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12:01 AM
@Astyx So, by looking to the chain of $B_i$, each element in that chain must be finitely generated. Further, the union over the chain must also be finitely generated. So, the chain must stabilize. I think I might need to show that the $B$ for $\bigcup_iI_i$ is $\bigcup_iB_i$ itself, though, in order to make this argument
 
12:11 AM
Ah yes you're right
 
Excellent. I have too little experience with non-Noetherian stuff to be entirely 100% on my approaches with this stuff, so it's good to get confirmation
 
12:27 AM
@TedShifrin I think the Hölder exponent of a space-filling curve needs to be at least $1/n$ (not Lipshitz exponent). But by the way a Hilbert curve fills a cube with subcubes, I think it needs to be $2^n:1$ at some points.
But I'm not as sure about the last part.
 
 
1 hour later…
1:40 AM
Question. Given a field $K$, then consider the ring $R=K[x,\{y_i\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}}]$ and the ideal $I$ generated by all polynomials of the form $x-\prod_{i=1}^ny_i$. Is $R/I$ Noetherian?
Writing it down, I'm pretty sure the answer is no, because the ideal $(\{y_i\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}})$ is not finitely generated. However, it doesn't satisfy the other property I'm looking for (All radical ideals are the same ideal).
I think what I want is something like $R=K[x,\{y_i\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}}]$ and $I$ is the ideal generated by all polynomials of the form $y_i-x^{p_i}$ where $p_i$ is the $i-$th prime in the integers.
(Disclaimer: Goal is to find a ring that isn't SFT but which still satisfies the ascending chain condition on radical ideals. My thought is to make it easy by having all radical ideals be the same ideal)
Yeah, my last idea doesn't work either. It's just $K[x]$, in the end
Maybe $y_i^{p_i}-x^{p_i}$? Is $(x,\{y_i\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}})$ still a prime ideal in that version? I think so. Then the radical is the entire ring, so any chain of radical ideals automatically stabilizes
(Thank you all for allowing me to rubber-duck)
 
2:05 AM
@TedShifrin Sorry for the late reply. Um.. well I wish to have another choice, but I must solve these problems if I want to learn. It's not that I haven't tried. Its just that I came to a point where I cannot go further without help. Its kind of depressing for someone when your own ability doesn't let you solve more problems though. I think in this case, in the sense of euclidean geometry the thing is that is more than drawing because some problems require construction.
@TedShifrin But I'm having the impression that some problems requiring the use of other tools other than just typing mathjax gather some indiference or nuisance to some people because they think the OP doesn't have the desire to do a drawing of its own, which I do difer.
@TedShifrin Had just read your comment about drawing a perpendicular. Yes I tried doing this but I'm stuck. The official solution is that the angle is $53/2^{\circ}$. The question is how to get there. As it stands now the question remains unanswered and nobody can post answers. Which I do hope other people could come and vote to reopen.
Just in case I'm referring to the question math.stackexchange.com/questions/3916522/…
 
Is there an adequate mathematical definition for a phase space in thermodynamics, especially for the sigma algebra that we integrate against? How does the discretization work here?
 
mentioned earlier. Sorry buddy but I had to go, its late in my timezone. But I'll check it later. It seems that the indicated approach is trying to spot the right congruence set of triangles in the figure to get it done correctly.
 
Our lecturer defined it rather mathematically but still vaguely, such that it seems like nonsense if I read carefully
"The event sigma-algebra is generated by the set of all micro states"
Microstates are identified with compact regions in space of some specified volume
Is that just a finite partition? Or are there infinite "possibilities" that are included as well, i.e. all such regions in space that have midpoints lying on some possible trajectory
 
2:39 AM
I'm trying to show that $M_n(R^{opp}) \cong M_n(R)^{opp}$ as rings. My thought was that $\varphi : M_n(R)^{opp} \to M_n(R^{opp})$ defined by $\varphi (A) = A^{T}$ is the desired isomorphism. But I'm a little confused as to what I have to verify...Clearly $\varphi^{-1} = \varphi$, so it is bijective, $\varphi (A+B) = (A+B)^{T} = A^{T} + B^{T}$, and $\varphi (A \star B) = \varphi (BA) = (BA)^{T} = A^{T} B^{T} = \varphi (A) \varphi (B)$...
Is that it?
Seems like a cheesy proof.
 
