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1:38 AM
Hmmm, is it true that, given two ideals $(a,b)$ and $(a,c)$ in the ring $\mathbb{Z}$, that the ideal $(a,bc)=(a,b)\bigcap (a,c)$?
 
@Rithaniel think in terms of GCD
(and LCM)
you're asking whether gcd(a,bc) = lcm(gcd(a,b),gcd(a,c))
 
Yeah, I'm actually trying to show that, if gcd(a,b)=gcd(a,c), then it also equals gcd(a,bc). Maybe I'm going about it backwards, though. I should maybe use a direct argument.
 
I don't believe that.
Can you give me a counterexample?
 
Hmmm, if $a=b^2$ and $b=c$?
 
That'll do.
 
1:46 AM
Okay, then more realistically: if gcd(a,b)=gcd(a,c)=1, then gcd(a,bc)=1.
 
Aha. That sounds rather more reasonable.
 
I got some new math books today
 
@Rithaniel: You should be able to do that very directly from the usual Bezout identity.
heya @CaptainAmerica
Like what?
 
A number theory book and "math popularization" book. It explains concepts from pretty much any subject you can think of. It's like 700 pages.
 
Well, I've proven previously that gcd(m,n) is a linear combination of m and n, and I'd like to use ideals in the proof that if gcd(a,b)=gcd(a,c)=1, then gcd(a,bc)=1. Not seeing the immediately obvious proof, though.
 
1:50 AM
Well not "any subject" math is too vast for that.
 
Write down those linear combinations and play, @Rithaniel. There are other approaches, but I like that one.
Who wrote the big book, CaptainAmerica?
 
@TedShifrin Jan Gullberg
 
Never heard of it.
 
I found it by accident at the library and decided to buy it. amazon.com/Mathematics-Birth-Numbers-Jan-Gullberg/dp/039304002X
 
I no longer have it, but there's a 3-volume Russian encyclopedia of math that I always found to be quite good.
 
1:56 AM
I'm trying to gather books purely for reference as well as textbooks.
Was it written in Russian?
 
well, there are a lot of crappy books out there
I had it in English :P
 
oh, lol
I'm trying to go based on good Amazon reviews :P I'll probably get a dud eventually.
 
LOL, I think most of my books have bad Amazon reviews :P Whining students who want answers to everything in the book.
Complaints about bindings falling apart are 1000% warranted.
 
XD
I haven't done as much math as I would have liked to lately. When I miss 3-5 days, I feel so rusty when I start working again.
 
why'd you miss?
 
2:09 AM
@TedShifrin At first, a missed a few days because I had a lot of school stuff to catch up on. Now, I think I've just been a bit lazy.
 
"a bit" :D
Being lazy is OK but don't bitch at us (me) later.
 
A librarian once helped me reglue the binding on a book that totally fell apart. Told me it was a one shot deal though.
 
Book rebinding is a good skill/art to learn.
 
@TedShifrin Lol, I'll just complain passive-aggressively
Or maybe that's the same thing...
 
Yes, you are accomplished at that.
 
2:14 AM
Something I'm working on for the new year. I'm not calling it a "resolution" because then I'm likely to quit.
 
Oh, and "working on" won't lead to quitting?
 
hello!
 
I don't want to say "something I'm doing" that sounds like a commitment
 
hi @TedShifrin
how are you?
 
2:16 AM
you're commitment-phobic, CaptainAmerica
hi @maths
isn't it way past your bedtime, @maths?
 
sleep isn't for math majors
 
hmm
 
@TedShifrin Something else I'm working on for the new year :)
 
another non-resolution? sleep?
oh, commitment phobia
 
2:20 AM
i've been able to prove that for a finite collection of open sets then their intersection is open, and for a finite collection of closed sets, their union is open
 
Well, that sounds good.
 
I understand all of those terms except "open" and "closed"
 
yeah, for some reason i'm attracted to topology
 
I had a feeling that's what this was :D
 
they're generalizations of open and closed intervals in $\Bbb R$, @CaptainAmerica
if you make it to my book next year, you'll see 'em
 
2:22 AM
Ooh
I'll be back in like 15-20 minutes if you guys are still here.
 
