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12:25 AM
Hi @TedShifrin hope you are well and enjoying yourself!
 
12:36 AM
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond hi
 
hey
 
that Hamiltonian group description failed
 
why
 
$C^1 = L^1$ a line yet $L^2 = 1$ and $C^n = 1$.
For larger $n$
 
12:37 AM
oh word
 
There are weaker conjectures such as every finite connected cayley graph of a group is hamiltonian
Just as hard to prove, but should be easier in the long run
 
facts
 
you answered one of my questions a while back
 
Looks legit, but I can't comment on it
I upvoted :)
 
12:40 AM
I can't prove it lol
maybe i should bounty it up[p]
 
Here's an open problem from that link that seems to be lowest fruit:
 
okay^
 
If $G_1, G_2$ are two $p$-groups then $G_1 \times G_2$ has a Hamiltonian cycle
That's an open problem!
in math
 
what is a p group
 
$|G| = p^n$, prime $p$
 
12:42 AM
ah
 
the number of its elements is finite of order power of a prime number
$G_1 \times G_2$ is just componentwise stuff
 
cartesian product?
 
Yep or product (in cat theory)
Let's prove it!
lol
 
prove haWHAT? the open question?
 
Yes the $G_1 \times G_2$ is hamiltonian
when groups are $p$ groups
p-groups are mentioned in first year algebra courses
AA, probably graduate level
 
12:46 AM
I wonder how that is still open
 
wait i have a question i need to ask you
 
Perhaps it's an old PP presentation
but it would still be fun to work out
Sure!
One stage would involve coding to search for small counter-examples (Python)
 
Let's say
okay
 
I'm listening
 
12:51 AM
look at those lines
pretend that they are straight and are the projection of longitudinal geodesics of a sphere onto a plane
 
so the boundary of this should be a disk right
 
I suppose it could be
 
it is
because the shadow of a sphere (2 sphere ) has a boundary of a circle
 
12:58 AM
the lines start at one end of the disk and go to the other point on the disk furthest away
 
collect these lines and call it a phase space
 
K, does it have structure other than topological?
 
symplectic
 
Not sure what that is, is it algebra in some way?
 
1:05 AM
Symplectic geometry is a branch of differential geometry and differential topology that studies symplectic manifolds; that is, differentiable manifolds equipped with a closed, nondegenerate 2-form. Symplectic geometry has its origins in the Hamiltonian formulation of classical mechanics where the phase space of certain classical systems takes on the structure of a symplectic manifold. == Introduction == A symplectic geometry is defined on a smooth even-dimensional space that is a differentiable manifold. On this space is defined a geometric object, the symplectic form, that allows for the...
 
I see, differential forms
I know a little but not much
 
so interpreting as a phase space allows
for an interpretation of these lines as a manifold
 
What follows is a natural Hamiltonian vector field, which defines a Hamiltonian flow on each of the symplectic manifolds.
 
Gonna make coffee brb 3mins
Hamiltonian sounds physicsy
It's an espresso machine so it's fast
b
 
1:15 AM
ok
any questions
 
Lots since I don't understand that math yet
But one day...
 
I guess that's it
because I don't know what else to do either
ah
the tangent bundle
do you understand the tangent bundle?
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond
 
1:57 AM
Do any of you guys know about this article: A NEW UPPER BOUND FOR THE SUM OF DIVISORS FUNCTION by Christian Axler. It's from Cambridge. I was hoping someone could help me get it.
 
2:44 AM
Nope @Ultradark
didn't get that far
If $T \subset G$ generates group $G$ and $S \subset H$ generates group $H$, then what generates $G \times H$ does $T \times S$ do the trick? (doesn't have to be minimal)
 
 
3 hours later…
5:49 AM
@QuoteDave hack the data banks
:D
First you gotta factor large integers
It's just another math problem lol
 
6:39 AM
The following object produced by some brainstorming of some world building group breaks classical logic:
 
6:51 AM
Recall if $A \subsetneq B$ then it must be true that $B \supsetneq A$
However, we came up with something where $A \subsetneq B$ but $(B \cap A) \subsetneq A$. We call this a right subset
Likewise, there is also $B \subsetneq A$ but $(B \cap A) \supsetneq A$. We call this a left subset
It is easy to check how the "and" operator in the boolean algebra is broken when one expands the $\subsetneq, \cap$ and noting that will produce a contradiction when evaluating the truth value of $A \subsetneq B \implies (B \cap A) \subsetneq A$
and hence, for a set theory to accomodate non antisymmetric subset operations, you need to either change the formal system, or the axiom of specification
 
@Rithaniel, Is there a subset of a metric space which satisfies Lebesgue number property, but is neither totally bounded nor complete?
 
