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3:13 AM
@BalarkaSen What this argument shows me is that it's equivalent to $(S^n \times D^n)/(S^n \times S^{n-1})$ but I'm not sure I see that this is what you think it is
But maybe this is just a generalization of the torus case as you say
 
3:41 AM
@MikeMiller this is A+
@MikeMiller yeah this is easier to argue; it's the Thom construction on the trivial bundle on S^n
I do not see how to spell out the torus argument in this case but I'm too sleepy and on the airport so not in the best shape
 
4:11 AM
@BalarkaSen Oh this is a nice observation. The Thom space you get when you add a rank one trivial bundle just is the suspension of the previous Thom space
So this is $\Sigma^n(S^n \vee S^0)$
You can see the two factors in the torus case
 
5:02 AM
@BalarkaSen $(S^n \times S^n)/(\ast \times S^n) = (\Bbb R^n \times S^n + \ast \times S^n)/(\ast \times S^n) = \Bbb R^n \times S^n + \ast = \Bbb R^n + \ast + \Bbb R^{2n} = (\Bbb R^n + \ast) \vee (\ast + \Bbb R^{2n}) = S^n \vee S^{2n}$
lol no
ok suppose $H_n = L_n H_0$, which is the case for nice enough spaces, then we are interested in $H_n(-;G) = L_n(H_0 - \otimes G)$
Grothendieck says that $L_p (- \otimes G) L_q H_0 - \implies H_{p+q}(-;G)$
i.e. $\operatorname{Tor}_p(H_q-,G) \implies H_{p+q}(-;G)$
as you noted, over PID we have $\operatorname{Tor}_{\ge 2} = 0$
7 hours ago, by Balarka Sen
$\cdots \to E^2_{n, 0} \to E^2_{n-2, 1} \to H_{n-1} \to E^2_{n-1, 0} \to E^2_{n-3, 1} \to \cdots$
how does this work
no this is wrong, the LES above is for concentrated in q=0,1
here we have p=0,1
so $E^2 = E^\infty$
so $0 \to E^2_{0,n} \to H_n \to E^2_{1,n-1} \to 0$
i.e. $0 \to H_n(-) \otimes G \to H_n(-;G) \to \operatorname{Tor}(H_{n-1}(-),G) \to 0$
let's check the UCT...
(aha, this is why you said UCT!)
2 days ago, by Leaky Nun
$0 \to H_i(X; \mathbf{Z})\otimes A \, \overset{\mu}\to \, H_i(X;A) \to \operatorname{Tor}(H_{i-1}(X; \mathbf{Z}),A)\to 0$
praise Grothendieck!
wait, if in general $H_n \ne L_n H_0$ then what is $L_n H_0$?
oh wait this makes no sense in general, because $\mathsf{Top}$ isn't an abelian category!
so above I should replace $L_n H_0$ with $L_n$ of the global section of the constant sheaf
the correct statement is that for nice enough spaces, $H_n$ is a left derived functor
since it coincides with the sheaf cohomology of the constant sheaf $\Bbb Z$
 
 
3 hours later…
8:28 AM
@MikeMiller oh good point
 
8:53 AM
@BalarkaSen I think the distinction between geometry and homotopy theory is that this is the unreduced suspension.
 
 
2 hours later…
10:40 AM
@Balarka is there a nice abstract reason why $\mathrm{vol}(\Bbb{H}/\mathrm{SL}_2(\Bbb Z)) < \infty$ or do you need to use a fundamental domain?
 
11:23 AM
- sheaf cohomology gives you singular cohomology of your space (not homology)
- I don't think anyone uses the notation L_nH_0, usually L_nF or R_nF, for whatever your functor F is
- I don't think singular homology is realised as left derived functors for some functor on sheaves (at least ive never heard of such thing) .. you can get something called borel moore homology using sheaves though
hm based on this link mathoverflow.net/questions/66401/… maybe you can
 
11:38 AM
@Leaky exercise: X is a compact Hausdorff space, then C(X) is Jacobson iff X is totally disconnected
 
12:33 PM
Suppose I have a fibration $p : E \to B$ with fiber $F$, let $G$ be an abelian group, what is the action of $\pi_1(B)$ on $H_{\bullet}(F; G)$?
 