I won't be.
 
@TedShifrin hey
 
alright, talk to you later then
 
have a good night, @CaptainAmerica
hey Leaky
 
I discovered a "totally original" proof of column rank = row rank
 
2:25 AM
@TedShifrin, I have a proof for the closure of a set to be open, that was a proof where I asked you for help on before, and I did progress on it partially, but then I forgot about it. Anyways, I wrote a proof which I think is solid, is it okay to ask you for feed back on it, please?
 
you mean closure is closed?
 
yes
oops
i'm really tired
 
Go to sleep.
 
@TedShifrin are you interested?
 
How circular is it, @Leaky?
 
2:26 AM
not at all
 
I will :)), I really need some sleep, but i've been working on it for quite a while and i'm excited about it
 
I'm dubious that it's "totally original," but go on. I have to leave in 15 minutes.
I'd rather not talk math when you're asleep @maths
 
so it suffices to show that $\dim \operatorname{im} T^\ast \le \dim \operatorname{im} T$
and it suffices to have an injection $\operatorname{im} T^\ast \to \operatorname{im} T$
 
@TedShifrin alright then, i'll send it tomorrow, is that okay with you?
 
well $T$ restricted to $\operatorname{im}T^\ast$ is the injection!
 
2:28 AM
@maths: Not sure when I'll be around tomorrow, but sure.
 
i.e. $TT^\ast w = 0 \implies T^\ast w = 0$
 
yeah, that proof is in my books, pretty much, Leaky.
 
oh great
 
Want page numbers? :P
 
the proof we were given was 100 times worse
nah it's fine
 
2:29 AM
In more casual language, restricting $T$ to the row space (of a matrix representation) is easily seen to give an isomorphism to the column space.
 
but my proof works for hilbert spaces :P
 
but you don't get equality in Hilbert spaces
 
don't I?
if $T$ is continuous?
 
only if the operator is reflexive?
 
googles reflexive operator
"All Hilbert spaces are reflexive"
is this irrelevant?
 
2:32 AM
Hmm ... am I being stoopid? Maybe. You need $T^{**} = T$?
Maybe that is automatic for Hilbert.
My brain is dead.
 
well there is the Riesz representation theorem
$\langle T^{\ast\ast} v, w \rangle = \langle v, T^\ast w \rangle = \langle Tv, w\rangle$
 
Huh?
Domains and ranges have to match up for starters.
No, no, this is crap.
How is that Riesz?
 
well Riesz says that $\langle v_1, - \rangle = \langle v_2, - \rangle \implies v_1 = v_2$
in this case we obtain $T^{\ast \ast} v = Tv$
 
Nah.
That's not Riesz, seriously. That's just the fact that only the zero vector is orthogonal to every vector. That's just closure.
Oh, right.
So I see. Yeah, it is automatic for Hilbert. Just not automatic for Banach. That's where you need reflexive. Got it.
OK. cool.
 
cool
aha it's a trivial part of Riesz lol
 
2:41 AM
That doesn't count as Riesz. That's just totally elementary. $\langle v,w\rangle = 0$ for all $w$ tells you $v=0$. Proof?
 
Sorry, what is the question here?
 
yeah I know
 
I need to decide if I'm interested. :D
 
No.
You're NOT.
 
Okay!
 
2:42 AM
LOL
 
@MikeMiller well I found a "totally original" proof of column rank = row rank, turns out Ted's book has it
it's just that the proof I was given was 100 times worse
 
Oh I see
zooms out
 
The usual proof I have given in undergrad linear algebra is based on algorithms based on echelon form, but you don't need those.
 
yeah I've seen that also
it has certain beauty there
both ranks are the number of pivots
 
Right, once you know that's well-defined.
 
2:44 AM
oh we don't know that RREF is unique?
 
Rank is the same as largest size of minor with non-trivial determinant and this reduces to the standard fact $\det(A^\tee) = \det(A)$, no?
 
