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00:09
Got it thanks
 
7 hours later…
07:31
0
Q: tensor product map

maths student$V\otimes_k k[t] \to L$ by $\ell_i\otimes p \mapsto p\ell_i$. Since the $\ell_i$ formed a $k[t]$ basis for $L$, this map is an isomorphism of $k[t]$ modules. Why this map is isomorphism of $ k[t]$ module? $V$ is $V=\{\sum_i c_i\ell_i : c_i\in k\}$ $k$-vector space. Attempt: Injectivity :if $p\el...

@LeakyNun can you have look at above question ?
08:03
k[t] basis are k basis for vector space over k?
Right or wrong?
08:47
I just learned that if field $F$ is characteristic zero, or a finite field, then if $f(x)$ is irreducible polynomial in $F[x]$,then $f(x)$ is separable. Hence I was trying to come up with counterexample of converse: I thought of this: $x^2-5x+6$ is separable but reducible in $\mathbb R[x]$, right?
So, it seems like irreducibility depends on underlying field, but separability is free of field.
 
2 hours later…
10:19
@Silent x^2-5x+6 is separable and reducible in any field
and indeed irreducibility depends on the underlying field and separability is independent
10:45
I think you need to be somewhat careful with what exactly you mean, $(x-1)(x-3)$ is separable over $\Bbb R$ but not over $\Bbb Z/(2)$
11:09
@AlessandroCodenotti but that's (x-2)(x-3)
insert mathematicians can't count meme
Sure, but I'm arguing that "separability is free of field" requires some care
oh
@Silent separability is independent of fields as long as the two fields are "connected" by some chain of morphisms
in the tree of fields
@AlessandroCodenotti how ridiculous that the present tense of "I have elected" is "I elect"
"I have fixed" is "I fix" etc
 
1 hour later…
12:16
If I have a series of conjunctions, can I use a big $\wedge$ operator with an index? E.g. $\wedge_{i=1}^n x_i < a$ instead of $x_1 < a\ \wedge\ x_2 < a\ \wedge\ x_3 < a\ \wedge\ \dots\ \ \wedge\ x_n < a$ ? What is the $\LaTeX$ code for that big symbol?
I think I'm right.
$\bigwedge$
An infinitary logic is a logic that allows infinitely long statements and/or infinitely long proofs. Some infinitary logics may have different properties from those of standard first-order logic. In particular, infinitary logics may fail to be compact or complete. Notions of compactness and completeness that are equivalent in finitary logic sometimes are not so in infinitary logics. Therefore for infinitary logics, notions of strong compactness and strong completeness are defined. This article addresses Hilbert-type infinitary logics, as these have been extensively studied and constitute the most...
$\bigvee \bigwedge$
 
2 hours later…
14:01
let $X = \sum_{n=1} \zeta_n$ where $\zeta_n \sim U(0,2^{-n})$
then $X = \zeta_1 + \frac12 X$
$\int X$
14:21
@LeakyNun that definitely suffices at the level of expectation values
Not so sure it works for computing probabilities
as in, suppose X and Y are identically distributed. It’s true that X and Y will have the same expectation values, but that doesn’t mean X=Y with probability one
14:55
If an author says let $X$ be an infinite dimensional normed vector space, do they refer to infinite dimensional with respect to Hamel or Schauder basis?
Should be equivalent
Oh nice, I'll just refer to them interchangeably in that case
Hamel if nothing else is specified since Schauder basis exist only in particular cases I'd say?
The idea is that a Schauder basis just allows for possibly infinite sums, so if you have a finite Hamel basis that's trivially a Schauder basis, since in finite dim there's no infinite sums.
The reason you care about Schauder is that Banach spaces are always of uncountable dimension (Baire Category thm) but you might have a countable Schauder basis
Okay yeah that makes sense
Perhaps a silly question, but I'm assuming that it turns out every infinite dimensional normed vector space has a Shauder basis correct? (because of something similar to the proof that every vector space has a basis?)
Ohh wait no, just read that there are separable Banach spaces that have no Schauder basis
Bummer
vzn
vzn
15:06
@Secret lol cutting edge math + burning man luv it :) have a bunch of awesome links on burning man, we should have a cyber meme party sometime :) ... another idea for an exhibit/ installation: fractals :)
So just to recap, say I have some infinite dimensional normed vector space $X$, then I can conclude it has an infinite dimensional Hamel basis, but I can't say it has a Schauder basis, by what I said above
Just allow an uncountable Schauder basis
15:43
Hi, would anyone here take a look at my question?
0
Q: Is this a sound proof of the fact that $a_n <C$ infinitely often?