I don't think $\varphi^{-1}=\varphi$, given that codomain and domain are different
 
Ah, you're right. I thought something was off.
Does the definition of $\varphi$ even make sense?
 
3:03 AM
@ChrisSteinbeckBell I believe that answer is impossible. It is in fact $30^\circ$, which is what I figured from the beginning. Did you read my conversation with @Astyx? You have to use the geometry I talked about and a bunch of algebra. Try to follow what I said about similar triangles and Pythagorean Theorem. And note that I gave intermediate results. Try to get them.
If you make sincere efforts and ask me a few questions, you should get it.
 
@Thorgott Actually, I think it's all right because the underlying sets are the same.
 
3:20 AM
Question, if you have a prime element $x$ that divides a high enough power of all generators of a ring, then, for any particular element of that ring, can you find a high enough power of that element such that $x$ divides it?
I'm fooling around with the multinomial theorem, but I keep ending up doubting myself
 
3:35 AM
The answer is "nope"
 
in the ring Z[x], x divides x, and {x} generates Z[x], but x does not divide 1
 
A good point
 
3:51 AM
@LeakyNun Does what I wrote above about $M_n(R^{opp}) \cong M_n(R)^{opp}$ seem right?
 
 
2 hours later…
6:19 AM
I asked this before and I thought I prove but turned out that my proof have some error.
$\Bbb Q(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}+\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}+\sqrt[p_3]{q_3}) = \Bbb Q(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1},\sqrt[p_2]{q_2},\sqrt[p_3]{q_3})$
 
 
3 hours later…
8:58 AM
Games you can play with area:
 
9:45 AM
@skullpatrol extreme gerrymandering
 
10:07 AM
@MikeMiller Oooooh! That was my error indeed. Thanks a lot!
 
I could use some help with a problem, if anyone has any knowledge on said problem
The problem is "Let $R$ be $1-$dimensional and Noetherian. Show that, if $\mathfrak{P}$ is a prime ideal of $R$ and $T$ is an overring of $R$ then there are only (at most) finitely many prime ideals in $T$ that lie over $\mathfrak{P}$."
I'm having trouble getting a good grip on it. I made a concerted effort to figure it out based on an incorrect assumption that $R$ was a domain, but that's not being assumed here, so that effort went out the window
 
sorry to bother you all, I need a brief help trying to recognize an equation.
I have a covariance matrix whose elements are computed in a given frame.
Now, a former colleague extracted the projection on the y and z axis of a different frame by appling the following:
[CoV22, CoV12*tan(phi);
CoV12*tan(phi), Cov33 - 2CoV13*tan(phi) + CoV11*tan(phi)^2]
Now, I can't find in the documentation how this transformation is derived, but I know from context that phi is the angle between the two frames, and the rotation is around the y axis (that should be in common between the two frames, and this seem
 
10:49 AM
Bangladesh-mandering? @robjohn :P
 
 
1 hour later…
12:07 PM
@Rithaniel what's an overring in the context of not necessarily integral domains
 
Do you people know about pari/gp
 
Hello @DanielSehnColao
 
12:22 PM
Given a smooth oriented atlas A on a topological manifold M, can I construct a smooth oriented structure on M?
oriented atlas - the determinant of the differential of every transition map is positive
 
what's an oriented structure to you
 
oriented structure - a smooth structure s.t the determinant of all the transition maps is positive
maximal oriented smooth atlas *
 
Sure
What's wrong with "the collection of all charts so that the transition functions to any chart in A are smooth and have positive Jacobian determinant"
 
yeah, that
 
But is it a structure? I mean, can't I add another chart that is compatible with all the charts in this structure but does not preserve orientation?
 