That's a tricky proof, Leaky.
That's in some sense more sophisticated, Mike.
 
@MikeMiller so my proof also works for Hilbert spaces, and it is basically the fact that $T : \operatorname{im}(T^\ast) \to \operatorname{im}(T)$ is injective
i.e. $T T^\ast w = 0 \implies T^\ast w = 0$
 
Night all.
 
What is the rank of a map of Hilbert spaces?
 
2:50 AM
$\dim\operatorname{im}T$
 
Dimension in what sense? Just literal vector space dimension?
Weird thing to consider but ok, I'll survive.
 
@TedShifrin Goodnight Ted, i'm going to sleep as well, good night!
 
@MikeMiller well maybe $\dim \overline{\operatorname{im}(T)}$
idk I'm just exploring
oh well then I don't get the theorem do I
 
I'm going to think about it quite slowly
For things of finite rank my proof is unchanged, working with a basis for your Hilbert space
 
sure
 
3:08 AM
I feel like I'm running in circles trying to prove a basic property of gcd.
 
maybe run in squares?
 
Nah, ellipses are the next option.
The current trail I've been running along: "As established in (1a), $\text{gcd}(k,m)$ can be written as the linear combination of $k$ and $m$. Supposing we have that $\text{gcd}(k,m)=1$ and $\text{gcd}(k,n)=1$, then we have there exist $a,b\in\mathbb{Z}$ s.t. $ak+bm=1$ or $akn+bmn=n$. Allow $x=an$, then we have $xk+bmn=n$."
I feel like this is a dead end, though. (And I see a chunk I can cut out)
Easily I can get to $xk+(bm-1)n=0$, but that's no help either.
I think I have an idea.
Well, it's much easier to show that if $k|mn$ and gcd(k,m)=1, then $k|n$.
Though, just to be sure, is this argument clear? "As established in (1a), $\text{gcd}(k,m)$ can be written as the linear combination of $k$ and $m$. Supposing we have that $\text{gcd}(k,m)=1$, then there exist $a,b\in\mathbb{Z}$ s.t. $ak+bm=1$ or $akn+bmn=n$. We have been given that $k|mn$, and we also know that $k|k$, so $k|(akn+bmn)$, which implies $k|n$."
 
3:46 AM
since gcd(k,m)=1 , 1=ak+bm. Note since k divides mn, mn=ku, let n=nak+nbm, since mn=ku, n=nak+bku which implies that k divides n
 
Much more efficient than mine.
Okay, but the same essential argument, so my logic is good.
Though, showing that gcd(k,m)=gcd(k,n)=1 implies gcd(k,mn)=1 is still proving difficult for me. Maybe I should sleep on it and come back tomorrow.
 
i guess id start with saying gcd(k,mn)=e and then show that e=1
 
4:19 AM
How would be the definition of a basis for a set of all closed subset of $X$(Topology of closed sets) look like? Will it be the complement of basis definition for a topology on $X$?
Definition of basis for a topology on $X$ given in the Foundation of Topology By Patty given by
Let $(X,\mathscr T)$ be a topological space. A basis for $\mathscr T$ is a subcollection $\mathscr B$ of $\mathscr T$ with the property that if $U\in \mathscr T$ then $U=\emptyset$ or there is a subcollection $\mathscr B'$ such that $U=\bigcup \{B:B\in \mathscr B'\}$
Let $(X,\mathscr T)$ be a topological space of closed sets. A basis for $\mathscr T$ is a subcollection $\mathscr D$ of $\mathscr T$ with the property that if $D\in \mathscr T$ then $D=X$ or there is a subcollection $\mathscr D'$ such that $D=\bigcap \{D:D\in \mathscr D'\}$
am I correct?
 
 
1 hour later…
5:37 AM
just double checking: If given a line L and a plane P, then L is not perpendicular to P if the dot product of the normal of P and L is not zero.
 