7:24 AM
@Silent $\Bbb Q\cap[0,1]$?
 
Wow!! Thanks a lot!
@AlessandroCodenotti Is singleton open in $\Bbb Q$?
 
Ah nevermind, it is totally bounded
@Silent what do you think?
 
Oh! not open, since each ball in rationals has infinite points. Thanks!
 
 
2 hours later…
9:49 AM
@AlessandroCodenotti Does this have Lebesgue number property?
 
10:11 AM
Seems like it does not have that property
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Well, since it is totally bounded, if it had Lebesgue number property as well, it was compact.
 
10:28 AM
Why? Is there a converse to Lebesgue covering lemma?
 
I m taught that "totally bounded and Lebesgue number property iff compact" for metric spaces. And from my previous chat, $\Bbb R$ with discrete metric satisfies Lebesgue number property but is not compact.
reals under discrete metric not totally bounded.
 
Ah I see where my idea goes wrong, in fact it's easy to write an explicit cover of $\Bbb Q\cap[0,1]$ for which the covering lemma fails
@Silent sure, pick $\delta=1/3$ regardless of the cover
 
yeah.
@AlessandroCodenotti Can you provide that cover for which LNP fails?
 
10:46 AM
@Asaf I googled a little and found this: We call Lebesgue spaces the spaces such that every open covering has a Lebesgue number: they turn out to be the spaces X such that every continuous function on X is uniformly continuous. Such spaces are usually called Atsuji spaces. arxiv.org/abs/math/9602203 Maybe some references from this paper will be useful to find out more. — Martin Sleziak Apr 9 '12 at 10:02
In case it helps, a usual keyword for searching might be Atsuji space.
 
11:00 AM
@Silent Think of a cover of $\Bbb Q \cap [0, 1]$ coming from a cover of $[0, 1] \setminus \{\sqrt{2}\}$ by open intervals which shrink arbitrarily in length near $\sqrt{2}$.
Something like that will do the trick.
 
thank you
 
11:19 AM
Or enumerate the rationals and put a ball or radius $2^{-n}$ around the $n$-th
Any covers with sets of arbitrarily small diameter will work
 
Can I write the singleton set $\{x\}$ as $\cap_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(x-\frac{1}{n},x+\frac{1}{n}\right)$ ?

And $\left(-\infty,x\right)$ as $\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(x-n, x-\frac{1}{n+1}\right)$ ?
 
 
1 hour later…
12:26 PM
@s.harp
are you there?
 
Hi @Ultradark - I saw that one of your questions has been used as an example in a recent post on meta.
 
Hey
Okay I see
Do I need to take action?
 
I just thought it might be reasonable to let you know.
 
Thanks for letting me know
 
Without knowing about the posts on meta linking to it, you might have been surprised why it has been undeleted (and now has one delete point). The other post linking there is in the reopen request thread and it was linked a few times in chat.
Of course, if you can think of some way of improving the question, the likelihood that it gets deleted again would be smaller.
 
12:34 PM
okay
I will think about how I can improve the question. I asked it last year. It was an honest question that was bugging me
now I understand
 
Bounty ending in 5 hours ....
4
Q: A maximization problem in functional analysis and data

Rajesh DachirajuConsider the minimization problem described this paper. Let $f_{\lambda}$ be the minimizer. As a part of extending my work, I am able to show the following facts $$\lim_\limits{\lambda \to 0}\|f_{\lambda}\|_{L^2} = 0$$ and $$\lim_\limits{\lambda \to \infty}\|f_{\lambda}\|_{L^2} = 0$$ My problem...