1:07 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos Yeah just use the fundamental domain. It's a $(2, 3, \infty)$-triangle, so has area $\pi - (\pi/2 + \pi/3 + \pi/\infty) = \pi/6$.
By Gauss-Bonnet if you wish
@Perturbative $\pi_1 B$ acts on $F$ by monodromy. Namely, given a loop on $B$ based at a point $x \in B$, you can lift it to a path starting at any point $f \in F$ and ending at $\tilde{f} \in F$.
If the homotopy class of this loop is $\alpha$, we define the action by $\alpha \cdot f = \tilde{f}$. This is a continuous action of $\pi_1 B$ on $F$.
Look at the induced action on $H_*(F)$
@loch The sheafification of the singular cochains presheaf gives an acyclic resolution of the constant sheaf, so you can prove that the singular cohomology agrees with the Cech cohomology. That shows it's left derived functors for the global section functor on the constant sheaf, right?
@loch The sheafification of the singular cochains presheaf gives an acyclic resolution of the constant sheaf, so you can prove that the singular cohomology agrees with the Cech cohomology. That shows it's left derived functors for the global section functor on the constant sheaf, right?
 
1:31 PM
@BalarkaSen I think that sounds about right - but it's right derived functors not left derived functors since the global sections functor is left exact :p
 
@ÉricoMeloSilva so is Fernando gonna be your first year advisor
I got an email from Alice Chang
 
2:13 PM
oof its so hot today
 
2:33 PM
can someone help me to find an example of : an example of $ψ:C∙→D∙$ co-chain map that exists :
$ψi:C^i→D^i$ is an surjective map (for i>=0) but $ψ∗:H^k(C∙)→H^k(D∙)$ is not a surjective map (for k>=0)? I want to check if an identity map or $f: R→S1$ can be an example of surjective cochain map like in a question? if not , how I can find like this map? The difintion of cochain map in a booklet is: cochain map between cochain complex ⟨D∙,δ⟩ and ⟨C∙,d⟩ is a homomorphisim chains $ϕn:Cn→Dn$ (for n>=0) such as δn◦ϕn=ϕn+1◦dn
 
@Sila you can use the fact that a short exact sequences of cochain complexes induces a long exact sequence on the cohomology.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos, do yoy mean foe example :
@MatheinBoulomenos, 0→A→iB→jC→0 induces a long exact sequence of homology groups ...→δHn(A)−→i∗Hn(B)−→j∗Hn(C)→δHn−1(A)−→i∗Hn−1(B)−→j∗Hn−1(C)→δ
 
2:57 PM
yes, except for cochain complexes, you get cohomology and an increasing long exact sequence. Anyway, here's a simple example Let $C^0=C^1=\Bbb Z$ and $C^i=0$ else and let $C^0 \to C^1$ be the identity. Let $D^0=\Bbb Z$ and $D^i=0$ else. Let $\phi_0:C^0 \to D^0$ be the identity and $\phi_i:C^i \to D^i$ zero else. Then $\phi_i:C^i\to D^i$ is surjective for all $i$. But $H^0(C^\bullet)=0$ and $H^0(D^\bullet)=\Bbb Z$, so $\phi_*:H^0(C^\bullet) \to H^0(D^\bullet)$ can't be surjective
 
@MatheinBoulomenos chains are just cochains but indexed incorrectly
 
I agree
 
0
Q: Bijection of proper classes

portonI have two proper classes which intuitively are like bijectively equivalent, i.e. for every element of one of these two classes we can define an expression for the corresponding element of the other class, and these behave nicely (like a bijection). I wonder, is the notion of bijection extended ...

 The Star Wars Room :--O--:

A^T ATx + BB8^2y+|----|C3PO
I hate this auto room freezing system
 
3:16 PM
@RyanUnger, what do you mean by incorrectly ?
@MatheinBoulomenos, what the example being if :
 
Hey everyone
 
$ϕ^i: A^i → B^i$ is a bijective map for (i>=0) but $ϕ∗ : H^k(A•) → H^k(B•)$ is not bijective for $(k>=0)$ in the two examples I mean by : ϕ∗:= dϕ that is meaning: if the map $ϕ: C to C'$ then $ϕ∗:H(C) to H(C')$
 
3:33 PM
Hi all, wondering where I might be able to get another set of eyes on a proof I've put together for properties of Farey sequences, of course already well proven in a number of sources, just a practice of doing it myself for a specific purpose in an article.
 