 
2 hours later…
7:34 AM
@yiyi Wait, dot product of the normal of P and the what of L? The tangent vector of L?
@Rithaniel Say $ak+bm=1$ and $ck+dn=1$. Multiply the two together.
 
 
4 hours later…
11:42 AM
1
Q: Is my definition correct? How do I prove the finite union of elements of $\mathscr U$ lie in $\mathscr U$?

Math geekDefinition of basis for a topology on $X$ given in the Foundation of Topology By Patty given by Let $(X,\mathscr T)$ be a topological space. A basis for $\mathscr T$ is a subcollection $\mathscr B$ of $\mathscr T$ with the property that if $U\in \mathscr T$ then $U=\emptyset$ or there is ...

 
 
2 hours later…
1:20 PM
1 nanocentury = pi seconds
 
Hi chat!
 
Hi @Lucas @Akiva
 
@Daminark, giving continuity to that "advice" thing (about real linear algebra vs $K$ linear algebra): at a first sight (actually, its negation can also be true iff choice is not), the claim "every vector space has a basis" is not necessarily true; is it "interesting" to study vector spaces without stuff like $K^n$ on my mind? Personally, I'll always accept the axiom of choice.
(@everyone: feel free to give your opinions)
 
in In the search of a question, 2 mins ago, by Shaun
I'm looking for the number of cyclic subgroups of the group of units modulo $n$. Sylow's Theorems might shed some light into the problem but I haven't thought about'm much in this context. Please let me know if you find anything :)
 
1:36 PM
I wonder how square roots work with Fourier series
 
@LucasHenrique every vector space has a basis
 
What's the Fourier series of $\sqrt{5-4\cos(x)}$, for example?
 
(under choice)
@AkivaWeinberger can't get wolframalpha to do it lol
 
@Shaun how about decomposing $$(\Bbb Z/(n))^\times \cong \prod_{i=1}^g (\Bbb Z/(p_i^{e_i}))^\times$$
where $n = p_1^{e_1} \cdots p_g^{e_g}$
 
@LeakyNun yup. I'm aware of this, as told in the big message above. The matter is that I'm studying real linear algebra, although I have basic knowledge on abstract algebra. So, even if I work with linear algebra on $K^n$, I'm not sure of how I'd generalize this to algebras over $K$, in general.
For example (I think), $V = (M_r(K), K^s)$ with usual sum (usual sum on each coordinate) and usual scalar product (usual scalar product on each coordinate) is a vector space but it's pretty distant from $K^n$.
 
1:52 PM
Prove Fatou's lemma: for a sequence of nonnegative functions $f_n : [0,1] \to \Bbb{R}$, $\int_{0}^{1} \limsup f_n(x)dx \le \limsup \int_{0}^{1} f_n(x)dx$...Question: Shouldn't the inequality point in the other direction?
 
@LucasHenrique I don't understand that notation
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg I think I see what you mean. Thank you. However, doing that would be somewhat of an anachronism because nothing of the sort has been done in the material I've covered so far. Nonetheless, I'll read a proof of the fact one can decompose such groups and build my understanding from it from the ground up :)
 
@Shaun this is the Chinese Remainder Theorem and the fact that the group of units of a direct product is the direct product of the group of units in a ring
just for reference
@Shaun also there is a structure theorem for finitely generated abelian groups
 
2:10 PM
@user193319 Yeah, either the inequality has to be reversed or the limsups should become liminfs
 
2:20 PM
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Thank you. I recognise it now. It's been a couple of years since I've used it, s'all:)
 
2:34 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Thanks!
 