 
The calm before the storm:
Hong Kong protest today is pretty peaceful, as everyone is only planning tomorrow's protest
Meanwhile Portland will have a AntiFa vs Proud Boys clash, also on 17 August. Tension is already rising as police were deployed and shops closed down
----
A Triangle needs three vertices
We currently only have a line segment
 
12:51 PM
@Ultradark yes, I am
 
@s.harp could you look at this and give me some feedback
 
im afraid i dont understand either picture or what you are trying to do
are these class structures like root systmes of a Lie algebra?
 
I asked that question a while back
so it's not very good
@s.harp but yes class structures are root systems of a lie Algebra
 
1:12 PM
It's weird that algebra has axioms defining infinite structures yet we rarely stray far from the axioms when proving something
In terms of expression size
I don't know what I mean
@Ultradark did some exercises and took notes on p-groups
 
excellent
I should just make a new question lol
that one is so 2018
@TobiasKildetoft Do you know a thing or two about root systems and lie groups?
10
Q: Relation between root systems and representations of complex semisimple Lie algebras

user83496I'm trying to understand the machinery of root systems for the purpose of classifying complex semisimple Lie algebras. During this process i lost the overview, espacially when it came to highest weight representations and all that, so i'm looking for a short summary: Do isomorphic root systems ...

saw that you answered this
 
most axiom of algebra are quite restrictive
just associativity alone can cull off very long proofs
The other reason is there is strong interest in finding the shortest proof to any theorem
 
 
1 hour later…
2:54 PM
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond it's surprisingly hard to have axioms not describing infinite structures
For example there is no first order theory (regardless of the language!) such that every finite group is a model of the theory but there are no infinite models
 
3:28 PM
could someone take a look at this?
-1
Q: Proof that equation $Lf=u$ guarantees satisfiability of weak form $\langle Lf,v \rangle = \langle u ,v \rangle$

TukiProblem Let's observe in a closed interval $[a,b] \subset \mathbb{R}$ real-valued and continuous vectorspace $\mathcal{F}([a,b],\mathbb{R})$. Where $\langle ., .\rangle$ is some scalar product. This scalar product only satisfies axioms when $\overline{v},\overline{w},\overline{u} \in V$ and $c \...

 
4:25 PM
I looked at it and voted it up back to zero :)
-1 + 1 = 0, group theory
:D
Is it strange in math that we almost never analyze the indexs of symbols?
In particular $\pi(p_n) = n$ but we don't analyze usually the fact that $p_i$ the primes are indexed by the integers themselves.
Usually this is because it's a dead end, but maybe it isn't?
If you extend $p_{-i} = - p_i$, $p_0 = 0$ then you get the full integers as index
 
unfortunately $0$ is not usually an acceptable prime, while $-p$ definitely is a prime element of $\Bbb Z$
one situation where you should try to understand the indexing set is when you are dealing with directed systems
one of my favourite examples is that a of a quasi-local algebra
(it appears in a physics situation, as an example for any bounded open subset $U$ of minkowski space one has an algebra of "local observables" $\mathscr A(U)$ that live in $U$, further if $U, V$ are space-like seperated one has that $[\mathscr A(U), \mathscr A(V)]=0$ in $\mathscr A(U\cup V)$, which encodes causality)
 
4:43 PM
mm anyone?
 
@Tuki as David Ulrich remarks, your question is basically a tautology
"if x=y then why is Expression(x)=Expression(y)?"
 
@s.harp is there a simple example of a unitary operator whose spectrum is the whole unit circle?
I'm thinking about the diagonal operator on $\ell^2$ corresponding to a countable dense subset of the unit circle, it has the full circle as spectrum, but it's not unitary
 
@AlessandroCodenotti yes, a very natural example :), do you want hints?
 
Oh, like the identity?
 
no the identity only has $1$ in its spectrum
but think about certain "diagonal" operators on $L^2([0,2\pi])$ or $L^2(S^1)$
 
4:49 PM
In number theory, is there a quick way to calculate $f(n) = \sum_{d|n} \tau(d)$ where $\tau(d) = \sum_{k|d} 1$
 
@s.harp right, of course
@s.harp uhm I'm not sure what do you mean with "diagonal" here
 
also the operator $f\mapsto (x\mapsto e^{ix}\cdot f(x) )$ on $L^2(\Bbb R)$
with "diagonal" I mean "multiplication with a function"
 
if I have $x=y$ then what exactly allows me to take scalar product from each sides $ \iff \langle x,z \rangle = \langle y,z \rangle$ ?
definition of scalar product?
 