@Sila there's no example like that
If $\phi^i:A^i \to B^i$ is bijective for all $i$, then $\phi$ is an isomorphism of chain complexes and hence it induces an isomorphism on cohomologies
 
@ThomasNicholson I don't have any reason to believe that one of us will or will not be able to help, but the usual advice is to ask, don't ask to ask --- most people just don't respond to the request to ask :)
 
@MikeMiller I have a question for you. What advice could you give to an individual like myself starting a Master's program in math in one month?
 
3:49 PM
@MikeMiller Right, was just trying to be polite, considering I haven't got a clue if outsourcing something like that is appropriate in the chat :D it is about 2 1/2 pages long, relevant for a music article I have written. I am a hobby mathematician at best, so just wanted to get a verification that there are no glaring holes in it...
 
So, I was thinking about some irreflexive but transitive order:
where a<b<c and for all x, x<x
It is easy to see a<a, but how to prove a<a+b?
 
4:05 PM
Is that enough to show a<a+a?
I'm not sure it is.
 
if you have 0<a, a<b, as well as compatability with + (meaning out of x<y follows x+c<y+c for all c) then 0+a<a+a<b+a
 
right
 
4:27 PM
The 25th of April is Tau Approximation Day
It's not as close to tau as 22/7 is to pi, but it's the closest we can get with calendar dates
 
@MatheinBoulomenos, In the booklet which I read in, rememberd that there is an examples but I do not know how to find like these cochain maps. in the booklet is wrote that there is an example for a cochain map $ψ: A• → B•$ that exists :
$ψi:A^i→B^i$ is an bijective map (for i>=0) but $ψ∗ :H^k(A∙)→H^k(B∙)$ is not a bijective map (for k>=0)?
 
November 14th is pi/4 Approximation Day, which is basically the same approximation as 22/7≈pi, but better because it uses the American date order
(jk)
 
@MatheinBoulomenos,$phi$ and $psi$ is are different cochain maps.
 
 
1 hour later…
6:03 PM
Can you have set theories where the powerset operation has fixed points?
 
Define "fixed point." Are you taking about an element which is in both a set and it's powerset?
 
Basically, can you have a set theory T such that given A is a set, and |A| is a cardinality then |P(A)|=|A|?
I knew ZF cannot do that, nor do most common varieties of set thoery I heard of
because they all rely on some von neumann universe thing that will end up proving cantor theorem
 
Well, the best chance you might have with that is some infinite set, because the power set of a finite set you're screwed on, unless you change the definition of power set.
 
yeah make sense
 
Is ZF + "All infinite sets have equal cardinalities" a consistent axiom system? If so, then there you go.
 
6:12 PM
it should be consistent, since you are basically taking a equivalence class over all infinite sets
 
Well, it's not gonna be safe to just assume that it's consistent. You gotta prove it is, and that might take a little effort.
 
Thanks! @BalarkaSen
 
6:29 PM
ok, so by dry run the proof with that extra axiom on cantor theorem, the result will be quite bizarre:
In elementary set theory, Cantor's theorem is a fundamental result that states that, for any set A {\displaystyle A} , the set of all subsets of A {\displaystyle A} (the power set of A {\displaystyle A} , denoted by P ( A ) {\displaystyle {\mathcal {P}}(A)} ) has a strictly greater cardinality than A {\displaystyle A} itself...
It basically means the diagonal set has to be empty in order to avoid the contradiction
which also means all functions $f$ are bijective on infinite sets
 
I believe Cantor's theorem actually shows that that axiom system I suggested is inconsistent.
 
won't having B empty block the first line of the iff (at the cost of the bizarre consequence that all subsets of A are empty)?
 
6:44 PM
Oh oh. I've stumbled into the logic room.
 
lol
 
Heya Ted.
 
Hi @Ted
 
Hi @Rithaniel @Mathein @Secret
And hi @loch
 
@Ted I'm cutting a lot of geometry from my thesis to keep it at a reasonable length
 
6:47 PM
Why do you cut geometry, of all things??!!
Hrumph.
 
because it's not that essential for what I'm doing. Jacobians only yield the construction for weight 2
 
But you need PPAV in general?
 
