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12:44 AM
Someone please help me.
 
1:34 AM
apparently i'm blind
oh, not blind, but this is still weird
this is a fairly short paper at 21 pages: siba.unipv.it/fisica/ScientificaActa/volume_2_1/Regazzini.pdf
but for some reason section 2 has its own list of references, separate from section 3
so when you get to the end of those references, it looks like the paper has ended already without ever getting to section 3 :/
 
That is weird, I guess they want each section to be self contained?
Since the first section is just an introduction.
 
Is this equilibrium point stable from this phase portrait
 
1:50 AM
@skullpatrol yeah, i dunno. possibly it's just typical of that journal
 
Can someone help with the aforementioned question?
 
2:10 AM
@Nobodyrecognizeable not going to say a lot, but one issue with that problem: the solution to that ode + boundary conditions does not have bounded first derivative at t=0
which creates some issues with solving it correctly. my advice would be to ignore the boundary conditions until you've got the general solution
otherwise you're very liable to get an answer which makes no sense
 
3:10 AM
@Semiclassical thanks by trial I got $ x=e^{t/2} +c$. Now the boundary conditions do demand different values of c.
 
the way you'd get that answer is precisely by enforcing boundary conditions along the way.
which, as I said, you should not do
if you don't, you'll end up with two integration constants in your general solution for x(t)
and that's enough to satisfy both boundary conditions.
 
@Semiclassical two integration constants how?
 
by not enforcing boundary conditions until the end.
 
@Semiclassical actually I put $x=e^{mt} $ and got m=1/2. Am I in the right way?
 
No. Guessing a solution is not a good approach here.
 
3:16 AM
@Semiclassical then please give me a reference.
 
My suggestion: Start by multiplying the entire ODE by $x$, and see if you can recognize the left-hand side as a total derivative
i.e. is there some F(x(t),t) such that the left-hand side is dF/dt
If you can do that, you can make progress.
 
@Semiclassical OK trying.
 
your username begs the question is it possible to recognise Nobodyrecognizeable without experiencing the sensation of recognition?
6
 
@Semiclassical $x^2/2=e^{t+c} +c_2$?
@skullpetrol I've met you earlier. You didn't recognise me. So my name makes sense.
@Semiclassical I got c.
@Semiclassical thanks for the help. You solved my problem. Have a nice day. Good bye.
 
 
3 hours later…
6:59 AM
Hi @Mathein, @Ryan
 
7:24 AM
Hi @Balarka
 
Yo @Alessandro
 
\o @y'all
 
I have to learn how connections, the Clifford algebra and the spinc group work
Any good references?
 
I have heard Michelson-Lawson is good
I was reading a little bit from some GTM I can't remember the name of
 
I see, let me order it on my favourite online Russian bookstore real quick
GTM? Geometric ??
 
7:33 AM
Ah yeah Friedrich, "Dirac Operators in Riemannian Geometry"
Graduate Text in Mathematics :3
 
(are you familiar with those topics if I have questions?)
 
Nope!
Mike is though
 
@BalarkaSen ahhh makes sense
 
And I know how to conjure him up
 
Draw a circle of salt on the ground and start computing its fundamental group
 
7:39 AM
You need to repeat "Heegaard-Floer homology, awaken instanton-eously" thrice while doing so
 
Mornin'
 
@BalarkaSen LOL
 
Hi @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
Morning @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
I'm messing up some computation but also feel lazy to sit down and do it
 
8:05 AM
I just spent two hours explaining to little brother why $a+b=a-(-b)$ is true for all integers even when one of $a$ and $b$ is positive and the other is negative. His proof contains recursion apparently.
It's enough to say lhs=rhs when when you have brought both side to the same form, but he's encouraged to do the evaluation entirely which means at a point (-)(-) = (+) which he can't do without the initial equation.
Mathematic is a belief apparently.
 
 
2 hours later…
9:49 AM
How young is he @Nick?
 
@Skiesburn 12
 
Jun 19 at 6:24, by skullpatrol
Show him that ^
See page 117 i.e. pdf page 5
 
yeah, I did try to explain it as number line hopping over multiples of +1 increments to the right and -1 decrements to the left and each number being a leap from 0 which condenses the hops. So, that substantiates $-a = (-1)\cdot a$ for every value of a.
 