2:59 PM
Never mind, I figured it out. So, all circles in the complex projective plane contain $[i,1,0]=[1,-i,0]$ and $[-i,1,0]=[1,i,0]$, and these are fixed by all rotations. Wild. — Akiva Weinberger Mar 24 '17 at 20:13
I completely forgot about this
Now I need to find out why it's true
So a circle in the complex plane is determined by $(\frac xz-j)^2+(\frac yz-k)^2=r^2$
or $(x-jz)^2+(y-kz)^2=r^2z^2$
If $z=0$ then that's just $x^2+y^2=0$, which means $x=\pm iy$
So you get $[y,iy,0]=[1,i,0]$ and $[y,-iy,0]=[1,-i,0]$
And that's independent of $j$, $k$, and $r$
Weird!
Similarly, a point in the complex projective plane is preserved by ninety degree rotations if $[x,y,z]=[-y,x,z]$.
$[1,i,0]=[-i,1,0]$ and $[1,-i,0]=[i,1,0]$, so they're preserved by those rotations.
Similarly, $[1,i,0]=[\cos\theta-i\sin\theta,\sin\theta+i\cos\theta,0]$ and similarly for $[1,-i,0]$, so they're in fact preserved by all rotations.
Solving $[x,y,z]=[-y,x,z]$ confirms that they're the only such points.
$\theta$ doesn't even need to be real
 
3:30 PM
Since we were talking cyclic groups earlier: can you give a simpler description of $\Bbb Z/p^k$ as a $(\Bbb Z/p^k)^\times$ module than the extant description? For instance, is it number-theoretically clear what the fixed points are?
 
3:47 PM
Hi all, very simple question about integration
So, suppose I compare different products under the integral sign with each other
For example
I am looking at
$$ \int \log x\log(\alpha -x) dx $$
versus
$$ \int \log x \log(\alpha -x) \log(\beta -x) dx $$
Given knowledge of the first integral I may use it in solving the second one during partial integration
Now there is an ambiguity in my solving the first integral with the constant inside it
And as such the indefinite integral in turn seems to have ambuigity in the usage of partial integration, or should I simply set the constant to zero in the first integral before using it in the second?
 
@MikeMiller what do you mean by "extant description" ? The one where the $(\Bbb Z/(p^k))^\times$-action is just multiplication?
 
I should have said "tautological description".
Yes.
I guess fixed points aren't too bad. A fixed point is something which has zero product with $(x-1)$ for all invertible $x$. For $p = 2$ the invertibles are odds, so this is $\Bbb Z/2$. For $p$ odd, both $p+1$ and $p+2$ are invertible mod $p^k$, so there are no fixed points.
 
4:43 PM
@Rithaniel When dealing with gcd, it's often more useful to first prove that it can be computed by the euclidean algorithm. Then the basic fact that you wanted (gcd(m,n) is a linear combination of m,n) falls out immediately; the algorithm calls itself on linear combinations of the original inputs. Also, when dealing with coprime numbers, it's always useful to use modulo relations. gcd(k,m) = 1 means m is invertible mod k (by the basic fact). Same for gcd(k,n) = 1. Then is m·n invertible mod k?
And here is an easy generalization: gcd(k,m·n) | gcd(k,m)·gcd(k,n) for every integers k,m,n such that k≠0.
 
5:05 PM
Yeah, I'm going into an introductory course in number theory right now, so this stuff is all still fairly new to me.
Ah, they've signed out. I should probably ping them. @user21820
Thank you for the tips, by the way.
 
@Rithaniel Yes ping me if you want a response. Also, what I said above is what I think is the best way, which very unfortunately not many courses on discrete mathematics or elementary number theory adopt. Sadly, some never even teach students the euclidean algorithm.
 
Yeah, I had to google it when you mentioned it, as I had not heard of it before.
It seems like it sets up a simple way to compute values.
 
vzn
@CaptainAmerica16 so whats the book? :)
 
5:25 PM
@Rithaniel And it's also in my opinion the way to really understand what gcd feels like, and do concrete computations. And many problems can be solved just by using the idea of the euclidean algorithm. For example, find gcd(x^m−1,x^n−1) where x is an integer and m,n are naturals.
Unrelated:
 
I just watched that video. It blew my mind a little bit.
 
@Rithaniel I haven't watched, because I want to figure out the answer for myself.
=)
Got to go. See you!
 