@TedShifrin yo
 
You need étale cohomology for the general construction
 
yo @Ryan
 
6:48 PM
I found the page in that paper with the theorem
 
LOL, @Mathein, so much for geometry :P
Oh, cool. What page?
 
Second to last page
66, I think
it's not demarcated as a theorem, it's just italicized near the bottom of a paragraph
 
@Ted I thought up a proof on how to directly reconstruct a compact Riemann surface from its field of functions, though I guess it's standard
 
Well, Secret, if you require that any subset of an infinite set is empty, I'm pretty sure that you can prove that those "infinite" sets are actually the empty set, which contradicts the ZF axiom of inifinity.
 
PPAV?
 
6:50 PM
principally-polarized abelian varieties
 
Oh, the thing he credits to Franz?
principally polarized abelian variety
oops, late as usual
 
I did some digging and Franz proved it for n=3 lens spaces
 
@ryan: But he's doing only the sphere here. You were talking about all space forms.
 
I don't think this proof is written in English anywhere
@TedShifrin Spherical space forms
It's not true for flat ones and it's true for hyperbolic by Mostow
 
6:52 PM
Oh, so it's not true for constant $K\le 0$? !!
Aha.
I admit I've not thought about it.
 
for flat you can just take two flat tori with different radii
diffeomorphic but not isometric
 
I thought we said simply connected?
 
for simply connected this is well known
 
Yeah, that's what I thought.
 
the amazing this is that it's true for any space forms (with finite volume) in the non-flat cases
 
6:54 PM
I guess Minding's Theorem says that for surfaces if you have a map preserving Gaussian curvature, then it is an isometry.
Have you looked carefully at Wolf? Surely this result is in there.
 
I googled that and it's a local result for surfaces
I looked very carefully at Wolf
 
I sure wish I hadn't gotten rid of that book.
 
The proof uses techniques completely different from his book
 
Fair enough.
 
Though you might be able to brute force it from the complete classification of spherical space forms
 
6:55 PM
The idea is this: for a Riemann surface $X$, take the field of meromorphic functions $\mathcal{M}(X)=K$. Then one can consider the set $ZR(K)$ of discrete valuations on $K$ that are trivial on $\Bbb C \subset K$. For $v \in ZR(K)$, we have a valuation ring $K_v$ inside $K$ with residue field $\Bbb C$ and the quotient map $K_v \to \Bbb C$ recovers the evaluation of functions at the point corresponding to $v$
 
@Mathein: I admit this is the sort of thing I've never thought through, but it's well known.
 
(Using the theory of extension of valuations on finite extensions, one can prove that points of $ZR(K)$ correspond to points in $X$, by reducing it to $\Bbb{P}^1(\Bbb C)$)
 
@TedShifrin So the real claim is that if a manifold diffeomorphic to a spherical space form has two constant curvature metrics, they are in fact isometric
 
Surely it's in Hartshorne :)
 
(same constant)
 
6:56 PM
@Ryan: Wait. Aha.
So that is a generalization of Minding, of course.
 
Wikipedia tells me that Minding says constant Gauss curvature determines the isometry type of balls on a surface
 
@Ted yeah but the punchline is then you can consider every $f \in K$ as a map $ZR(K)
\to \Bbb{P}^1(\Bbb C)$. Now you take the initial topology with respect to all these maps for the analytic topology on $\Bbb{P}^1(\Bbb C)$
 
This is of course true for any Riemannian manifold for the sectional curvature
 
It took me a while to figure out why this actually recovers the topology of $X$
 
And then there's the Cartan lemma that lets you extend this to complete simply connected manifolds globally
At least, do Carmo credits Cartan with this
I imagine Hopf and Killing knew about it
 
6:59 PM
Yeah, Minding is proved using geodesic normal coordinates, so it's local.
Cartan knew everything.
 
So de Rham's theorem is proved using Reidemeister torsion, which I know nothing about
I can't find any evidence that this proof was written up anywhere else
 
I thought Reidemeister torsion came along way later with Atiyah-Singer ...
 
