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00:23
Any k-regular graph exists by the symmetry, right? unless it is an odd-verticle graph and k is also an odd number which is ruled out by the hand-shaking lemma or something
 
2 hours later…
02:06
The strongest algebraist I've ever had as a teacher en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kiran_Kedlaya said you just need A&M for Comm. Alg. Pretty sure you just need AM for the question linked at least.
Your algebra teacher was was a contestant on jeopardy!? Who is this guy? xD
Connection between fluid dynamics and hash functions
02:37
Yo, given an arbitrary cubic polynomial: $a_3x^3 + a_2x^2 + a_1x + a_0$, how does one convert it to the standard form $x^3 + px + q$?
i think it's called the Tschirnhauss transformation?
coefficients in some field
actually proud of myself for how close I was on the spelling :)
x^3+bx^2 is the first two terms of $(x+b^{1/3})^3$.
The rest should follow pretty easily from that.
So you make a change of variables
02:43
I tried writing few more term of integral,is it correcc?
I dont think you need to make a series like that, you can just iterate once, no?
@GFauxPas I am preparing for competitive exams,I think I can save time by making series..., anyhow is that correct for those terms I wrote?
I have a hard time checking it in my head and i don't feel like bringing out paper, sorry
:(
It’s ok 👌
03:11
Let $\Bbb Q[α,β]$ denote the smallest subring of $\Bbb C$ containing the rational
numbers $\Bbb Q$ and the elements $α =
√ 2$ and $β = √ 3$. Let $γ = α+β$. So, $\Bbb Q[α,β] = \Bbb Q[γ]$, while
Is $\Bbb Z[α,β] \ne \Bbb Z[γ]$. Does this have something to do with fact that while $\Bbb Q[\alpha]$ and $\Bbb Q[\beta]$ are fields, but $\Bbb Z[\alpha]$ and $\Bbb Z[\beta]$ are not.
03:34
Hello.
Yeah, you need to use division to get equality of Q(a,b) and Q(gamma)
In Z, one cannot do this
@Silent
ok, thank u!
@Fawad You need to use do the integration by parts just once. $I_n = \int x^ne^{ax}dx = {x^n}\int e^{ax}dx - \int\big({dx^n\over dx}\big)\big(\int e^{ax}dx\big)dx = {{x^n}e^{ax}\over{a}} - {{n}\over{a}}\int x^{n-1}e^{ax}dx = {{x^n}e^{ax}\over{a}} - {n\over a}I_{n-1}$
03:58
@Fawad Were you trying to find a recurrence for the integral or were you trying write the first few terms of the integral explicitly? If its the latter, ignore my post. And yes, your expansion looks correct.
Does a curve in R^2 have an empty boundary
i suspect it does
@Nicholas boundary in the topological space sense? Or boundary of a manifold?
I think manifold, im integrating a 1 form over a curve gamma and trying to use stokes theorem
Yeah not quite, the endpoints are the boundary
and the one form is exact, so i can move the "d" down to gamma
04:06
(So this is fundamental theorem of calc)
Hmm, what's the integral exactly?
Hold on a moment
question 2 on this PDF if you dont mind checking it out. He shows the integral vanishes at the end of the solution but i dont understand
No that's not what he's saying here, he's proving the form isn't exact
The idea is this
Let's say $\omega$ is some exact form, so $\omega = df$
I know, he supposes that it is exact and gets a contra
Ok im listening
This would imply that for any closed curve $\gamma$, you have that $\int_{\gamma} \omega = 0$
But he computed the specific form and showed that the integral wasn't zero
Oh ok, gamma in this case (the question) is a closed curve?
Ya, its a cricle i believe
04:10
Yeah
Gotcha, thats what i didnt make note of. Thank you man.
No problem! :D
So you use stokes to get the integral is 0 right?
over the closed curve Gamma
If $(X, d_1)$ and $(Y, d_2)$ are two metric spaces, then, which metric on $X\times Y$ which generates the product topology on $X \times Y$?
04:13
In mathematics, a product metric is a metric on the Cartesian product of finitely many metric spaces ( X 1 , d X 1 ) , … , ( X n , d X n ...
