Does anybody know what exactly the radical (rad) is (with respect to a Lorentz metric)? Supposedly it is a 1-dimensional subspace of the tangent space and defined at every point x of an embedded hypersurface D.
@Silent that statement should be true for positive numbers. If $\sum x_n$ converges, then $x_n$ converges to $0$. Choose some $N$ such that $x_n < 1$ for $n \ge N$, then $x_n^2 < x_n$
If these aren't positive then I think $\sum \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}$ converges, but then when you square terms you get the harmonic series
So let's say $P$ has roots $\lambda_1 > \ldots > \lambda_5$. You want to show that $P'$ has 4 distinct real roots $\mu_1 > \ldots > \mu_4$ and that $\lambda_1 > \mu_1 > \lambda_2 > \mu_2 > \ldots > \mu_4 > \lambda_5$
The only two problems about interlacing that I know are the following
First is a generalization of yours, namely if you have a polynomial $p$ with real roots $\lambda_1 \ge \ldots \ge \lambda_n$ (not necessarily distinct), show that $p'$ also has real roots $\mu_1 \ge \ldots \ge \mu_{n-1}$ and that they interlace: $\lambda_k \ge \mu_k \ge \lambda_{k+1}$
Second, if you know Courant-Fischer (if not you can prove it too, good linear algebra practice), then let $A$ be a symmetric matrix and let $B$ be $A$ except that we killed the $i$th row and column
Then $A$ and $B$ both have all real eigenvalues by the symmetric theorem, show that they interlace
I spent more than an hour to figure this out : Consider a sequence $a_n$ of positive numbers satisfying the condition $a_na_{n+2}\le a_{n+1}^2$ for all $n\in \Bbb N$ then $a_n$ is convergent sequence if $a_1=2a_2$. Is this true or false?
Re Silent: Hmm, so just thinking out loud here, $a_1a_3 \le a_2^2 = \frac{1}{4}a_1^2$, meaning $a_3 \le \frac{1}{4}a_1$. And $a_2a_4 \le a_3^2 \le \frac{1}{16}a_1^2$, meaning $a_4 \le \frac{1}{8}a_1$. Conjecture: $a_n \le \frac{1}{2^{n-1}}a_1$. Should be easily provable by sufficiently careful induction
Not too much, having a bit of a hard time holding on to motivation to be diligent for classes but I've just gotta push through a few more weeks and I'll be done. Then it'll be getting ready for grad school
Graph theory, number theory, ancient empires (required class, probably the one I'm most checked out of), and probability (close second, kinda just doing it for a requirement)
It's been going around between things. Lectures were hard to understand + in the morning so I hadn't been good about going to class but the topic flow was basically commutative algebra (Dedekind domains, DVRs) -> p-adics -> Riemann surfaces = function fields in one variable (didn't really prove, just did the CP^1 example and said it holds) -> Riemann Roch and the number theoretic analogy. Now it's units, I think soon it'll be class groups
At the end I think the intent is to do brief intros to CFT and maybe Langlands
As for simple graphs, I haven't ever worked with non-simple graphs but acyclic seems to imply simple so it's probably not necessary. Might not hurt to throw in a remark to clarify though?
We know that the binomial theorem and expansion extends to powers which are non-integers.
For integer powers the expansion can be proven easily as the expansion is finite. However what is the proof that the expansion also holds for fractional powers?
This question was previously asked here, and...
what's supposed to be done with a question like this?
it was suggested that instead of a new question (as created there) the original was extended, so my question was closed. Then when I tried to edit the original question to include what I was asking my edits were refused
I'm afraid I can't comment on the policies regarding closed questions, but the proof you are looking for can be taken care of by an application of Taylor's theorem and Bernstein's theorem on real analytic functions
I was finding the sums of pairs of sexy primes (prime numbers that differ by 6) and noticed that there are a lot of pairs who's sum is divisible by $10$.
Ex. $(7, 13)$ as $7+13=20$ and $20$ is divisible by $10$.
I then wondered if there are consecutive sexy prime pairs who's sum is divisible by...
Does this make sense? Say you have a coordinate plane and you apply a linear transformation that sends each negative number $K$ units to the right so that each negative number is identified with a corresponding positive number
@Ultradark Its actually a theory question, I have to use the rejection method to generate values of a continuous distribution X with function f(x) using an auxiliar distribution Y with function y(x)
The problem is my textbook says to find the c such that $\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} > c$ I need to find the critical point of $f'(x)$, but I have another textbook that says I need to use $\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} d/dx$
I tried searching for primes of the form $k^k+11$ on PARI/GP and found that no such prime exists for $k \le 10^4$.
Questions:
$(1)$ Is there any reason I cannot find a prime of the form $k^k+11$?
$(2)$ If yes then can you prove/disprove the infinitude of primes of this form?