 
1 hour later…
6:29 PM
Okay, evidently $\limsup \int f_n \le \int \limsup f_n$. But why isn't the following a counterexample to the inequality: $f_n : [0,1] \to \Bbb{R}$, $f_n(x) = n 1_{[0,\frac{1}{n}]}(x)$. Then $\int f_n = n \int 1_{[0,\frac{1}{n}]} = n \frac{1}{n} = 1$, so $\limsup \int f_n = 1$. It isn't hard to show that $\lim_{n \to \infty}f_n(x) = 0$ for $x \in (0,1]$, so $\int \limsup f_n = 0$. So $\limsup \int f_n = 0 < 1 =\int \limsup f_n$...What did I do wrong?
Hold on...I'm getting all the inequalities backwards I think...
@AlessandroCodenotti What am I misunderstanding?
 
6:46 PM
The following is a terminology question for a certain subset of a group . . .
0
Q: What is $H_G^{(n)}:=\{h\in G: \operatorname{ord}(h)\mid n\}$ called for any fixed abelian group $G$ and $n\in\Bbb N$?

ShaunI'm reading "Contemporary Abstract Algebra," by Gallian. This is based on exercises 3.45 and 4.15 ibid. What is $H_G^{(n)}:=\{h\in G: \operatorname{ord}(h)\mid n\}$ called for any fixed abelian group $G$ and $n\in\Bbb N$? Here $\operatorname{ord}(g)$ is the order of $g$ in $G$. I suspect ...

 
Isa
Hello, does someone know if the scaled chi-squared distribution exists? Or is just the scaled inverse chi-squared the one that exists?
 
I'd appreciate some help with it, please :)
@Isa I wish I could help. It's been over a decade since I did anything with the $\Chi$-squared distribution.
 
Isa
@Shaun ok don't worry. I've google it but I can't find anything, which makes me think that it does not exists.
 
7:05 PM
Logic is an underappreciated math
 
7:31 PM
@user193319 I see nothing wrong here, I think you might still be confused about the direction of the inequalities
 
@AlessandroCodenotti So is $\limsup \int f_n \le \int \limsup f_n$ the right inequality?
 
Okay. Thanks!
 
(Note that while this is of course equivalent it's more common to write Fatou's lemma with liminfs and the reverse inequality)
 
How to prove $|\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} (-1)^{n+1} x^{2n}/n!| \leq x^4/2, x \in \mathbb{R}$?
 
 
1 hour later…
8:43 PM
This looks like it wants you to use the Leibniz criterion, but the first couple terms can get ugly. There's probably a neat solution in this vein, but I don't see it right now. Either way, straightforward computation of the sum seems to suffice for demonstrating the inequality.
 
9:18 PM
Hey guys, consider the following theorem: Let $G=(V,E)$ a simple directed graph that every arrow is colored with black or pink. If $G$ has monochromatic cycle then $G$ hash simple monochromatic cycle. How to prove that theorem?
BTW monochromatic cycle means that all of its arrows has the same color.
 
What's a simple monochromatic cycle?
(As in, what's a simple cycle?)
 
Its a path/cycle that there is no vertex which shown more then one time (only the first vertex shown twice). Like:
$V_1-V_2-V_3-V_1$
$V_1-V_2-V_3-V_2-V_1$ is not simple for example
 
10:06 PM
@LeakyNun $M_r(K)$ is the ring of the $r\times r$ matrices over $K$ and $K^s$ is $\underbrace{K\times K\times\dots\times K}_{s \,\text{times}}$.
 
and what should $V = (M_r(K), K^s)$ mean?
 
@vesii okay so, assuming we allow $V_1 - V_2 - V_1$ as a cycle, when only two vertices are involved, then just take your cycle and take two consecutive appearances of a vertex, what's between them is a simple cycle and it's monochromatic because the whole cycle is
I mean I guess if you don't allow that to be a cycle but you still have a non-simple cycle that means it can't just be of the form $V_i - V_{j_1} - V_i - V_{j_2} \ldots$
So in that case, there exists two consecutive instances of a single vertex such that there are at least two other distinct vertices between them, then that's a cycle. Anyway something to that effect is needed
 
@LeakyNun the vector space defined this way, with sum distributing over coordinates and product too.
I think that this is a vector space, at least.
 