@BalarkaSen Is it possible that there is a typo in the very first definition? I guess it should be $v\otimes v+q(v)1$ rather than $v\otimes v+q(V)1$?
 
I made $(-a-(-b))$ as $-1(a-b)$ so he'd see whatever the numbers, the difference between negative integers is the same as the difference between their equivalent positive integers.
 
10:02 AM
@Alessandro Yeah sounds right
I don't have the book with me at the moment but it is $v \otimes v + q(v)1$
 
@Skiesburn anyhow, thank you, I will forward this to him. There's definitely a substantial amount of insight in this that he might enjoy reading.
 
That's the ideal one needs to quotient the tensor algebra by to get the clifford algebra, $q$ is the quadratic form on $V$
 
10:53 AM
.does the prime avoidance hold for fractional ideals?
@AlessandroCodenotti
 
@Alessandro Right, you're formally taking the square root of the quadratic form
 
Balarka, what do you think?
 
Which is why I think this construction is relevant in the construction of the Dirac operator, which I have been told should be thought as the square root of the Laplacian
I don't know what prime avoidance is
 
In algebra, the prime avoidance lemma says that if an ideal I in a commutative ring R is contained in a union of finitely many prime ideals Pi's, then it is contained in Pi for some i. There are many variations of the lemma (cf. Hochster); for example, if the ring R contains an infinite field or a finite field of sufficiently large cardinality, then the statement follows from a fact in linear algebra that a vector space over an infinite field or a finite field of large cardinality is not a finite union of its proper vector subspaces. == Statement and proof == The following statement and argument...
 
I've better work to do that reading a wikipedia page :P
 
10:57 AM
@BalarkaSen wait
Let E be a subset of R that is an additive subgroup of R and is multiplicatively closed. Let $I_1, I_2, ..., I_n$ be ideals that are prime for $n \geq 3$. If $E$ is not contained in any of $I_i$'s then $E$ is not contained in the union
 
I really don't have the time or patience to read this. I am sure people who actually know this stuff can address your question better.
 
I still can't get a hold of the problem that I asked you to check
what is your advice in this type of situation. Should I leave it?
 
Why not ask on the main site?
 
I don't think it's true but I didn't spend much time thinking about it
 
@skullpatrol I did. No proper reply so far
 
11:02 AM
Patience is a virtue for a good reason :-)
2
 
Consider an infinite commutative group $G$. Let $<a_1>, <a_2>, ..., <a_m>$ ($<a_i>=C_i$) be a finite collection of infinite cyclic subgroups of $G$ such that $C_j \not\subset \displaystyle\bigcup_{I \setminus \{j\}}C_i$ , $I=\{1,2,3,...,m\}$. Then $\displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^mC_i$ is never a subgroup of $G$.
I have restricted it even further.
 
Update your main site question with that^
 
good luck my friend
 
@SubhasisBiswas That should be easy, look at the subgroup of $G$ generated by $a_1, \cdots, a_m$. That's a $\Bbb Z^m$, and $C_i$'s are your coordinate axes. So equivalent to proving that the union of coordinate $\Bbb Z$'s is not a subgroup of $\Bbb Z^m$, which it isn't
Flesh out the details of this sketch and you're done
 
11:07 AM
@BalarkaSen the statement is true, then?
 
For a commutative group yes
 
@BalarkaSen So, what are you saying is the subgroup is isomorphic to $Z^m$?
i am not quite getting it
 
What's unclear about what I said? $\langle a_1, \cdots, a_m \rangle$ is $\Bbb Z^m$.
 
@BalarkaSen How do I prove this? By mapping $\phi((a_1,a_2, a_3, ..., a_m)) = (1,1,1,...1)$ [m times]?
 
By thinking.
2
 
11:23 AM
$<a_i>$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}$. So, $<a_1> \times <a_2> \times ... \times <a_m> \cong \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} ...$m times $\times \mathbb{Z}$ ?
@BalarkaSen well, I know you are busy. But a few more minutes to help out a poor soul won't hurt, I guess.
hello @skullpatrol
 
re-hi
 
:D
what are your insights?
 
try sleeping on the problem
your brain will be refreshed
:-)
 
i have been doing that for two consecutive days
 
getting obsessed with one question is dangerous
step back and do something else for awhile
look for it in other books
 
11:43 AM
hello @AkivaWeinberger
 
left your country yet?
 