?
@feynhat there are a few metrics that will work. I think if you define $d((x,y),(x',y')) = (d_1(x,y)^p + d_2(x',y')^p)^{1/p}$
Lol sniped
@NicholasRoberts @Daminark Thanks. Suppose I chose this metric: $d((x,y),(x',y')) = d_1(x,y) + d_2(x',y')$, (putting p=1 in Daminark's metric). Then how do I show that this will generate the product topology.
Hm im not sure, i never quite understood the product topoplogy :/
Since product topology is the weak topology generated by the projection mappings (in this case, $\pi_X(x, y) = x$ and $\pi_Y(x, y) = y$), will it suffice to show that these projections are continuous even the in the topology generated by $d$?
04:39
@NicholasRoberts a function with a product as codomain is continuous iff all its components are, it is more or less defined with this property in mind
@Fawad the usual shortcut for these kinds of integrals is to start with $\int e^{ax}\,dx$ and taking n derivatives with respect to $a$.
13 hours ago, by Semiclassical
a favor: I need to stay out of here for the next few hours. So if I'm here today, yell at me
05:11
@Semiclassical * YELLS *
05:43
@Semiclassical you mean instead of integrating , dedicating options? I don’t understand what trick you mean/how to use that trick
Zee
Zee
Is anyone here ?
wazzup dawg?
Zee
Zee
Am not sure
You?
chillin
Zee
Zee
Let me ask you this
I feel like this is too clever to work
05:57
gotta run, sorry
Zee
Zee
So I wanna prove the max modulus principle for several complex variables , the proof is a generalization of the one variable case but I was thinking to myself if the following would work
Come on man , it’s quick
So you have f(z1,...,zn) so just just fix all the variables except one and apply the one variable max modules principle
Do this to all the variables
Is that a proof or am I doing something silly ?
Oh, f is from Cn to C1
Ight , so it’s like dat??
Artin's Algebra says'let $g(x)$ be a polynomial in $R[x]$ and let $\alpha$ be an element of $R$, where $R$ is a ring. The remainder of division of $g(x)$ by $x-\alpha$ is $g(\alpha)$. Thus $x-\alpha$ divides $g$ in $R[x]$ iff $g(\alpha)=0$.' In proof, he says: 'This corollary is proved by substituting $x=\alpha$ into the equation $g(x)=(x-\alpha)q(x)+r$ and noting that $r$ is constant.'
I can't understand this proof.
@TobiasKildetoft
@Silent Note that the proof is only for the last part about being divisible by $x-\alpha$.
oh!
06:23
Hi, if I have two sets $A,B$ and know $A \cup B=U$ and $A \cap B=\emptyset$, is then $A^c=B$?
I know the other direction holds but is this direction also true so that it's an equivalence?
@philmcole Yes
Could you give me a hint how to start to prove this?
I actually want to assume non empty sets if that is important for the proof
I tried $A^c = U \setminus A = (A \cup B) \setminus A = B \setminus A = B \cap A^c$ but that doesn't seem to get me anywhere
06:38
@philmcole Write up what $B\setminus A$ is by definition.
Do you mean $B \setminus A = B \cap A^c$?
no
the full definition as a set
ah
$B \setminus A = \{x \in B \mid x \notin A \} $
Now I use that their disjoint union is $U$ and argue, that $B \setminus A = B$?
no wait
06:43
no, now you use that their intersection is empty
right
okay thanks
07:16
How to know that $7x+7\equiv 0\pmod n$ if and only if $n\in\{1,7\}$: I thought $7(x+1)\equiv0\pmod n$, but can't see why $n=1$ works
@Silent If $n=1$ then everything is $0$ mod $n$
@TobiasKildetoft thank you!