LearnerLet $a_n, b_n, c_n$ be real positive sequences. Assume $a_n\to C>0$, and that $a_n$ is not monotone on any neighborhood of $+\infty$. Suppose also the following lemmata have been proven: Lemma 1. Whenever $a_n\ge a_{n-1}$ one has $b_n\ge c_n$. Lemma 2. For infinitely many $n$ one has $\dfrac{a_...

@Daminark I want to discuss something small in measure theory
Hi @Somos and @DavidK, that help me in answers, I would like to invite you to sign (as co-authors) the article where the information provided was relevant.
Hello everyone, we are a group of software developers, we have finished the first draft of an article about set theory and bit string representation... But we are not experts, we would like to invite any expert from this chat room to be more a co-author, if you take a few minutes to evaluate or review something in the text.

https://docs.google.com/document/d/19_X_QXpY56-72Aw7voWoPXclcGuZi7fosCNDj6uOcQM/
16:22
@Newbie just ask, someone will answer
16:58
Let's suppose I am proving that some real number K is a supremum of some set S ( subset of the reals) . If I show that K is greater than all of the members and that for any 1>$\epsilon$>0 there is some member x in S such that x<K-$\epsilon$ , is that enough ? I have only restricted $\epsilon$ from the usual characterization.
17:53
@JamesGroon First, you should say $K$ is greater than or equal to all the members. Second, you need to find an $x>K-\epsilon$, not $<$.
Hi @Semiclassic
@TedShifrin Yeah I see I made some mistakes. But the main thing I was wondering if I can restrict $\epsilon$ as 0<$\epsilon$<p, where p>0 (?)
Sure. All you care about is arbitrarily small $\epsilon$s.
Nice, thanks.
17:58
currently trying to make sure I fully understand how mixtures of probability distributions work
Don't ask me nothing about that, @Semiclassic.
is mixture a formal term
Yes, but it's a pretty obvious one
first line of the wiki article: "In probability and statistics, a mixture distribution is the probability distribution of a random variable that is derived from a collection of other random variables as follows: first, a random variable is selected by chance from the collection according to given probabilities of selection, and then the value of the selected random variable is realized."
oh interesting ive never encountered this
weird
18:00
specifically I'm looking at a case where I start with a random variable $X$
and then I symmetrize it as $X^*$ by sampling $X$ with probability 1/2 and $-X$ with probability 1/2
oh so it's like ur taking some kind of convex combination i got u
Heya MR Eric.
specifically I'm looking at a case where $X$ is a random vector
18:04
and I'm trying to convince myself that, if the random components have a certain amount of symmetry to begin with, then nothing I'm interested changes if I symmetrize it
im trying to get back into properly doing math that isnt baby stuff so maybe ill finally read the bryant paper @Ted lmao
hi demonic @Alessandro
the tricky bit is that I'm interested in stuff like $P(X_1=x)$ and $P(X_1=x,X_2=y)$, but I'm not interested so much in $P(X_1=x,X_2=y,X_3=z)$
Or learn about Chern classes and divisors, @Eric.
18:04
or that lol
so I only care about symmetry up to a certain point
im only taking a few blow off classes and algebraic number theory this quarter so i should have tons of free time since it's my last term
e.g. I want $(X_1,X_2)$ and $(-X_1,-X_2)$ to be identically distributed but I don't particularly care if $(X_1,X_2,X_3)$ and $(-X_1,X_2,-X_3)$ are as well
Hey everyone!
Yeah, @Eric, but you are a senior and get lazy :P
Hi Demonark.
18:07
So I'm having to be careful
im only a little lazy i think
sup @daminark
How's everything going?
i officially committed finally @Daminark so that feels good, now im just reading the book nori posted to refresh my decaying algebrain
West or East coast?
18:13
east
Lets say you feed 2D images together with a human written textual description of each image to a system which analyse it all in some unknown way and creates some unknown internal data-structure for each image together with "fuzzy" weighted many-to-many relationships of "fuzzy" relationships types. Eache new image and text combination can affect all existing relations and data structures, The system can also on it's own create entirely new data structures, which is not a representation of neither an image nor a text.
Nice, congrats! I haven't quite committed yet but in my mind I basically know where I'm going
Were you thinking Wisconsin? I'm forgetting
cool
swing by Minneapolis some time, lol :P