Well
Arrived in my country
 
I'm back in New York
And then in two months I go off to college
Today I'mma go to an aquarium
 
11:45 AM
@AkivaWeinberger :)
well. I have a little problem
I am trying to show $<a_1, .., a_m>$ is isomorphic to $Z^m$. I want you to verify
do you have time?
 
Maybe a little
So what's $\langle a_1,\dots,a_m\rangle$?
 
The maximum value of $f(x, y)=(x y)^{1 / 2},$ subject to $|x| \geq|y|$ and $|x|+|y| \leq 1,$
 
a subgroup generated by $a_1, a_2,.., a_m$, where $a_i$'s are elements of a commutative group $G$.
 
How to tackle such kind of problems ? I saw this kind of problem in every entrance
 
Do we know anything about $G$ or the $a_i$?
 
11:48 AM
@AkivaWeinberger $G$ is infinite. And the orders of $a_i$ are infinite
 
One of the approach is using graph but it seems to very time consuming any other idea is welcome
 
@mathsstudent You can assume $|x|+|y|=1$ 'cause if it's any less you can increase $(xy)^{1/2}$ by increasing $x$ or $y$
 
I guess if we map $\phi({a_1}^{r_1}...{a_m}^{r_m})=(r_1, r_2, ..., r_m)$ then it might work
 
@SubhasisBiswas Consider $G=\Bbb Z$
 
@mathsstudent graphing is your best bet
 
11:50 AM
and $a_1=2$, $~a_2=3$
Then $\langle2,3\rangle=\Bbb Z\ne\Bbb Z^2$
so there must be some more hypotheses
 
@AkivaWeinberger oh Yes. Wait
@SubhasisBiswas this message
 
Wait so what are we trying to prove? That $\langle a_1,a_2\rangle=\Bbb Z^2$ or that $\langle a_1\rangle\cup\langle a_2\rangle$ isn't a group?
 
@AkivaWeinberger both.
 
Well the first one isn't true for the example I gave
$\langle2,3\rangle\ne\Bbb Z^2$
On the other hand, I can prove the second one
 
@AkivaWeinberger yes. Second one is manageable
 
11:54 AM
Suppose $\langle a_1\rangle\cup\langle a_2\rangle$ were a group
Then we'd have $a_1+a_2\in\langle a_1\rangle\cup\langle a_2\rangle$
(You said $G$ was commutative, right?)
 
union of two subgroups that don't contain one another is not a subgroup
 
Therefore $a_1+a_2=na_1$ or $a_1+a_2=na_2$
which means $a_2=(n-1)a_1$ or $a_1=(n-2)a_2$
which would mean either $\langle a_2\rangle\subseteq\langle a_1\rangle$ or $\langle a_1\rangle\subseteq\langle a_2\rangle$
contradicting our hypothesis
 
@AkivaWeinberger how so?
 
You tell me
Show that $1\in\langle2,3\rangle$ for example
 
hmmm.. I am thinking
$gcd(2,3)=1$, so $1$ is in $<2,3>$
 
12:00 PM
Give me a more direct proof
What does $\langle2,3\rangle$ mean?
 
A collection of elements of type $2u+3v$, $u, v \in \mathbb{Z}$
 
So how do you get $1$
 
Yeah
Now that you know that $1\in\langle2,3\rangle$, you know that any integer $k\in\langle2,3\rangle$
'cause $k=3(k)-2(k)$
(or $2(-k)+3(k)$ or whatever)
So what group is $\langle2,3\rangle$ equal to?
 
But, how do you conclude that $<2,3>$ is $Z$?
$<2,3>$ is not cyclic
 
12:03 PM
But it is! It's cyclic with generator $1$
The set $\langle2,3\rangle$ is the set of all integers
 
@AkivaWeinberger hmmmm....
 
Every element of $\langle2,3\rangle$ is clearly an integer, and we just proved that every integer is an element of $\langle2,3\rangle$.
It's cyclic with generator $2(1)+3(-1)$.
By the way
 
@AkivaWeinberger hmm..got it
 
The "proof" you were thinking about before, of $\phi(r_1,r_2)=2r_1+3r_2$, for showing that it's isomorphic to $\Bbb Z^2$
doesn't work because $\phi$ isn't injective:
$\phi(3,-2)=2(3)+3(-2)=6-6=0=\phi(0,0)$
 
aha. I get it
thank you man!
 