Whats your scalar product?
 
Inner product I believe would be the correct term
 
4:58 PM
yes, but do you have a specific one?
 
Defined in this
0
Q: Proof that equation $Lf=u$ guarantees satisfiability of weak form $\langle Lf,v \rangle = \langle u ,v \rangle$

TukiProblem Let's observe in a closed interval $[a,b] \subset \mathbb{R}$ real-valued and continuous vectorspace $\mathcal{F}([a,b],\mathbb{R})$. Where $\langle ., .\rangle$ is some scalar product. This scalar product only satisfies axioms when $\overline{v},\overline{w},\overline{u} \in V$ and $c \...

but It's not any specific one
 
ok, just so you know the axioms you have listed are not the axioms of a scalar product
in particular axiom number 2 is broken
 
Okey what are those then
 
i assume this is a typo
 
I'll check just a sec
 
5:00 PM
apart from that there is one more problem in your question, namely you have a vector space $\mathcal F$ but then write that whenever $u,v,w$ are in $V$ you have [....]
in this case: what is $V$ supposed to be? do you mean $\mathcal F$?
 
Well they are used In different context
$V$ Is used to define the axioms and $\mathcal{F}$ to define the problem itself
 
ok, so you have a scalar product on the space $mathcal F$
 
@s.harp The adjoint here is multiplication with $\overline{e^{ix}}$ so being unitary is clear. I'm missing something easy because I don't see the spectrum
 
@AlessandroCodenotti im not sure about the terminology, but you "discretise" $e^{ix}$ so that its locally constant
 
yes
Now the axioms should be correct?
 
5:06 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti ie you get a sequence of operators given by multiplications taht are locally constant (except on measure 0 sets) and this sequence approximates $e^{ix}$ in the strong operator topology
 
Hmm so you can't just explicitely compute the spectrum?
 
you can, but i dont have an idea in my head atm, its probably very easy tho
@Tuki axiom 2 should have the "c" removed, then its correct
 
oh sorry
 
@Tuki Note that for the scalar product for ANY v, w in F you must have that $\langle v, w\rangle$ is defined
 
I mean let $T$ be this operator. We want complex numbers $\lambda$ such that $\lambda-T$ is not invertible. What goes wrong when $\lambda$ is on the unit circle?
 
5:09 PM
Okey how I can be sure they are the same then?
Based on what the equivalence holds?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Then $\lambda -T$ is a multiplication operator by a continuous function that has a $0$, if you can show that this is not invertible you are done
@Tuki Your question is something very central to mathematics. I cannot express it elegantly, but if you have L(u) = f, then any expression you write down with f is equal to that same expression but with f replaced by L(u)
this is because f and L(u) are the same thing
As an example, you now that 4 times 3 is 12
and that $4=2^2$, so you also get that $2^2 \cdot 3$ is 12
 
well I understand if you have $a=b$ you can use either of them because they are "equal"
 
Hello! If someone has advice for this please help me
25 mins ago, by jeea
In number theory, is there a quick way to calculate $f(n) = \sum_{d|n} \tau(d)$ where $\tau(d) = \sum_{k|d} 1$
 
@s.harp makes sense
 
but Isn't my situation more like this, if I have equality $5=5$ then $\iff 5 \cdot 5 = 5 \cdot 5$ (both sides multiplied by 5 which leaves statement still true)
I do operation to both sides, but how I can be sure this operation holds the equality?
 