12:34 PM
That doesn't sound like an oriented smooth atlas anymore
"Maximal oriented smooth atlas" means you can't add another chart and have it remain an oriented smooth atlas
 
My definition of oriented smooth manifold is a a smooth manifold that have a structure s.t every transition map has a differential with positive determinant. If I understand this correctly, I must find a structure with orientation
smooth manifold that can admit a structure s.t every transition map ...
 
You or your source are being sloppy with definitions. Your confusion stems from the ambiguity in the word "structure".
[One definition of] an oriented smooth manifold is a smooth manifold equipped with a maximal smooth oriented atlas. A smooth oriented atlas is an atlas so that all transitions functions are smooth with det(Df) > 0. A maximal smooth oriented atlas is a smooth oriented atlas which is not contained in a smooth oriented atlas with more charts.
The definition is not a smooth manifold equipped with a maximal atlas (maximal among all smooth atlases), so that in this maximal atlas, we happen to also have det(Df) > 0 for every map. That's not the definition because no such thing exists.
As you say you could just include a chart which is oriented incorrectly. Easy to produce; take an oriented chart and precompose with a reflection on R^n.
 
I really though I am losing my mind over it
thank you very much. This really helps
 
1:11 PM
>when you look at a sheet, think that this is pretty chill, and then notice there is a page 2
 
literally had exactly the same thought just now
first page was some nice calculations about units in local fields, second page "HENSELIANNESS COMMUTES WITH FILTERED COLIMITS"
 
that sounds nice
 
hello chat
what's up
 
yo @Astyx
 
1:33 PM
are mixture distributions well-understood?
 
2:23 PM
what kinds of norms can you put on a function space?
 
how do I show that $z-(x-a_1z)(x-a_2z)(x-a_3z)$, $-(x-a_2z)(x-a_3z)-(x-a_1z)(x-a_3z)-(x-a_1z)(x-a_2z)$ and $1+a_1(x-a_2z)(x-a_3z)+a_2(x-a_1z)(x-a_3z)+a_3(x-a_1z)(x-a_2z)$ can not be simultaneously zero, where $a_1,a_2,a_3$ are distinct complex numbers
there should be some exploitable symmetry, but all the arithmetic I do ends up very cranky
 
So many questions but so few answers
 
Where is this from?
There must be a better expression of this junk
 
trying to show the vanishing locus of $y^2z-(x-a_1z)(x-a_2z)(x-a_3z)$ is a smooth projective plane curve
above is just how it looks like in affine coordinates with $y=1$ and the derivatives
 
is this a norm? $f:\frac{s}{x}\mapsto s$ because it associates every function to a real number $s$?
 
2:35 PM
Yeah there must be something better to say let me think
@Thorgott Seems like it might be better to think about the homogeneous polynomial in 3D instead
$y = 1$ seems to make this uglier
But Iunno
 
the only definition of smooth projective plane curve I have is that it's a smooth affine plane curve in every affine chart
it's horrible
 
If you call $u_i = x-za_i$, equation 1 tells you $z = u_1u_2u_3$ and eq 3 tells you this isn't 0
Then equation 2 tells you $u_1u_2 + u_2u_3 + u_1u_3 = 0$
Finally replacing $a_i = (u_1-x)/z$ in equation 3, you find 4=0
 
how does eq3 say that isn't 0?
 
If z is zero, x is zero by eq 1, and 1=0 in eq 3
I meant $a_i = (u_i-x)/z$ of course
 
2:51 PM
right, you get $-2=0$ in the end, but I got it now
thanks man
 
adding integers is hard :(
glad to help
 
Hey, I have a question
How can we prove that of p is an odd prime and gcd(a,p)=1, then the congruence $$x^2\equiv a(\mathrm{mod }p^n)\quad n\ge 1$$ has a solution if and only if (a/p)=1.
Here (a/p) is legendre symbol
I proved that the congruence has a solution implies (a/p)=1, but couldn't prove the converse
Can someone help me?
Any idea?
 