12:07 PM
1 hour ago, by Subhasis Biswas
Consider an infinite commutative group $G$. Let $<a_1>, <a_2>, ..., <a_m>$ ($<a_i>=C_i$) be a finite collection of infinite cyclic subgroups of $G$ such that $C_j \not\subset \displaystyle\bigcup_{I \setminus \{j\}}C_i$ , $I=\{1,2,3,...,m\}$. Then $\displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^mC_i$ is never a subgroup of $G$.
I proved this for $m=2$ earlier
Still thinking about how to do it for more than two $a$s
 
@AkivaWeinberger case $m=2$ is nothing.
Even a dumb student like me can do that
 
Oh I think I see how to do it for $m=3$
 
@AkivaWeinberger en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prime_avoidance_lemma this might be of help
 
Right so if it were a subgroup, then we'd have $a_1+a_3\in\langle a_1\rangle\cup\langle a_2\rangle\cup\langle a_3\rangle$
@SubhasisBiswas Hm I'll look at that in a second
and also $a_2+a_3\in\langle a_1\rangle\cup\langle a_2\rangle\cup\langle a_3\rangle$
 
@AkivaWeinberger By direct sum, the coproduct is intended, i.e. the free product of not-necessarily commutative groups?
 
12:11 PM
No, literally the union
The $a$s are elements of the commutative group $G$
 
@skullpatrol . Not all
 
Oh, I didn't see that they were subgroups of $G$
 
Right so if we have $a_1+a_3=ma_1$ we run into the same problem from earlier
Same if $a_1+a_3=ma_3$
So I guess we have $a_1+a_3=ma_2$
and similarly $a_2+a_3=na_1$
 
perfect so far
 
Subtract the two to get $a_1-a_2=ma_2-na_1$
 
12:12 PM
we can start working by induction
 
The union isn't a subgroup because it's not closed under multiplication?
 
or $(m-1)a_1=(n-1)a_2$
 
@SubhasisBiswas that, my friend, depends on how "new" they are
 
@Skiesburn That's what we want to show
 
@AkivaWeinberger what guarantees that that is a contradiction?
 
12:13 PM
I'm thinking
Not sure yet
 
mmm..I was trying to come up with a surefire formula that will always "generate" an element that is not in the union. But I can't find any. $2Z \cup 3Z \cup 7Z$... $5$ isn't in the union
but can we do that by some formula that will give us something that will always be missing in the union?
 
@AkivaWeinberger If $\langle a_1, \cdots, a_m \rangle$ is not $\Bbb Z^m$ then two cyclic subgroups have to intersect in a proper subgroup, is the idea. That shouldn't happen unless you have a finite order element, I think, is the key (think of eg $\Bbb Z \times \Bbb Z_2$ with the subgroups generated by $(1, 0)$ and $(1, 1)$)
But every element of $\bigcup C_i$ is of infinite order
 
?
$\langle2,3\rangle$ isn't $\Bbb Z^2$, and $\langle2\rangle\cap\langle3\rangle=\langle6\rangle$
and there's no element of finite order
 
The hypothesis is that the union is a group. (2) cup (3) is not a subgroup.
@AkivaWeinberger I mean this is literally what you wrote down. Two of those cyclic groups intersect in a proper subgroups.
 
OK. Why does that mean their union can't be a subgroup?
 
12:19 PM
That's what, I didn't think about that very hard, and what I meant when I said "flesh the argument out"
 
What is the geometric meaning of Analytic/holomorphic function? I checked the question on MSE, but the answers are quite mathematically verbose, I didn't get that.
 
@AjayMishra It means a function from $\Bbb C\to\Bbb C$ (i.e. the inputs and outputs are complex numbers) that has a complex derivative
 
I know the definitions.
 
@AjayMishra A function $f : \Bbb C \to \Bbb C$ is holomorphic if infinitisimally all $f$ does is stretching or rotating, or composition of them
 
Maybe thing about $|x|$ at origin
I am not sure
 
12:21 PM
A derivative of a complex function is slightly more delicate than the usual one because when you write $\lim_{h\to0}$, instead of $h$ approaching $0$ from one of two sides, it can approach $0$ from any direction in the plane
 
@AkivaWeinberger isn't that a concept of directional derivative?
 