(I know, not wisconsin, but still pretty close)
18:17
@Daminark ull go to the same school sougie went to!
Yeah I think there's gonna be a bus that goes from Madison right to Minneapolis! And yeah I remember I asked him about it not too long ago and he was like yeah it's a good place but my experience there was irrelevant since it was so long ago
So here's a question. Suppose I have a random real variable X which is equal in distribution to $-X$. Let the random real $Z$ be a 1:1 mixture of $X$ and $-X$. Is $Z$ identical in distribution to $X$?
My intuition would be yes but
y'know, assumptions
r they still a good place for analysis? i remember he told me i could apply if i wanted to but i was like nah i want out of the midwest lol
They do seem to have quite a few folk in analysis
@Semiclassical isnt this obvious? if they have the same distributions isnt the formula for the distro of Z just 1/2 p(x) + 1/2 p(x) = p(x)
18:24
Yeah, I think that case is indeed obvious
it's less obvious to me when I start doing stuff like $(X_1,X_2)$ and $(Y_1,Y_2)$ be equal in distribution
but all that should really be changing there is that I'm changing the domain of my random variable
and I don't think that should care a whit about the mixing
if the formula for the distribution of the mixed guy is just a convex combination of things that are identically distributed that's just taking a convex combination of 1 guy
which is just the original guy
It seems like they're mostly in harmonic analysis
doesn't matter what the domain is. could be a single real, could be a vector etc
Also a number of PDE people
18:27
ok that's why he told me to apply then lol
@Semiclassical yeah u only get something up to distro anyway right? so it shouldnt matter where the og rvs live
Yeah so it's mostly harmonic analysis, a few PDE (they seem to be listed as a separate group), a couple people do approximation and/or scattering theory, one person is analytic NT and he seems real fun to me (he works a bunch with arithmetic manifolds), one guy is a Webster student and does SCV
yeah harmonic is its own game
i like PDE but i literally know no harmonic analysis
I'd like to learn some harmonic tbh, hopefully I can chat with some of these folk
doesnt harmonic stuff come up a lot in the analytic side of nt n stuff
18:42
Yeah, on the one hand there's the whole business with harmonic analysis that's secretly representation theory of locally compact groups, and Tate's thesis seems to do quite a lot with that. Also the more modern "Langlands" stuff apparently has a good bit of it
I'm less familiar with how it figures in to the more "What sound does an analytic number theorist make when drowning? log log log log" stuff
i've yet to run into nested logs in any problem I've actually had to work on
I think I may have run into powers of logs once
The standard proof that the sum of reciprocals of primes diverges has a $\log\log$ in it iirc
on that note, here's something interesting I randomly found while googling
"A property of prime powers used frequently in analytic number theory is that the set of prime powers which are not prime is a small set in the sense that the infinite sum of their reciprocals converges, although the primes are a large set."
So what makes the set of prime powers "large" is that it includes the primes, and what's left over is "small"
18:59
Oh snap
19:10
That's very interesting. Do you know how that is proven?
Is it known generally how much of a 50 rep bounty one can expect to get back due to increased upvotes?
In other words, the net cost of a 50 rep bounty.
19:27
It's an interesting question, though not one I think there's data for
The only way I know to track the number of upvotes after the bounty is to count how many there were before then
so unless someone were specifically tracking that, i think it's not easy to get that
Actually, $\sum_{k\ge2}\frac{1}{p^k}=\frac{1}{p^2}\sum_{k\ge0}\frac{1}{p^k}=\frac{1}{p^2}\frac{1}{1-1/p}=\frac{1}{p^2-p}=\frac{1}{p(p-1)}=\frac{1}{p-1}-\frac{1}{p}$ and $\sum_{p\text{ prime}}\left(\frac{1}{p-1}-\frac{1}{p}\right)<\sum_{n\ge2}\left(\frac{1}{n-1}-\frac{1}{n}\right)=1$, establishing the convergence. Am I missing something or does that do the job?
@Thorgott to clarify, that's a sentence on the wikipedia article for prime powers
and they don't cite a source
Yeah, unless someone has heavily used bounties and has a rough idea from experience.
@Thorgott nice, that seems to make sense
@Thorgott that looks right to me
19:31
What it does leave me wondering is what $\sum_{p\text{ prime}} \frac{1}{p(p-1)}$ actually converges to