$K^s$ isn't a field
Also wait why can $r$ and $s$ be different?
 
Yes. What about it?
@Daminark Why wouldn't them be allowed to?
 
10:21 PM
Okay so your notation still isn't clear, are you using $V = (S,K)$ where $S$ is a vector space over the field $K$?
 
I picked this specific example because this vector space does not look like $K^n$
@Daminark no. $V$ is the set of the elements of the vector space
 
Then what do $A$ and $B$ represent in $V = (A,B)$?
 
The vector space is itself $(V, K, +, \times)$
Oh my, I've just realized why I'm retarded. Sorry guys, I meant $V = M_r(K)\times K^s$. Sorry.
 
Oh
Well that's a vector space but the thing is, $M_r(K)$ is actually isomorphic to $K^{r^2}$
 
I thought about this
 
10:26 PM
I guess when you say "does not look like $K^n$" it depends on what you mean by "look like". Set-theoretically yeah it's different, but every vector space is isomorphic to $K^n$
 
And I'm guessing everything will have some kind of isomorphism, as @Leaky cited (a long ago). I'm almost working around everything to get rid of the standard way we're taught because I don't want to be limited to $K^n$ when stating stuff like linear transformations, etc. For example, I don't know how to prove that every linear transformation is a matrix product outside of $K^n$. How could I do this?
 
I mean, if you have an arbitrary vector space, choosing a basis is choosing an isomorphism with $K^n$. The nice thing in linear algebra is that this allows you to always reduce to $K^n$
So as for this particular problem
 
@Daminark yeah IKR, I'm being not so rigorous but more practical with the generalizations, in the sense of literally proving everything without invoking $K^n$ unless I prove beforehand it's always possible to invoke it.
 
Let $T:V\to W$ be a linear transformation. Let $\{v_1,\ldots,v_n\}$ be a basis for $V$ and $\{w_1,\ldots,w_m\}$ be a basis for $W$
We write $T(v_1)$ in terms of the $W$ basis, so $T(v_1) = a_{1,1}w_1 + a_{2,1}w_2 + \ldots + a_{m,1}w_m$
 
@Daminark this works as desired, but I did not prove, yet, that every vector space has a basis - I've not seen the proof yet and, moreover, I know shit about choice :s
 
10:32 PM
So, axiom of choice gives you every vector space, but in linear algebra you usually deal with finite-dimensional vector spaces
(In particular, between infinite-dim spaces you usually don't wanna try to write linear maps as matrices)
And in finite dimensions this is fairly straightforward. Let's take a vector space $V$. Obviously $V$ spans itself
And we're assuming $V$ is finite-dimensional (even if we haven't defined dimension, we can define finite-dimenisonal to mean spanned by a finite set)
So choose a minimal spanning set
(No need for axiom of choice when I say "choose", you take some finite spanning set which exists by assumption, and find a subset which still spans it and is minimal)
Now you want to show that this spanning set is linearly independent
 
That's pretty straightforward.
 
guys could anyone tell me if this proof is correct: Let a∈Ac∩(A′)c. Since a is not a limit point of A there exists a neighborhood of a such that for every q
in the neighborhood of a, q=a or q∉A. This implies that Nr(a) is contained within the complement of A. Now we would like to show that the neighborhood is contained within (A′)c, because then Nr(a) ⊂ Ac ∩ (A′)c which implies that the set is open, therefore the closure is closed. So assume that the neighborhood is not contained in (A′)c this implies that a ∈ A′ because Nr(a) ⊂ A′, which is a contradiction.
i'm trying to prove that the closure of a set is closed
i've had feedback, but i'm not sure if my proof is incorrect
 
Let's call this spanning set $\{v_1,\ldots,v_n\}$. Assume it's linearly dependent, so we can find $a_i$ which aren't all $0$ such that $a_1 v_1 + \ldots + a_n v_n = 0$
 
or correct
 
There's some $i$ such that $a_i \ne 0$, let's relabel if necessary and assume $a_1 \ne 0$
 
10:37 PM
@Daminark Can you explain you proof a bit? I can't seem it yet.
 