3:26 PM
@epic_math if $\left(\frac{a}{p}\right)=1$, then $x^2=a\pmod{p}$ has a solution. By Hensel's lemma this solution lifts to a solution $x^2=a\pmod{p^n}$
 
Thanks
But I have to use induction.
 
Lifting can be done inductively
 
OK, so you want to prove Hensel's lemma by induction. You know there is a solution x^2 = a mod p. Prove that if there is a solution to x^2 = a mod p^n then there is also a solution of x^2 = a mod p^{n+1}.
 
Hi, is there someone that can help me with a control theory/robotics question? I am really stuck. Thanks in advance.
 
I would guess we have no such experts here but you can of course ask
 
3:37 PM
I have posted on the forum ,I don't know if I am doing wrong asking it here, it is the first time I write on this chat, so in case please tell me. The probem is the following: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3919495/…
 
Hopefully somebody will be able to help. You may want to look for tags that have more subscribers --- your top tag there still has very few questions
So few people are likely to see your post
 
Does someone know any journals for analytic NT?
 
I will try to put a different tag. Thank you for the suggestion
 
I found many journals for NT, but they mostly contained algebraic NT.
Not satisfactory
@J.D. it is a long post, you surely put effort in it
 
yes I have been working on this a lot, but I cannot find a way to solve this problem
 
3:43 PM
the journal of number theory eg has many papers on both analytic and algberaic number theory. In any case most people do not find/read new results by browsing a journal; they follow tags on the arXiv.
 
Yeah I am not searching only for new results
But I want journals that are completely on analytic NT
 
ok.
 
Fine
I would be glad if someone recommended a good journal
 
that's a great journal. what do you actually want this for?
 
Research (I want to collect info)
 
3:47 PM
ok. well, I'll let you do that
 
For information I will probably ask here if I don't get journals
Right now my research is on primes of various forms
And those forms are number theoretic functions.
I post my notes on my analytic number theory room

 Analytic number theory

For people interested in analytic number theory, a field of ma...
 
0
Q: Matrix Algebra Over the Opposite Ring

user193319I'm trying to show that $M_n(R^{opp}) \cong M_n(R)^{opp}$ as rings. My thought was that $\varphi : M_n(R)^{opp} \to M_n(R^{opp})$ defined by $\varphi (A) = A^{T}$ is the desired isomorphism. But I'm a little confused as to what there is to verify... Clearly $\varphi^{-1} = \varphi$, so it is bije...

 
4:03 PM
p-addicts are crazy when you have to deal with them
 
@epic_math why not listen to @Mike's advice?
why do you want a journal that is specifically on analytic number theory? lol
and why don't you just read an analytic NT book lol
and why don't you quit analytic NT because it's lame
/s
 
not really /s tho
 
(not really /s tho)
but I gotta be diplomatic
 
4:34 PM
@EdwardEvans you can erase the adjective before NT
 
Someone's gonna get hurt
 
4:50 PM
@user2103480 you wanna fight mate
 
algebrawl
 
5:02 PM
@EdwardEvans no thanks I'm busy studying useful topics
 
useful to who
 
physicists, mathematical biologists and finance people I guess?
 
yuck
 
Hmm 1/3 useful ain't bad
 
@MikeMiller that third refers to physics I suppose
tbh the neuroscience stuff I'm learning seems far from being useful to normal people
"i Do mAtHEmatIcAl nEuROsCiEnCE" aka electronic circuit analysis on steroids
 
5:09 PM
kirchoff's rule?
 
Hi, do you know if there is a chat for control theory? Thanks in advance.
 