Toponogov's theorem affords a characterization of sectional curvature in terms of how "fat" geodesic triangles appear when compared to their Euclidean counterparts. The basic intuition is that, if a space is positively curved, then the edge of a triangle opposite some given vertex will tend to bend away from that vertex, whereas if a space is negatively curved, then the opposite edge of the triangle will tend to bend towards the vertex.
 
Are you thinking about Ray-Singer torsion
 
I assume there's a similar thing for quadrilaterals?
 
7:01 PM
Not really, @Ultra. You're talking about geodesics spreading out of a fixed vertex.
 
The two share a wiki article for what it's worth
I wonder if one can prove this using some kind of index theory
 
I used to know a little about Reidemeister torsion, but I remember nothing now.
 
@ÉricoMeloSilva Transcript is all good. They didn't email me so I emailed them...
 
Yeah true.
 
OK, I have to run some errands. BBL.
 
7:03 PM
ciao
 
see ya
 
The proof goes like this: as all meromorphic functions on $X$ are continuous, the "identity" $X \to ZR(K)$ is continuous by the universal property of an initial topology. Now as $X$ is compact, we only need to show that $ZR(X)$ is Hausdorff. First, I claim that $\mathcal{M}(X)$ separates points:
Let $x \in X$, then consider the divisor $D=(g+1) \cdot x$.
By Riemann-Roch $L(D) \geq 2$, so there is a non-constant function $f$ in $L(D)$. $f$ has only a pole at $x$, so it separates $x$ from every other points.
see ya @Ted
 
Evening all
 
evening @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
Sup, Meg
 
7:05 PM
Hey @Mathein and @Rithaniel
 
Hey @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
Hey @Ultradark :)
 
@Rithaniel ah right because union of empty sets are empty
 
7:21 PM
@Secret whats the intersection over an empty index set? 8)
 
So, define an equivalence relation on the integers $\equiv_p$ such that, if $x=np^a$ and $y=mp^b$ with $\text{gcd}(n,p)=\text{gcd}(m,p)=1$, then $x\equiv_p y\iff n=m$. Then does it seem correct to say that applying standard multiplication to the set of all these equivalence classes provides us with a monoid?
 
cap(A)={x: x in A} but there is no such x since A will be empty
sorry brain fart:
Since A is empty, the condition is vacuously true, thus all x applies and you get the whole set
 
thats true :) and I think its horrible
for example in bourbaki in the definition of a topology they only ask that an arbitrary union and a finite intersection over opens is open
as the empty intersection is a finite intersection and so the whole set is open, the empty union is then the empty set and the empty set is open
making life difficult by making it simpler
 
the one that got me is disjoint submanifolds are transversal
 
well... the whole set and empty set are always clopen in any topology, thus it is not much of a deal
 
7:31 PM
Hirsch has a comment about this
 
So many comments on here use words I don't recognize.
Such as "transversal"
 
clopen
 
clopen means simultaneously closed and open. That one I'm lucky enough to know.
 
haha nice
transversal means something like "going across"
I think
I'm thinking of transversal lines from 9th grade geometry
 
Well, yeah, but in math in general, words have precise meanings. I would predict that transversal has something to do with reaching across an entire manifold in some way, but until I look up the definition, it's just a guess.
Also, definitions often rely on other terms, which must then be looked up independently.
 
7:40 PM
everything I say on here is wrong :/
 
transversal is a local thing
submanifolds are transversal at a point of intersection if the tangent spaces add up to give the tangent space of the ambient manifold
 
Ah, and disjoint submanifolds have no point of intersection, so they're vacuously transversal.
 
yeah
 
Does transveral-ness always have to occur at a particular point? Or can you say "these two submanifolds are tranversal" if they're transveral at all points of intersection
 
yeah they're transversal if each point of intersection is transversal
 
7:46 PM
Is there a sense of measuring transversal-ness? Such as "60% of points of intersection are transversal, so these two submanifolds are 60% transversal."
 
two sub-manifolds can also be "in general position" to one another
 
@Rithaniel don't think so
 
i dont recall preceisly what that means, but i think it is a synonym for transverse
 
what is a submanifold
 
general position is the term for PL transversality
 
7:47 PM
A subset of a manifold that is itself a manifold.
and a manifold is a space that approximates euclidean space locally.
 