I am asking for meaning. Like in single variable calculus, one have the meaning that the graph doesn't take sharp turns, or in multivariable calculus it is that the surface isn't edgy.
 
To expand on what Balarka just said: A function (real or complex) is differentiable if, locally, it looks like a linear function.
($ax+b$)
 
Complex linear, different from linear.
 
($f(x)\approx f'(a)(x-a)+f(a)$ near $a$)
 
12:22 PM
@BalarkaSen In the same can you tell me, what sort of function can be considered as non-analytic?
 
@AjayMishra Think $\overline{z}$.
@Subhasis No, that's analytic in it's domain of definition.
 
@AjayMishra What does the function $f(z)=az+b$ "look like" on the complex plane?
As a simple example, what does $f(z)=iz$ "look like"?
It rotates the plane 90 degrees.
 
@AkivaWeinberger I have a processing JS program to visualize that.
 
It takes $1$ to $i$, $~i$ to $-1$, etc
 
@AjayMishra The holomorphic functions are the analytic analogue of polynomial functions. If you are on $\Bbb P^1$ as a $\Bbb C$-scheme, and you want to move into the analytic case, you can think of it as moving from $\Bbb C[z]$ to $\Bbb C[[z]]$. Think of it as moving into the adic topology
 
12:24 PM
On the other hand, $f(z)=2z$ "looks like" dilating (resizing) the plane by a factor of 2
@Skiesburn That looks incredibly unhelpful
 
can the werierstrass function be an example of a smooth, yet not analytic curve?
 
$f(z)=az$ looks like a combination of a rotation and a dilation, in general. @Skiesburn
A pure dilation if $a$ is real, a pure rotation if $a$ is on the unit circle, and a combination if $a$ is anything else
 
He said geometrically @AkivaWeinberger?
I'd consider GAGA geometric
 
I might be wrong but I suspect he doesn't know what a scheme, $\Bbb C[[z]]$, or the adic topology is
 
Isn't the function $f(z) = \bar z $ just rotates the planes. (I know by definition of derivative the function depends on the orientation, but it satisfies the "Geometric" defintion)
 
12:26 PM
Serre considered it an enlightening perspective, but you can disagree
 
I'm 50% sure he doesn't mean algebra-geometric
 
It doesn't. It reflects the plane @AjayMishra
And that's important. No function of the form $f(z)=az+b$ reflects the plane
It's a rotation/dilation/translation.
 
So, Takeaway should be that for any complex function which is analytic, I can break its work into these three simple actions. Namely rotation/dilation/translation ?
 
Locally, at least @AjayMishra
 
Locally, yep
 
12:28 PM
If you zoom in at any point
$f(z)=z^2$ doesn't look like that, but if you zoom in near $z=a$, it will look like $f(z)\approx 2az+{\rm constant}$.
 
What does locally mean, here? ( I'm aware of the literal meaning, and meaning in real analysis)
 
($2a$ being the derivative of $z^2$ at $a$)
 
on the Riemann sphere any analytic function is constant
 
@BalarkaSen is this why "angle-preserving" transformations work?
 
I should point out, by the way
$f(z)=z^2$, near zero, looks like $f(z)\approx 0$
because we're only looking at it up to a linear approximation
@SubhasisBiswas Yeah, essentially. Rotations and dilations preserve angles
 
12:30 PM
Okay, thanks all. I'm done.
 
There is one exception though
$f(z)=z^2$ doesn't preserve angles at 0
In fact, it doubles them
The reason is that our linear approximation there is just $f(z)\approx 0$
which isn't a good enough approximation to tell us anything about the angles
 
Conformal maps, which are the angle-preserving ones, are local biholomorphisms.
 
Just one more, how do you visualize these things efficiently?
 
well, I will be learning some complex analysis. So getting a hold of geometric intuition might help later
 
^This is what the squaring function does to the complex plane.
 
12:32 PM
This is the "real slice" of the graph of $w=z^2$ in $\Bbb C^2$ to be clear
 
@AjayMishra I am not an expert, but you can try wolframalpha
 
Did you draw that?
 
or you can download mathematica and plot those functions
 
'Cause if you did then I think you understand
 
12:33 PM
@Subhasis Till now, I've used these ^ , left one is input plane, and right one is output plane.
@AkivaWeinberger yeah.
 