@geocalc33 yeah literally
 
@user2103480 The jewel of mathematics
 
@Astyx we put stochastic noise terms on it so it gets to bad SDEs pretty quickly
 
@user2103480 absolutely not
 
5:12 PM
@MikeMiller wait, so mathematical biologists are useful? Or finance people?
To be fair, I think you cannot get better intuitive explanations of SDEs than on quant stack exchange (sad state of affairs)
 
@user2103480 you won't be laughing when number theorists accidentally stumble across the access codes to the Zion mainframe and destroy humanity
 
You can't laugh if you don't exist any more
 
i literally couldn't think of something real to spite you with
so I just
did the matrix
 
@EdwardEvans you bet I'll laugh
it was long overdue
number theorist DESTROYED by nihilism and logic
 
hahaha
 
5:16 PM
@user2103480 Imagine how useless the other ones are if mathematical biologists count as useful
 
can anyone name me set of stochastic partial differential coupled elliptic-hyperbolic nonlinear equations?
 
@MikeMiller Then how useless must I be
 
Turns out the zeta function is encrypting the access to the CPU
 
i have a wound that's looking pretty infected
getting kinda unsettling
 
@geocalc33 no
 
5:16 PM
there's a small civilisation growing around it
 
can any pde be recast as spde?
 
@user2103480 Useful is a silly word
We are engaging in a pastime
to pass the time
 
until the Earth reclaims us
 
5:28 PM
the only thing more silly than usefulness is finance
 
can any partial differential partial differential equation be coaxed into a stochastic partial differential equation though ?
 
Let $A$ be a ring, and $k$ be a field which is also a $A$-module. Is it possible for a $A$-module $B$, the $A$-module $k \otimes_A B$ is nonzero as a $A$-module, but zero as a $k$-vector space?
 
5:44 PM
@Astyx Controlling Parallel Universe?
 
@Lelouch No, being zero is determined purely by the abelian group
 
@robjohn Shhh, don't say it out loud, you're going to anger them
 
@Astyx Say what out loud? !-)
 
The mean square is now a circle :O
 
6:11 PM
@geocalc33 I'm pretty sure not every PDE can be easily cast into one one of the forms of SPDE
there are various issues of well-definedness
Making sense of SPDEs is actually a huge research topic
There are, like, three approaches to defining several kinds of solutions to SPDEs
 
imagine studying a topic where the topic is finding out what the topic is
 
6:27 PM
@user2103480 What text did you use in that weird corurse where you proved Brouwer by way of Sperner
 
@Khallil pie are round; cornbread are square.
 
6:58 PM
@anakhro I recall you stating before that any manifold can be written as several transversal manifolds. Correct?
 
What is the geometric intuition behind "geometrically integral/irreducible/reduced" schemes?
 
7:40 PM
@Thorgott Well, in not necessarily integral domains, the equivalence relation on fraction is as follows: $\frac{a}{b}=\frac{c}{d}$ if and only if there exists $t\in R$ such that $t(ab-bc)=0$
So, in effect, if $c$ is a zero divisor, then there exists $t$ such that $tc=0$ and so $\frac{0}{1}=\frac{c}{d}$ where $d$ is arbitrary.
 
I don't follow, are you trying to localize?
 
Well, an overring is a ring between a base ring and it's quotient field. So I always imagine an overring as adjoining fractions to the base ring.
 
Yeah, but quotient field only makes sense for integral domains. So an overring in general is a subring of some localization of the base ring?
 
Ah, yeah, that's why I was bringing up the equivalence relation. In non-integral-domains, the quotient field simply can simply map all zero divisors to 0.
 
@Rithaniel it seems like you're localizing at the whole of $R$, this will just get you the zero ring
 
7:49 PM
Yeah, that's why you generally exclude zero divisors from the denominators.
Like, even if you're in a non-integral-domain, you still include that restriction
 
you need to take $t$ only from some multiplicative subset
otherwise that might not actually be an equivalence relation
 
I think that might be right. I should look up the definition again
Yeah, I actually made an incorrect statement just now, I think
 
yes, you need $t \in S$. If you allow $t=0$, then all fractions are equal
where $S \subset R$ is some multiplicatively closed subset
 
Yeah, you don't necessarily exclude zero divisors, but you do exclude zero.
That's what I misremembered
 
@geocalc33 no, I think the thing you asked amounted to wondering if any manifold can be written as the transverse intersection of two manifolds.
 