5:16 PM
@Tuki replace every 5 where you dont think its important that its 5 with 3 or something
you are more in the situation where you have $5=5$ $\implies 5\cdot 3 = 5\cdot 3$
 
yes
I think I have intuitive understanding on my problem but proofs are different
$a=b \implies a\cdot c = b \cdot c$
 
not \iff, only \implies
 
You're right
but how do you prove something like this?
How do I know that the Inner product changes both sides of the equality equally?
 
because they are the same thing, there is nothing to prove *

* unless you are doing foundations, which is not what you are doing
$L(f) = u \implies \langle L(f), v\rangle = \langle u, v\rangle$ for all $v\in \mathcal F$.
 
then I have another question
 
5:24 PM
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tautology_(logic) (text to stop wiki preview)
 
If we assume that $\langle Lf,v \rangle = \langle u, v \rangle$ is true for some $v \in \mathcal{F}$. Does It imply that $Lf=u$? On what condition they are equivelent ($\iff$) then?
$ \langle Lf,v \rangle = \langle u,v \rangle \implies Lf=u $ on what condition?
 
no, it doesnt imply that, you get $Lf= u$ if $\langle Lf , v \rangle = \langle u,v\rangle$ for all $v\in\mathcal F$
here the positivity of the scalar product is important
 
positivity? You mean the end result from inner product?
 
axiom number 4 in your list
 
I wonder if there exists such $v$ that $\langle v , v \rangle < 0$?
 
5:32 PM
read axiom 4 again to see the answer to that question
 
well yes in order to $\langle . , . \rangle$ exists it needs to satisfy $\langle v , v \rangle \ge 0$ and $\langle v , v \rangle \iff v = 0$
so no
if $ p \rightarrow q $ It doesn't make sense to assume that $p$ is false, if your trying to prove this
I don't somehow see how the positivity is important in this?
 
5:48 PM
for which part?
 
Well if I try to show that $\langle Lf,v \rangle = \langle u , v \rangle \implies Lf=u$, axiom 4 says that $\langle Lf,v \rangle \ge 0$ and $\langle u,v \rangle \ge 0$ or 0 if $v=0$
 
no, thats not what it says, note that both arguments of the scalar product are the same in axiom 4
 
hmm
 
take a look at $Lf - u$
in particular $\langle Lf - u, Lf - u\rangle $
what values can this take? and what does its value tell you about the result you want to achieve
 
well according to first equation $Lf-u=0$
 
5:57 PM
remember that you are in a different situation now, you want to show that $Lf = u$. What you have is $\langle Lf ,v \rangle = \langle u ,v\rangle$ for all $v\in \mathcal F$
 
What was the other example you had in mind? @s.harp
 
there are two related examples, one is $f\mapsto (x\mapsto x\cdot f(x))$ on $L^2(S^1)$, the other is $f\mapsto (x\mapsto f(x+1))$ on $L^2(\Bbb R)$
 
I see, let me check that they're unitary and have the right spectrum
 
well $\langle Lf-u,Lf-u \rangle \ge 0$ and $\langle Lf-u,Lf-u \rangle = 0 $ if and only if $Lf = u$
 
@Tuki right, so try to use what you have (namely $\langle Lf , v\rangle = \langle u, v\rangle$ for all $v\in\mathcal F$) to get what you want (namely $\langle Lf -u , Lf -u\rangle = 0$)
 
6:05 PM
hmm
$ \langle Lf,v \rangle = \langle u, v \rangle \iff \langle Lf, v \rangle - \langle u, v \rangle = 0 \iff \langle v, Lf-u \rangle = 0 $
 
now do one $\implies$ to finish
 
when $v = Lf-u$ is the condition?
 
yes, you know that $\langle v, Lf -u\rangle=0$ holds for all $v\in \mathcal F$, in particular it must hold for $v=Lf-u$
 
6:21 PM
What you meant by "now do one ⟹ to finish" @s.harp?
Those middle ones are equivalent right?
 
you have correclty written two equivalences, but the final step you need to get $Lf = u$ is an $\implies$ not an $\iff$
 
yes but this requires that let $v = Lf-u$, since $v$ is just arbitrary $v \in \mathcal{F}$ right?
 