@Rithaniel why do you sometimes put periods after your sentences and sometimes don't?
 
lol
 
I always just do this
 
Heh, a lack of paying attention, most likely.
 
you are exposed and thus banished from the chat for a period of 24 days
 
7:51 PM
I do it when I write notes by hand, too.
Nooooooo! That's a day for every hour in a day!
 
I think I'm going to switch to this now.
It makes me sound too short though.
Idk if I like it.
 
I don't pay attention to periods, and no one's ever called me out for my touch-and-go use of them until now.
 
Huh.....
 
8:04 PM
It's honestly not that big of a deal just food for thought
 
@Rithaniel elements of $\Bbb Z/\equiv_p$ just look like $\frac{x}{p^{v_p(x)}}$ I guess
clearly $1$ is in there (the class of $1$ is just the set of all powers of $p$) and associativity of multiplication is from that of $\Bbb Z$
so yeah I'd say that seems right
 
tf is $\equiv_p$
 
@Ryan Rithaniel defined it abve
above*
@Rithaniel Nb: I'm a total noob and have been away from mathematics for a year so a lot of the shit I say is to be taken with a fistful of salt
 
8:23 PM
$\pi_1(\Omega S^2) = \pi_2(S^2) = H_2(S^2) = \Bbb Z$
can we construct a universal cover of $\Omega S^2$
let's compute $H_n(\Omega S^2)$
$\Omega S^2 \to PS^2 \to S^2$
$\begin{array}{c} H_0(\Omega S^2) & 0 & H_0(\Omega S^2) \\ H_1(\Omega S^2) & 0 & H_1(\Omega S^2) \\ \vdots \end{array}$
ok so $H_n(\Omega S^2) = \Bbb Z$
oh no this means I can't deform $\Omega S^2$ to something finite dimensional
this is sad
@loch help
 
It seems crazy that there's a classification of injective modules over a commutative noetherian ring. Injective modules seem "harder" than projective modules, but I don't think there's any classification of projective modules over a noetherian commutative ring
 
8:38 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos i'm sad
 
oh god why would you try to classify modules
 
why not?
 
how many are there
 
@RyanUnger that's... like the entirety of representation theory?
 
There are exactly 13
 
8:39 PM
rofl
 
exactly as many as the prime ideals in the polynomial ring over a principal ideal domain
 
groups seem marginally more interesting than just random modules
 
classification of finite simple groups uses classification of Lie groups which uses classification of Lie algebra
and Lie algebra somewhat feels like modules lol
 
classification of finite simple groups is an insane problem
 
glad to know it's done
 
8:42 PM
over a left-Noetherian all injective left modules decompose uniquely into injective indecomposable modules. The indecomposable injective modules are in canonical bijection to prime ideals if the ring is commutative Noetherian
 
@MatheinBoulomenos what does $\Bbb Q/\Bbb Z$ correspond to
and $\Bbb Q$
 
$\Bbb Q$ is indecomposable, it corresponds to $(0)$
 
latex z looks so awful
 
$\Bbb Q/\Bbb Z$ is not indecomposable, we have $\Bbb{Q}/\Bbb{Z}=\bigoplus_p \Bbb{Q}_p/\Bbb{Z}_p$ and each factor corresponds to $(p)$
 
8:47 PM
you what
 
@LeakyNun whats up
 
19 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
oh no this means I can't deform $\Omega S^2$ to something finite dimensional
 
is that bad
 
that's sad
 
lol
why is it sad
 
8:49 PM
because then I can't visualize it
 
I have just stopped trying to visualize things in topology
too hard
 
same
hopefully balarka will save you
 
how does the homology of a covering space relate to the homology of a space?
 
hmm im not sure what you can say -- eg if you look S^n -> \R \P^n

you can say eg that the euler characteristic of the covering space = degree of covering* your base though
 
8:58 PM
hmm
yeah I should have looked at examples lol
 
@loch can one prove this in the de Rham setting
I used this in a Ricci flow seminar but wasn't able to give an "analytic" proof
 
@LeakyNun I'm pretty sure you can visualize $\Omega S^2$ strictly better than some 5-manifold
 
Sep 20 '17 at 17:54, by Balarka Sen
I think the only proof of $\pi_4(S^2) \cong \Bbb Z/2$ I know is by Pontryagin-Thom isomorphism
@MikeMiller what's P-T isomorphism and why does it prove this?
 