Mathematica is smart enough to know that $\sum_{p\text{ prime}} p^{-k}$ is called a prime zeta function
it does not, by contrast, seem to know about $\sum_{p\text{ prime}} p^{-1}(p-1)^{-1}$
hello all
Yeah, that's an interesting question, but if there is a satisfying answer, it probably requires a lot more machinery to demonstrate.
20:32
@Semiclassical IIRC you actually use that property to show that sum of reciprocal of prime diverge
20:55
@Thorgott yeah, i don't doubt it
@LeakyNun neat
@Semiclassical Do you expect a closed form of some kind?
frankly, no
but for that matter there's no known elementary closed form for the sum of reciprocal cubes, for instance.
nevertheless mathematica still does give an "answer" for that, in the form of it being just $\zeta(3)$
so my curiosity is to whether there's anything known about how to express the sum of $1/p-1/(p-1)$ for prime $p$
wouldn't be surprised if there isn't
@Semiclassical can't find any match on WA for N=1e7
21:10
0.7731566.. btw
that agrees with mathematica
I'm using Python btw
21:29
Here is a question which I had on the main site recently. I got a good answer but I'm curious to see how 'obvious' their construction was
21:47
legend has it Semiclassical is still asking his question
Okay I laughed at that
ignores legends
Rehi Ted, how's it going?
Rehi, Demonark.
I am struggling to type, having cut off the tip of my left index fingers whilst cooking the other night. Luckily, I didn't do any irreparable harm ... just have to wait for a month while it heals.
:o take care
21:58
Ouch, sorry about that
I did something similar 40 years ago, in grad school. That was the left thumb instead.
Make sure to avoid the letters f, r, t, g, v, or c
But yeah really hopefully it isn't too painful still
Well, I have it bandaged, so it's not so painful — just inaccurate.
Do you want to think about some set theory? @Leaky
22:12
Do you happen to have a copy of Kanamori just lying around?
leider nein
Ok, I'm looking at a proof that for every cardinal $\lambda$ there is a function $\omega$-Jónsson for $\lambda$ and I'm stuck on a step
what is Jonsson?
A function $f:[x]^\omega\to x$ is said to be $\omega$-Jónsson for $x$ if for all $y\subseteq x$ with $|y|=|x|$, $f"[y]^\omega=x$
and what step?
22:17
So the proof goes like this: let $\lambda$ be a fixed cardinal and consider the equivalence relation on $[\lambda]^\omega$ given by "having identical tails", that is for $x,y\in [\lambda]^\omega$ we have $x\sim y$ iff there is $\alpha<\bigcup x$ such that $x\setminus\alpha=y\setminus\alpha$
For every equivalence class $E$ fix a representative $x_E$ (this uses AC) and consider the function $g:[\lambda]^\omega\to\lambda$ sending $x\in[\lambda]^\omega$ to the least $\alpha$ such that $x\setminus(\alpha+1)=x_E\setminus(\alpha+1)$, where $E$ is the equivalence class of $x$
Now we don't really need to find a function $\omega$-Jónsson for $\lambda$, it's clearly enough to find one for an $A\in[\lambda]^\lambda$. In particular we want to find such an $A$ with the property that for every $B\subset A$ with $|B|=|A|=\lambda$ we have $g"[B]^\omega\supseteq A$, the book here claims that for such an $A$ a function $\omega$-Jónsson for $A$ can be obtained from $g$, but I'm not seeing how exactly
The next step is also unclear to me, it says: Suppose by contradiction that no such $A$ exists. Then for $n\in\omega$ there are $A_n\in[\lambda]^\lambda$ and $a_n\in\lambda$ with $A_n\supseteq A_{n+1}$ and $a_{n+1}\in A_n\setminus(a_n+1)$ such that $a_{n+1}\not\in g"[A_{n+1}]^\omega$ but it's not clear to me how to construct those sequences
For the $A_i$ I think I'm supposed to take $A_0\in[\lambda]^\lambda$ arbitrary and then pick $A_{n+1}\subseteq A_n$ with $g"[A_{n+1}]^\omega\not\supseteq A_n$, but then I don't see how to fix the $a_i$
22:43
How was this integrated? I split the exponential on my paper and I ended up with extra junk. I am able to get everything else though but this integration part is driving me nuts. (Uploaded pictures to follow)
This problem was done before and I understand most of it but after applying the minimum density formula I have to take the expected value which I do get what's posted but how the heck does the integration work because I tried splitting the exponential and then taking the antiderivative. When I intergrate I have extra terms instead of $\frac{\theta}{n-1}$. Nerghh. https://ibb.co/7y2kYCF
https://ibb.co/0nHTxC2
I could just solve for $E[Y^2]$ but that would mean doing this $Var(Y)+(E[Y])^2=E[Y^2]$
I used a lot of scratch paper on this before :/

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