07:40
[Capturing the growth of ordinals]
First define a tuple (a,b,c) where a is an operator, b is the argument on the RHS of the operator and c is the number of times to apply it to get to the next term in the sequence
Then we have the following:
0->1->2->3-> ... < $\omega$
The above sequence has a growth of (+,1,1)
$\omega, \omega 2, \omega 3, ... < \omega^2$
The above sequence has a growth of (+,$\omega$,1)
$\omega^2,\omega^3,\omega^4, ... < \omega^{\omega}$
The above sequence has a growth of (+,current term, $\omega$) or ($\times$, $\omega$, 1)
We can easily see from the growth tuple that starting from this stage, it becomes impossible to reach the next term by addition of what we currently have alone
$\omega^{\omega}, \omega^{\omega^{\omega}},{}^{4}\omega, ... < \epsilon_0$
The above sequence has a growth of (+,current term, next term) or ($\times$,current term, current term) or (^,$\omega$,1)
You can now see how fast exponential growth is relative to multiplication, vs multiplication relative to addition
08:52
It seems I've been typing \Z instead of Z throughout my section on decomposition groups and now I've got loads of subgroups of Galois groups called $\Bbb Z_\mathfrak{P}$
lol
\renewcommand{\Z}{whatever you should have typed instead} :P
hahaha
there are a lot of $\Bbb Z$s throughout the rest of the paper
I'm afraid you'll have to correct them by hand then
I like how everyone has \Z \N \Q and \R in their latex files because \mathbb is too long
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Do a replace on those places where you have subscripts which you would not have for the integers
I'm writing some model theory stuff and I made a \Los command that prints Łoś because Polish letters are hard
I also made a \fip one that prints "finite intersection property" becase I don't like the abbreviation and I don't like having to write the extended name
09:02
@Tobias Good call!
@Alessandro \Wash
I see you're talking LaTeX. I often use similar thing if I have something that I repeat often. How do you take care of spaceing in such cases?
If your editor supports replacing using rexes that might make it even easier
I use something like \newcommand{\fip}{finite interesction property\xspace} and the xspace package.
Interesting, I write the commands without leading or trailing spaces and haven't noticed spaceing issues so far
@TobiasKildetoft I definitely prefer the solution using macros for stuff where there is a chance that I might decide to change it completely. If I want to change notation for vectors from $\vec v$ to $\mathbf v$, I only have to change in in one place (in the macro).
Moreover, I would have to do many regex replacements, since I have many similar macros.
09:06
I'm a bit of a latex noob, I just do newcommands for things like \mathbb, \mathfrak, \mathcal, \operatorname
@MartinSleziak In this case a macro would not have helped, as he had accidently typed the same thing for things that should be different
@AlessandroCodenotti If you have \newcommand{\fip}{finite interection property} then I think that write "since it has the \fip and" will leave not space between the words "finite interection property" and "and".
@TobiasKildetoft I see. I thought you were replying to me, while your response was about ÍgjøgnumMeg's problem.
Or maybe there was problem with \fip, or \fip. and stuff like that.
I do not really recall now what was the problem - it was long time ago when I started to use shortcuts like that. But I definitely remember that there were some problems with spaces after such shortcuts and I had to correct them.
@MartinSleziak hm, I'll check the file when I go back to my computer
And I was too lazy to always write \fip{} just for the sake of having space in all places where they were needed.
@MartinSleziak I'll probably just steal this if there are problems :P
@MartinSleziak I just checked and yes, there will be a space missing.
From the tag-info:
> {xspace} is a command (provided by the package of the same name) that inserts a space if and only if the space is followed by punctuation. This is one of several techniques to deal with TeX's habit to "eat" spaces after macros without arguments.
@AlessandroCodenotti Probably the thread linked about is worth having a look at. In fact I did not know that there are also some problems.
David Carlisle writes there:
> Conversely with xspace the macro will get the correct space most of the time, but it isn't easy to predict when it will get it wrong, and so it's much harder to learn to enter the markup in a way that is always correct rather than having to always visually check for missing space, which rather negates the purpose of the command.
BTW the LaTeX site (and chatroom) is different from other sites in that you can encouter there the biggest stars in that area on a regular basis.
@MartinSleziak Well, not that different from MO then (for the site, not the chat that is).
Although on MO some Fields medalists and other famous mathematicians post on regular basis, it is probably much rarer to meet such person in chat.