The statement you have is that for any $v\in \mathcal F$ it is true that $\langle Lf -u, v\rangle =0$.
in particular since $Lf- u\in\mathcal F$ you must have that $\langle Lf -u, Lf - u\rangle =0$
make note of the "for any" (or synonym: "for all")
 
6:40 PM
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond @ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond Lol. Yep, let me just break RSA (and probably ECC too, while I'm at it). Just give me a few hours. Nevermind, someone who had access was kind enough to give it to me
 
yes so $Lf-u \in \mathcal{F}$ is just one particular case in all $v \in \mathcal{F}$
 
7:03 PM
Here's a weird question. Say $M$ is a manifold and $F : PM \to \Bbb R$ is a functional on the pathspace of $M$. What restrictions on $F$ do I need to impose to say there exists a 1-form $\omega$ on $M$ such that $F[\gamma] = \int_\gamma \omega$?
OK, I guess what I would do is take parametrized neighborhood $U$ of $M$ and choose a section of the pathspace fibration $PM \to M$ over $U$ which exists because $U$ is contractible. Let's say $\gamma_x$ is a path from the origin $0$ (the basepoint) to $x \in U$ for every $x$ under this section. Then $\varphi(x) = F[\gamma_x]$ defines a function $\varphi : U \to \Bbb R$
 
@BalarkaSen What I would do is start by writing down what I know.
 
There should be a way to recover $\omega$ from $\varphi$
 
What constraints are there on $F$ from Stokes' theorem?
And what about from the definition of integration?
First off, $PM$ is really a category (or the morphisms-set of; I'm thinking of a category as a set of morphisms with a partially defined product). and $F$ is a functor. That is your first constraint: additivity.
 
Yeah great point.
I was implicitly assuming that, but yeah
$F[\gamma_1 * \gamma_2] = F[\gamma_1] + F[\gamma_2]$
$\omega_p(v)$ should be given by taking the derivative of $F$ along a curve passing through $p$ with direction vector $v$
 
Secondly fix morphism sets P(x,y). What about $F$ on this? We know that if $F(\gamma) = \int_\gamma \omega$, and if $\gamma'$ is homologous to $\gamma$ by a surface $S$, we have $F(\gamma) - F(\gamma') = \int_{\partial S} \omega = \int_S d\omega$. OK, this is pretty nasty admittedly
I don't assume $\omega$ is supposed to be closed
 
7:10 PM
No way
Take a curve $\gamma : \Bbb R \to U$ such that $\gamma(0) = x_0$ and $\gamma(t) = x$ with $\gamma'(t) = v$. Then look at uh $F[\gamma_{[0, t]}] - F[\gamma_{[0, t+h]}]$
 
what is $x$
I don't like bothering with the path-space fibration, if you need to use contractibility something is un-natural
Let's study $\frac{d}{dt} F(\gamma\big|_{[0,t]})$
 
So my pathspace $PM$ is based at $x_0$ and $x \in M$ is some random point. I want to say derivative of $F[\gamma|[0, s]]$ at $s = t$ is $\omega_x(v)$
 
I'm saying base it at $x$
It's certainly true that $\frac{d}{dt} \int_{\gamma(0)}^{\gamma(t)} \omega = \omega(0)$
So I guess you should assume that $F$ is $C^1$, in the sense that a map $X \to PM$ is smooth if the associated map $X \times [0,1] \to M$ is smooth, and we assume that for all smooth maps to $PM$ that $F\big|_{X \times [0,1]}$ is smooth
 
@BalarkaSen OK, this does the trick.
Yeah, that's all. Additivity and $C^1$ is all we need.
 
Write down the proof for me?
I see how to recover $\omega$ and why it's smooth but I don't see why $F$ is the integral, even though that does seem likely
 
7:17 PM
$\omega$ along the curve is derivative of the restriction of $F$ along that curve. So just fundamental theorem of calculus, it seems.
Let me be precise, and work it out
 
So you consider the map $\tilde \gamma: [0,1] \to PM$ which sends $0$ to $\gamma$ and $t$ to $\gamma\big|_{[0,1-t]}$.
You say: consider $F(\tilde \gamma): [0,1] \to \Bbb R$, which is a $C^1$ function by definition.
Wait, @BalarkaSen, why is $\omega_x(v)$ independent of $\gamma$/
 
It isn't! $v$ is the tangent direction of $\gamma$
 
I know
You still made a choice
 
Hm
It feels like second order garbage shouldn't matter but I don't have an argument for this. Maybe I'm implicitly assuming something about $F$
 
Yeah I don't know how to argue it
 
7:24 PM
Note that $\omega$ need not be unique, and locally I can always make such a choice of $\gamma$'s by the contractibility argument. Maybe what I want is $F = \int_\gamma \omega$ locally? This is getting ugly
@MikeMiller Also, we don't really want $F$ to just be a functional on $PM$, right? We want it to be $Diff(I)$-invariant
 
Why is $\omega$ not unique?
Suppose $F = \int_\gamma \omega = \int_\gamma \omega'$. Then $\int_\gamma \omega - \omega' = 0$ for all curves $\gamma$. In particular your argument taking the derivative along a curve shows that $\omega - \omega'$ is zero at all points.
 
