A field is a ring except every nonzero is invertible multiplicatively
no I'm saying, a module is similar to a group ring and field
Thus you have $(F \setminus 0, \cdot)$ is a group and $(F, +)$ is a group (two groups interacting). Then you have a field
two groups interacting
But if $(F\setminus 0, \cdot)$ is just a semigroup then you have a ring
interacting distributively $a (b + c) = ab +ac$
21:34
11 mins ago, by Mathphile
2
Q: Interesting patterns related to the sums of the remainders of integers

MathphileLet us define, $$r(b)=\sum_{k=1}^{\lfloor \frac{b-1}{2} \rfloor} (b \bmod{k})$$ After reading the posts Surprising fact about a certain number-theoretic function and Do primes have special sums... I decided to play around with the $r(b)$ function and after performing some computations using PARI...

Can someone have a look at my question?
I would love to see some ideas
S would we, I would break that down into one question and then show an attempt at answering it. That way it would get more attention for sure
agreed
@EnjoysMath what if I don't know where to start at all
@Mathphile where you having trouble, identify the textual location where your brain goes wtf
okay so here is my thought process
21:38
Okay, first break into cases so that the arithmetic works out nicely
even / odd
looks at question for 1 hour
Brain: Is this even provable?
maybe it's because I don't know enough math
the highest math I have done so far is calculus II
Nvm
I see what they're doing now
they're employing a trick called "working backwards from the desired equation"
21:41
So write down here in LaTeX the formula you want to show
then I can help you
Say for $b$ even, ...
Essentially given an equation in the ring $\Bbb{Z}/(k)$ (the integer modulo $k$ form a ring - look that up first)
$\sum_{k=1}^{\frac{b}{2}-1} (b \bmod{k})$?
Yes, equals?
In the setting of an equation in a ring, you can always do a few things.
What is a ring?
$A = B \iff aA = aB, a + A = a + B, A - a = B - a$ and so on, understanding this?
where $a \neq 0$
Sorry for being so dumb
21:45
A ring is a set of elements $R$, such that there are two binary operations on $R$
I really appreciate you trying to help me
And they interact distributively and are typically written as mult. and addition.
$a (b + c) = ab + ac$ is one of the defininig conditions (axioms) of the definition of a ring
that's implicitly for all $a, b, c \in R$.
So prove first that $\Bbb{Z}/(k)$ is a ring
$\Bbb{Z}/(k) = \{0, 1, \dots, k-1\}$ where $k \in \Bbb{Z}$.
$\Bbb{Z}/(2) = \{0, 1\}$ for instance has $\text{XOR} = +, \text{AND} = \cdot$
so would $\Bbb{Z}^n$ also be a ring?
Since $1 + 1 = 2 = 0 \pmod 2$, right?
$1 \ \text{XOR} \ 1 = 0$ in circuit logic
Yes, you've identified
The compontwise product of rings
and in this case the $n$-fold product of the ring $\Bbb{Z}$
21:48
$\Bbb{Z}/(k)$ is a ring quotient, so you'll have to know about quotienting a ring by an ideal
and why it still forms a ring
An ideal is a subring $I \subset R$ such that $rI \subset I$ for all $r \in R$ and that's called absorbing the whole ring
That makes $(k)$ an ideal, but a principal ideal since it's generated by $1$ element.
By generation I mean $(k) = \{ r k : r \in R\}$ literally
@EnjoysMath I don't think I am understanding much
so $(3) = \{3x : x \in \Bbb{Z}\}$
and so on
Look at my example
$3\Bbb{Z}$
I think I won't ask such questions anymore until I start some advanced math classes
21:51
is an ideal. You'll want to end up proving that $n\Bbb{Z} \equiv (n)$ where $\equiv$ means they're definitionally equal; are the only ideals of $\Bbb{Z}$
@EnjoysMath I really appreciate your help tho
Okay, do you know what a group is?
All the structures I mentioned so far are categorized as abstract algebraic structures
I am a CS major btw
21:52
the most basic (and most interesting) is the group.
Yes, they use group theory in CS see PRIMES is in P
15 page paper by AKS team in India
Why do groups occur everywhere? It could be because our world is in 4D space time or how we naturally view it and in that space rotations about a point form a kind of group
@EnjoysMath I have heard of these structures but never studied them
There's a rotational symmetry of space
Spacetime is 4d?
Well if you take a triangle and center it at $O$ on the $\Bbb{R}^2$ plane
It's set of reflective transformations, together with rotational transformations (about $O$) form a group
21:55
It's a finite group with $6$ elements called the Dihedral group of order $D_{2n} = 6$, where $n = 3$ the number of points in your regular polygon
So I'm just listing examples of groups, just to demonstrate they're everywhere. That is in no way a lesson on those groups specifically
oh
yeah
@Mathphile define a group for me. What is an abstract definition of a group?
@EnjoysMath a group is a set with a binary operation?
It's a set $G$ with a binary operation $\cdot$ sometimes written as "juxtaposition" $ab$ of two elements, such that $a^{-1}$ exists for each element which means you can left or right multiply by $a^{-1}$ and get as value the multiplicative identity $1$ of $G$. So in your problem equation $a = b$. You can do $1 = a^{-1} a = a^{-1} b$ and that goes in the other direction since you can multiply all thru by $a$, right?
So you say $a = b \iff ca = cb$ for all $a, b,c \in G$ and that's by definition of equality and "binary operation" (a function $G \times G \to G$).
@Mathphile almost. It's what you said, with the inclusion of all inverses with respect to the operation
21:58
Also there's a third axiom
It's $a(bc) = (ab)c$ or the associative law
without it, you only have what's called a magma which means you have to keep track of parentheses
but when $a(b(cd)) = (ab)(cd) = a(bc)d = \dots$ they're all equal by associtivity rule applications, so you can just drop all parentheses
That does not mean $a b = ba$. That's a condition called "abelianism". If you $G$ is defined as an abstract abelian group, then you add in the axiom $ab = ba \forall a,b, \in G$?
Does that make sense?
An abelian group is simply a commutative group.
commutative $\iff ab = ba, \ \forall a,b \in G$.
@EnjoysMath kind of
Thus in addition to being a group, what is $(\Bbb{Z}, +)$ as a structure?
It's an abelian group. Clearly as we commute addition of integers, right? $m + n = n + m$ naturally.
I'll brb in 10
without associativity, you still have a loop
@Mathphile solve the abelian group equation $a + b = c$ for $a$.
We'll keep working equations since your problem required working a modulo equation
22:04
ah damn
WHat's up?
I think I gtg for now
Cool cool
I hope to see you later
Same
@JackOhara solved DLP yet?
22:10
@AlessandroCodenotti play?
@EnjoysMath what's your strategy to solve DLP?
None, I give up
:D
@LeakyNun I can play a couple of games when I finish this one
What was your strategy before?
It failed
22:12
Alright send me a challenge @Leaky
done and done
@AlessandroCodenotti can you see it?
0
Q: Surface formed from cross product of vectors