7:59 PM
@anakhro okay that works. So if that's true, for a simple example, consider $\Bbb R^2$. This is the intersection between two $\Bbb R^3$'s?
wait no
$\Bbb R^2$ can be written as two transversal submanifolds of $\Bbb R^2$?
 
I don't know what that means.
 
in other words how does one write R^2 as two transversal manifolds based on the fact that any manifold can be written as the transverse intersection of two manifolds
 
hint: $\mathbb{R}^2=\mathbb{R}^2\cap\mathbb{R}^2$
 
2
Q: How should we interpret this figure that relates the perceptron criterion and the hinge loss?

The PointerI am currently studying the textbook Neural Networks and Deep Learning by Charu C. Aggarwal. Chapter 1.2.1.2 Relationship with Support Vector Machines says the following: The perceptron criterion is a shifted version of the hinge-loss used in support vector machines (see Chapter 2). The hinge lo...

 
@Thorgott can you delve into further details?
 
8:13 PM
@geocalc33 what does it mean for two submanifolds of M to be transverse?
 
sure, $\phi\vdash\phi\land\phi$
4
 
Thorgott is rippin people to shredz
 
Thorgott is finally doing some logic
 
@Thorgott I am trying to follow your logic
@anakhro it means that the tangent spaces added together generate the dimension of the ambient space
 
small brain topology vs big brain tautology
6
 
8:21 PM
@geocalc33 So pick your ambient space. You seemed to be suggesting R^2 before, so maybe start there.
 
Earlier I discovered yet another very awful space: The Cook continuum is a compact metric space with the property that all continuous functions to itself are either constant or the identity
 
that sounds kinda cool
tell me how to define that space and I will retract this statement
 
@anakhro if the ambient space is R^2 then we need the tangent spaces of the two submanifolds to add up to 1+1=2
so $\Bbb R^2 \cap \Bbb R^2$ is the answer?
I literally have no idea
 
Why can't you just apply your definition to this to find out yourself?
 
I have no idea how to apply my definition. Maybe it's R^1 cap R^1
 
8:30 PM
@Thorgott I don't know, I haven't checked the details. The paper is quite short though, we can look at it if you want
 
@geocalc33 What is stopping you from applying you definition?
 
"Continua which admit only the identity mapping onto non-degenerate subcontinua" is such a fun name
wow, there's even commutative diagrams in there
 
continuum (plural continua) is just a very fancy sounding name for compact connected metrizable space
 
not necessarily with cardinality continuum?
 
@anakhro I am trying to generate the tangent space of R^2 using two 1-manifolds, so I can take two 1-manifolds that intersect, and add the tangent spaces at that point. With this I can get two vectors that span R^2
 
8:35 PM
@Thorgott That's a consequence of those properties, isn't it?
 
singleton?
 
yeah ok that's the only exception
Often people assume that they are dealing with nondegenerate continua (continua with more than one point)
 
why can't you get larger than continuum?
 
In mathematics, transversality is a notion that describes how spaces can intersect; transversality can be seen as the "opposite" of tangency, and plays a role in general position. It formalizes the idea of a generic intersection in differential topology. It is defined by considering the linearizations of the intersecting spaces at the points of intersection. == Definition == Two submanifolds of a given finite-dimensional smooth manifold are said to intersect transversally if at every point of intersection, their separate tangent spaces at that point together generate the tangent space of...
@geocalc33 Note that you have put yourself in the second case.
Where the sum must be direct.
 