Oh ok
 
I agree you want Diff(I) invariance but I'm not sure where it would show up here
 
Let's see. $\omega_x(v) = \frac{d}{ds}\, F(\tilde{\gamma}(s))|_{s = t}$, yes?
 
Right
 
7:35 PM
Oh I see why my fundamental theorem of calculus argument doesn't work
I can't do $\int_\gamma \omega$ with this definition. I only know values of $\omega$ at vectors by choosing the curves to be tangent to those vectors
 
 
1 hour later…
8:38 PM
Let $X$ be a complex Frechet space, let $\Omega \subseteq \Bbb{C}$ be open, and let $f : \Omega \to X$ be weakly holomorphic (i.e., $\Lambda f$ is holomorphic in the ordinary sense for every $\Lambda \in X^*$).
Given $\Lambda \in X^*$, why is it true that $\frac{(\Lambda f)(z)-(\Lambda f)(0)}{z} = \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \int_{\Gamma} \frac{(\Lambda f)(\xi)}{(\xi - z ) \xi} d \xi$?
Shouldn't there be a limit as $z \to 0$ on the LHS?
 
8:54 PM
@RyanUnger Yo this adiabatic accessibility is weird
Say $\alpha$ is a 1-form on $\Bbb R^3$. Then there are points arbitrarily close to some point $p$ which cannot be reached from $p$ by curves tangent to $\ker \alpha$ iff $\alpha$ is integrable.
One direction is trivial, and if $\alpha$ is totally non-integrable then I know everything is reachable from everything.
(Lagrangian curves approximate any path)
 
9:08 PM
*Legendrian
OK, I mean this is simple
If $\alpha \wedge d\alpha \neq 0$ at a point then $\alpha \wedge d\alpha \neq 0$ on a neighborhood as well. On that nbhd $\alpha$ is totally non-integrable :P
OK I have just proved existence of entropy by using an h-principle
 
9:40 PM
Hello guys!! I am trying to find to write in WolframAlpha but I couldn't
If I write: cos(x) in terms of sin(x) then WA interprets it as "cos(x)\\sin(x) relations"
But if I write cos(3*x)*cos(3*x) in terms of sin(6*x) then WA does not interpret anything
I also tried to search the word "relations" in WA documentation but nothing seems to appear. Any idea? Thanks!
 
10:08 PM
I'm quitting cigarettes today!
I ran out of butts on the ground
 
10:26 PM
Hey y'all
 
10:49 PM
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond Great decision!
Hello
 
Hey, can someone help me out here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3302039/…
1
Q: A Function $g(x)$, Written in Terms of $f(x)$, That Flips Sign when a Root of $f(x)$ is Encountered

Quote DaveLet $f(x)$ be any continuous, differentiable function that has extrema (use $f(x)=\sin^2(\frac{33}{x}\pi)+sin^2(x \pi)$ as the example function in your answers) and that $f(x) \geq 0$ for all $x$ and has a finite amount of roots (it is not always a polynomial). Let $g(x)$ be a function (written i...

ah there we go
 
11:09 PM
@QuoteDave how come the answer given there doesn't answer your question?
 
@J.Doe well I asked for one that doesn't require you to know the roots, but the indicator function requires you to know the roots
 
11:34 PM
@QuoteDave What's the source for this problem? I don't think you can avoid the roots like that since you need them to define g.
 
@J.Doe I was thinking about it because I wanted to find roots numerically for functions that are all positive and have other extrema other than the roots (so something like f(x)/f'(x) wouldn't work). Newton's, fixed point, and so on are only valuable if you start near the root, and even then, with a function like the example, it's not guaranteed to work. Bisection is the only one guaranteed to work, but I need to get the equations in a form so that can work.
 
what is a "pseudo-isomorphism" in the context of module theory? lol
 

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