That's basically half of the picture I posted above
 
@AjayMishra under the squaring function near zero?
 
By the way, Ajay, did you ever see the algebraic proof that $\bar z$ isn't holomorphic (has no complex derivative)?
You basically use the definition of a derivative to say that
 
Yeah,In MIT old videos, by herbert gross
 
$\displaystyle f'(z)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(z+h)-f(z)}h$
so $\displaystyle f'(0)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(h)-f(0)}h$
Let $f(z)=\bar z$
 
12:35 PM
@BalarkaSen (please don't get infuriated because I don't know) So, does it mean that the domain set and the range set of the function are homeomorphic?
 
$\displaystyle f'(z)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{\bar h-\bar 0}h$
$\displaystyle f'(z)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{\bar h}h$
 
@SubhasisBiswas Domains being holomorphic makes no sense. Biholomorphism means it's holomorphic with a holomorphic inverse.
 
If $h$ is a small real, $\bar h=h$ so $\bar h/h=1$
If $h$ is a small (pure) imaginary, $\bar h=-h$ so $\bar h/h=-1$
 
@AkivaWeinberger Basically, the derivative depends on the path.
 
Yeah
This basically encapsulates the idea that $\bar z$ doesn't look like any rotation
If you want some rotation to do the right thing to real $h$, you do the rotation corresponding to $1$ (aka rotate it 0 degrees aka don't rotate it at all)
If you want some rotation to do the right thing to imaginary $h$, you do the rotation corresponding to $-1$ (aka rotate it 180 degrees)
No rotation does the right thing to both at the same time
Look at this at 7min50sec in^
 
12:40 PM
@BalarkaSen I meant topologically isomorphic (homeomorphic). Does it make sense?
 
Biholomorphisms are in particular homeomorphisms, yes.
 
@BalarkaSen wow.
 
Skip to 8min50sec to see the animation @AjayMishra
 
i will learn about it. Sooner or later.
 
At around 12(ish?) minutes into the video it talks about complex derivatives @AjayMishra
 
12:42 PM
@AkivaWeinberger 3blue1brown is a blessing to mankind. I wish I understood the full insight that he gives in each of his videos.
 
By the way, fun fact
In 2D, we see there are tons of angle-preserving transformations from the plane to the plane
In 3D and up, it's extremely restricted
Clearly rigid transformations (rotations, reflections, translations, combinations of these) do this
There's one other class of transformation called a "Möbius transformation"
(If you've learned "inversive geometry" it's like that)
And that's it
No other transformations preserve angles for 3D and up
For example
^Here's an angle-preserving transformation between a circle and a leaf shape in 2D
In 3D, you can only turn spheres into other spheres
(or inside-out spheres)
(or half-spaces, which are essentially just infinitely big spheres)
 
@AkivaWeinberger bilinear?
 
Is mobius transformation another name for bilinear transformation ?
I should leave that problem. Maybe I should come back to it sometime later.
Anyone, who is interested in taking a look (so far unanswered) at the question
4
Q: A finite union of infinite cyclic subgroups of a group $G$ is never a group.

Subhasis Biswas$\mathbf{Question}$: Consider an infinite group $G$. Let $\langle a_1\rangle , \langle a_2\rangle, \ldots, \langle a_m\rangle $ ($\langle a_i\rangle =C_i$) be a finite collection of infinite cyclic subgroups of $G$ such that $C_i \not\subset C_j$ for $i \neq j$. Then $\displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^m...

 
12:54 PM
Here's another problem
Let $(H,+)$ be a subgroup of $(\mathbb{R}, +)$, such that $H\cap [-1,1]$ is finite and it contains elements other than $0$. Prove that $H$ is cyclic
 
Find the element closest to zero
 
@AkivaWeinberger I thought about it
 
(If it were infinite there might not have been one closest to zero)
I claim that that element generates $H$
 
don't solve it
 
Arright
 
12:57 PM
Let me try
I claim that an irrational number cannot be in that intersection
since $\{nx\}$ will be dense in $[0,1]$
@AkivaWeinberger, good so far?
 
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