I'm not a search engine
2
 
I googled it and I couldn't find anything useful
Wiki says something about cohomology groups
 
9:10 PM
It's a known fact that $\Bbb{A}_{\Bbb Q}$ is self-dual. This implies that the dual of $\Bbb Q$ is $\Bbb{A}_{\Bbb Q}/\Bbb Q$.
Consider $0 \to \Bbb Z \to \Bbb Q \to \Bbb Q/\Bbb Z \to 0$. Taking Pontryagin duals, we obtain $0 \to \widehat{\Bbb Z} \to \Bbb{A}_{\Bbb Q}/\Bbb{Q} \to S^1 \to 0$ Obviously $\Bbb{A}_{\Bbb Q}/\Bbb{Q} \to S^1$ is not a covering, but it should be an inverse limit of coverings, so like a "procovering". If one takes the inverse limit of $z \to z^n$, then one obtains another "procovering" with "fiber" $\widehat{\Bbb Z}$, but I can't see why that is isomorphic to $\Bbb{A}_{\
 
@RyanUnger Let me try this. Let $\tilde M \to M$ be a finite covering space, with fiber $F$. One has a corresponding flat bundle $\Bbb R[F]$ over $M$. First you should see that for any bundle with connection $E$ you have $\chi(H^*_{dR}(M;E)) = (\dim E) \cdot \chi(M)$, which is probably best done via homotopy invariance of index. Now argue that $\Omega^*_{dR}(M;\Bbb R[F]) = \Omega^*_{dR}(\tilde M)$.
I haven't checked all the details but this should work fine.
 
@MikeMiller So you just lift $d$ to $\Bbb R[F]$ (never seen that notation before) in the sensible way?
What is $\Bbb R[F]$ called
 
7
A: Visualize Fourth Homotopy Group of $S^2$

Liviu NicolaescuFor me, the most satisfactory explanation of the isomorphism $\pi_4(S^2)\cong \mathbb{Z}/2$ is in Pontryagin's beautiful survey Smooth manifolds and their applications in homotopy theory. 1959 American Mathematical Society Translations, Ser. 2, Vol. 11 pp. 1–114 American Mathematical Soci...

this looks promising
 
I thought that standard proof for the Euler characteristic thing is to lift a triangulation (or a CW decomposition I guess)
 
@RyanUnger the covering map gives you a representation $\pi_1 M \to S_n$, where $n$ is the cardinality of the fiber. a representation of the fundamental group into $O(n)$ gives a flat bundle with fiber $\Bbb R^n$. a flat bundle comes equipped with a flat connection, by definition depending on your definition, but in any case in a local trivialization it's just $d$.
@MatheinBoulomenos he wanted an analytic proof
 
9:20 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos Sure, and that's the reason I gave during the talk
 
I named it $\Bbb R[F]$ because $F$ is the fiber and this is a bundle of rank $|F|$
The rest is up to you
 
6
A: Visualize Fourth Homotopy Group of $S^2$

Piotr PstrągowskiOne way I see is the following. To start with, $\pi_{4}(S^{3}) \simeq \pi_{4}(S^{2})$ because of the existence of the Hopf fibre sequence $S^{1} \rightarrow S^{3} \rightarrow S^{2}$ and moreover the isomorphism is given by composition with the Hopf map. Hence, as was observed in the comments, yo...

7
A: Not null homotopic map from $S^3$ to $S^2 \vee S^2$

Balarka SenConsider the attaching map $S^3 \to S^2 \vee S^2$ of the $4$-cell in the standard CW-structure of $S^2 \times S^2$. If this is nullhmotopic, $S^2 \times S^2$ would be homotopic to $S^2 \vee S^2 \vee S^4$ as homotopic attaching map implies homotopy equivalent spaces. But cup square $\alpha \smile...

@BalarkaSen lol
 
9:57 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos where can I learn about [X,Y]?
nlab perhaps
it seems to be a group when we have a "group structure" on X
this sounds similar to some Yoneda construction
ok it's the morphism in the naive homotopy category
 
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