@Thorgott There is a countable dense set $D$ and every element of the space is the limit of a sequence in $D$, of which there are continuum many ($|D|^{\aleph_0}$)
 
8:38 PM
What does it say there about the dimension of their intersection?
 
why's there a countable dense set? are we assuming separable?
 
compact metric spaces are always separable
 
huh, I didn't know that
 
Cover with balls of radius $1/n$, pick a finite subcover, pick a point in each ball. Repeat with $n+1$ and so on
 
@anakhro it says the dimension of the intersection is a point, or a zero-manifold
 
8:40 PM
right, I just thought of that as well
that's good to know
 
This is really a proof that totally bounded implies separable, but compactness obviously implies totally bounded
In fact a metric space is separable iff it has an equivalent totally bounded metric
 
infact, for metric spaces separable is equivalent to Lindelöff (every open cover has a countable subcover) which implies compact metrizable => separable as well
 
actually, why can't we get anything less than continuum
 
@geocalc33 What is the dimension of R^2?
 
2
I know that one!
 
8:43 PM
fix $x_0\neq x_1$, and look at $f\colon X\to\Bbb R$, $f(y)=d(x_0,y)$. The image of $f$ contains the interval $[0,d(x_0,x_1)]$ since $X$ is connected
 
ah, neat
 
@geocalc33 So apparently if you want to get R^2 as a transverse intersection of submanifolds of R^2, you need to change your approach.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti here one direction is obvious, the other is that if $X$ is separable, then it embeds into $[0,1]^\Bbb N$, and the metric it gets as a subspace from there is totally bounded since the Hilbert cube is compact
 
@anakhro so how do you write R^2 as two transverse manifolds intersecting?
 
I wonder if every non-compact metric space admits an incomplete metric
 
8:46 PM
yes
 
@MikeMiller I think the main text for that lecture is armstrong
 
@Alessandro how do you show this?
 
@geocalc33 Did you try applying your definition to the case which Thorgott suggested?
 
It's nontrivial. There is a proof in Engelking but I remember reading a question on MSE on that same topic, let me see if I can find it
 
I don't understand how $\Bbb R^2=\Bbb R^2 \cap \Bbb R^2$ @anakhro
 
8:48 PM
What does the right hand side say?
 
how can $\Bbb R^2$ intersect itself transversally?
 
Well try out the definition.
What do you have to check?
 
@Thorgott lmao finally
 
20
Q: Is there always an equivalent metric which is not complete?

AnirbanI have seen that completeness is not a topological property like compactness or connectedness. I have seen some examples also showing that there are two equivalent metrics one of which is complete and the other one is incomplete. I want to know some general result. Consider any metric space $(X,d...

 
@anakhro gotta check that $T\Bbb R^2 + T\Bbb R^2=T\Bbb R^2$
 
8:50 PM
thanks
 
@geocalc33 O.K. so have you checked that?
 
@anakhro yes and I found that $2+2\ne 2$
 
@LukasHeger The answer by Eric Wofsey is kind of black magic but quite nice
 
although I seriously don't want to see Logic-Thorgott
 
@geocalc33 Look at this again. What does the + mean?
 
8:52 PM
he'll do topos theory or some shite smh
 
@geocalc33 in the definition of transversal intersection, there is no requirement that the sum is a direct sum
 
@user2103480 this isnt even my final form
 
the plus sign means addition of the tangent spaces
 
@geocalc33 So what does the left side equal?
 
8:55 PM
"You can't defeat me" - "I know, but he can"
 
@geocalc33 Why do you say 4? That isn't a tangent space.
That is a number.
 
Thor's final form is "inventing new axiom sets"-Thorgott
 
@anakhro the tangent space of R^2 is straight lines from a point
so it looks like $\star$
 
@geocalc33 I think you mean something a lot more specific than that. However, I don't know what this has to do with how that sum is equal to just "4". Do you know what a vector space is?
 
it's a space of elements closed under scalar mult and addition
 
8:59 PM
That sounds more like a vector subspace, but close enough.
What does it mean to add two vector subspaces?
 
you just add the elements together
 
Okay, let's do a little example.
 