So now we write $-\frac{a_2}{a_1}v_2 + \ldots - \frac{a_n}{a_1} v_n = v_1$
So $v_1 \in \text{span}(v_2,\ldots,v_n)$
Which means $\text{span}(v_1,v_2,\ldots,v_n) = \text{span}(v_2,\ldots,v_n)$, which contradicts minimality
 
I think I got it. My matter was mainly finding a basis, and infinite-dimensional linear algebra looks like "broken" in terms of working nicely like it does on finite dimensions. Thanks @Daminark.
 
Oh infinite dimensional linear algebra makes every theorem die
That's why functional analysis is a subject
Have you seen rank-nullity?
 
is someone bashing infinite dimensional linear algebra?
hilbert spaces are so beautiful
 
Let p$\in$ $(E \cup E')^c$ this implies that p$\notin$E and p$\notin$ E'. Since p$\notin$E', $\exists$ $N_r(p)$ : $\forall$ q$\in$ $N_r(p)$ , q$\neq$ p or q$\notin$ E. This implies thiat $N_r(p)$ $\cap$ E is the empty set which implies that $N_r(p)$ $\subset$ $E^c$.
Now we would like to show that $N_r(p)$ $\subset$ $E'^c$, so assume that is not the case this implies that $N_r(p)$ $\subset$ E' $\implies$ p$\in$ E' which is . a contradiction, therefore $N_r(p)$ $\subset$ $E^c$ $\cup$E' which means that it is open
 
10:50 PM
@Daminark Nope. I have seen pretty much nothing about uni math with depth. Fun fact: I'm taking my entrance exams from today (01/13) to 01/15
 
Thats my newer version of the proof, with the feedbacks included, may someone tell me if its correct, please?
 
you mean depth
 
@LeakyNun non-native here. Thanks.
I'll probably have two main choices of uni, but I'm uncertain.. I'm sure that @ÉricoMeloSilva would have strong opinions about this. LOL
USP or Unicamp for a math undergraduate degree?
 
@TedShifrin hi Ted!, how are you?
 
They're both top-tier Brazilian universities, but my interest is pure. USP structure is shit and Unicamp focuses on computational mathematics.
 
11:03 PM
@Leaky I mean more like, raw linear algebra in infinite dimensions. You lose so many theorems, and the point is when you have a Banach space and restrict to continuous or better yet, compact linear maps, it's nice again because it's nearly finite rank anyway
 
but it's still important
 
I love functional analysis, just that it's literally there to restore order to chaos
 
we care about the category of vector spaces over a field
 
Do we? Or do we care about the category of finite-dim ones, or separately that of Banach spaces and bounded linear maps?
Which includes the former
 
maybe
but we also care about that all the fields are morita equivalent or something like that
 
11:06 PM
Not sure what that means so I won't contest lmao
 
probably isn't true
In abstract algebra, Morita equivalence is a relationship defined between rings that preserves many ring-theoretic properties. It is named after Japanese mathematician Kiiti Morita who defined equivalence and a similar notion of duality in 1958. == Motivation == Rings are commonly studied in terms of their modules, as modules can be viewed as representations of rings. Every ring R has a natural R-module structure on itself where the module action is defined as the multiplication in the ring, so the approach via modules is more general and gives useful information. Because of this, one often studies...
 
@Daminark if you just have finite dimensional ones you're missing some (co)products which I guess categorical folks don't like
@LeakyNun it looks like such an equivalence cannot work on hom sets if you have vector spaces over a finite field on one side and over an infinite one on the other
 
11:22 PM
suggestive avatar for Daminark
 
Ah, commutative rings are Morita equivalent iff isomorphic according to wiki
 
11:35 PM
I see
 
Why are so many things that has nothing to do with circles give $\pi$
What really is the nature of $\pi$
 
pi is nothing special
 

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