geocalc33 What is the name for a surface formed by taking the cross-products of pairs of vectors, tangent to a grid, in $(0,1)^2$ at each point and defining a new point above the base space? For example, if $S=(0,1)^2$ with a specific chart, and 90 degree angles between gridlines, one computes the cro...

@EnjoysMath Still what was the main idea?
Yes, it failed horribly. So I don't want to polute the waters with any vague idea that it might be solvable that way
@EnjoysMath Hey mate
I am sorry I have been busy couple days
too much work
and corona is messing with the my world
How are you?
22:25
I'm good, haven't had a close encounter with the virus yet
I'm working on a python code, state machine editor
So you can write state machine entry/exit functions in python and drag / place nodes and transitions
I want to release it in a month
It will have built-in support for PyQt5 signals as transition events
Hey, "oof"
:D
I like when you say "oof"
lol how come?
it's expressive
@AlessandroCodenotti that wasn't resignable...
SF says -0.1
22:35
Hi chat
SF also says I was at +6, but it doesn't matter if I'm playing like a monkey tonight
high, how are you?
I mean, it was a drawn endgame
I can't win with one pawn
Whatever, I was annoyed
ok fair enough
22:36
I could have promoted to a queen
But only noticed that as I made a different move
where?
Uhm I just closed it
Before you put your rook behind my passed pawn
I could have sacked my rook checking your king
Followed by promotion
That's a very common pattern, when you have a pawn on the 7th rank with your rook in front of it, if the promoting square is not defended and you can check with the rook somehow then you can also promote
@LeakyNun Move 30 and 31
thanks
22:39
I noticed it in the moment I moved to recapture the bishop :/
Consider $\mathbb{R}$ and $[a,b]$. Then $[a,b]$ is totally bounded. Let $\epsilon>0$. Choose $N$ sufficiently large such that $\frac{(b-a)}{N}<\epsilon$. For $i=0,1....,N$, define
$x_i=a+i\frac{(b-a)}{N}$. Observe, $x_i\in [a,b]$, since $x_0<x_1<...<x_N=b$.
Then How do I show that $[a,b] \subseteq \bigcup_{i=0}^N[x_{i-1},x_{i}]$ formally?
You could say obvious there just since $x_0 \lt \dots \lt x_N$
pigeon hole, right?
And each interval clearly overlaps
I don't see pigeonholing required
hmm. the lecturer bracketed pigeon hole
There is a transitivity going on
@AlessandroCodenotti SF says 6. Nc3 in our first game was a blunder (0 -> -2) but I have no idea why
I tried following the SF line but I still don't understand
$[x_1, x_2] \cup [x_2, x_3] = [x_1, x_3]$. So by transitivity usage and induction, you have your proof
22:44
You could look, for each $x\in [a,b]$, at $\{i, x_i<x\}$
That set is finite and non empty so has a max, say $M$
then $x_M \lt x \le x_{M+1}$
There are extreme cases that you have to care about
Oh, I probably misunderstood
Is $[a,b]\times [c,d]$ totally bounded?
What does totally bounded mean ?
@Astyx $X$ is totally bounded if for each $\epsilon>0$ there exists finite many balls of radius $\epsilon$ which cover $X$
equivalently, if for all epsilon, $X$ can be covered by finitely many sets, each of diameter less than epsilon
It is
22:56
@topologicalorientablesurface yes
if $X$ and $Y$ are metric space and $X$ is totally bounded and $Y$ is totally bounded, then is $X\times Y$ totally bounded? (where $X\times Y$ is equipped with the standard metric)
?
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