@Rithaniel that is easier than it sounds
 
$U+V=\{u+v|u\in U, v\in V\}$
 
the hard part is showing that they add something new, or don't add something new
 
9:01 PM
Consider R as your vector space. R is of course a subspace of itself.
What is R+R, as the addition of vector subspaces?
 
There's also a thing about showing that they can never contradict themselves, right?
 
Great.
So try looking at your question again.
 
so R^2 + R^2 = R^2 when considered vector spaces
 
@Rithaniel I was half joking. If they're contradictory, they can prove anything, and that's a known axiom system, and if they're (assumably) non-contradictory, they need to not be equivalent to known axiom systems
 
9:06 PM
Interdasting
I always really enjoy particularly abstract topics in math
 
@geocalc33 So what is your conclusion?
 
This is overly simplifying though. Showing equivalence between different statements and axiom systems is a huge topic
 
@anakhro my conclusion is that R^2 can be written as, R^2 transversal to R^2
 
@Rithaniel you may get over that someday. There's almost always a point where you ask whether certain abstractions are actually necessary, sensible or useful
and tbh at some point almost any topic is pretty abstract
 
I've kind of seen that already. Like, talking about magmas. They're honestly way too nebulous
How do things like the group axioms fit into axiom sets? They're in addition to the base axioms, right?
 
9:10 PM
@Rithaniel nope, they're just the group axioms
 
@Rithaniel Your vid was nebulously well done :-)
 
but you can't do all the considerations of subgroups etc without a set theory as a metatheory
 
Ah, the talk I gave the math club about groups and the monster group? Danke schön
 
Yup
 
the group axioms are there to reason within the group
to reason about groups, you need more
and it's not like you just take the union of the axioms
 
9:13 PM
remark about gRoUP oBjeCts
 
(Yeah, I still can't bring myself to watch the video, myself)
Alright, so you could add axioms to the group theory axioms that would facilitate those metatheory axioms?
 
but rather that you start with the set theory axioms, and within that formal system, you define groups and study them
@Rithaniel not exactly. sets are our building blocks of the universe
if you add group axioms, you say that our universe is a group to some operation
which is an interesting concept but uhh not your goal I think
 
Okay, so axioms only talk about the thing they are inside, and to analyze that thing, you need axioms from outside it?
 
basically
 
Again, interdasting
 
9:16 PM
@anakhro do you know how to combine metrics $ds_1^2 \otimes ds_2^2= \bigg (\frac{dxdy}{xy}\bigg)\bigg( \frac{dxdy}{y-xy} \bigg)$?
 
Philosophically, logically? All very interesting stuff
 
So, to analyze axiom sets, you kind of need axioms from outside the space of all universes? That's mind-bendy
 
For doing serious mathematics? Mostly very useless, unless you're a model theory god
Serious = everyday mathematics. Not to offend anyone, I very much like logic
and respect the immense difficulty of the area
 
Eh, it's all in pursuit of solving problems in abstract environments. Solve something in generality and you understand the world better
 
Bold claim
maybe infinitesimally
 
9:24 PM
@user2103480 triggered
 
@AlessandroCodenotti you still have time to become that model theory god
 
Right now I'm trying to understand the Hrushovski construction, so I feel very far from even a remotely decent model theorist :P
 
Howdy, demonic.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti try to find the computability aspect of it :P
Ha! As always, there's a computability aspect
 
9:32 PM
There is also some work on the computability of Fraisse limits, which are like the easier, more classical case, of the Hrushovski construction (or so I'm told since I don't understand the latter)
 
RIP
sounds harsh
 
It's not something that I need to worry about so it's fine
 
9:58 PM
"In mathematical logic, specifically in the discipline of model theory, the Fraïssé limit (also called the Fraïssé construction or Fraïssé amalgamation) is a method used to construct (infinite) mathematical structures from their (finite) substructures. It is a special example of the more general concept of a direct limit in a category."
nice
 
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