Yeah, not much activity on the MO chats
09:17
I have to admit that I am not familiar enough with TeX community to be able to judge whether the comparison with Fields medal is appropriate, but I believe I saw there some authors of LaTeX packages, sometimes people who wrote books about (La)TeX and people who are active in TUG and similar organization.
@TobiasKildetoft Yes I remember your post on meta: Specialized chat rooms.
But Homotopy Theory has now close to 100k messages. That's impressive.
In any case, I should leave - I'm teaching in some 10 minutes.
Yeah, that is probably the only room that ever really got off the ground
10:10
I am kind of confused with relatively open sets in subsets... If I have two arbitrary sets $Y_1,Y_2$ and consider a clopen set $A \subseteq Y_1 \cup Y_2$, what can I then say about $A \cap Y_i$? The answer is it is clopen too, but I don't understand why.
@philmcole Well, it is clopen in the subset topology on $Y_i$. It need not be either in the union.
no wait I defined $A$ to be clopen in the union.
Ahh, right
oh you meant the intersection
10:17
Okay got it. And the reason for the intersection to be clopen is because it is relatively clopen in $Y_i$?
no, it is clopen by definition of the subspace topology
ok
@TobiasKildetoft Can you explain to me this example of a relatively open subset? We consider the metric space $X = \Bbb R^3$ and the hollow sphere $Y = \mathbb {S}^2=\left \lbrace {v\in \mathbb {R}^3} \mid {\| {v}\| =1}\right \rbrace$ as a subset of $X$. Is now $\left \lbrace {v\in \mathbb {S}^2} \mid {\| {v-e_1}\| <1}\right \rbrace$ open or closed in $Y$?
I know that an open set in $Y$ takes the form $O \cap Y$ for some open set $O$ in $X$
Right, so if you replace the sphere with $\mathbb{R}^3$ in the definition of that subset, what do you get?
I'd say the set $A$ is then open?
Let's call this set $A = \left \lbrace {v\in \mathbb {S}^2} \mid {\| {v-e_1}\| <1}\right \rbrace$
I think $A$ is open in $\Bbb R^3$ because there is a $\lt$ sign and not a $\le$
10:36
Hi
I'm dealing with the problem, "A sphere is inscribed in a regular tetrahedron. If the length of the altitude of the tetrahedron is 36, what is the length of a radius of the sphere?"
My idea is to project the 4 incenters of each face of the reg. tet., an their intersection would be the center of the circle. But, I have no idea how to get started
If I consider $\left \lbrace {v\in \mathbb R^3} \mid {\| {v-e_1}\| <1}\right \rbrace$. This is a sphere around $(1,0,0)$, so this is not even a subset of $\Bbb S^2$ anymore, so we can't talk about it wrt $\Bbb S^2$?!
But I think its open in $\Bbb R^3$
10:58
(More details on ordinal growth in SBA chat room)
11:16
Hi stack exchange do I need to download something for the latex to work in these rooms?
What does this mean:(this is from Artin's Algebra): Let $\Phi: \Bbb R[x,y]\to\Bbb R[t]$ be the homomorphism that is the identity on the real numbers, and that sends $x\to t^2, y\to t^3$. Then it sends $g(x,y)\to g(t^2,t^3)$.
@AkivaWeinberger
$g$ there is a two-variable polynomial
It's essentially an arbitrary element of $\Bbb R[x,y]$
So it's $\sum_{m,n}a_{m,n}x^my^n$ where finitely many $a_{m,n}$ are nonzero
11:31
ok. What does ' the homomorphism that is the identity on the real numbers' mean?
on, got it! coefficients don't change under this homomorphism, only variables change, right?
11:51
Yeah
Homomorphism means $g(x+y)=g(x)+g(y)$, $g(xy)=g(x)g(y)$, and $g(1)=1$; identity on the real numbers means $g(r )=r$ for $r\in\Bbb R$.
12:05
@user548331 See here
thankyou
@AlessandroCodenotti it is rendering on that page you directed me to but not on here\
You have to add it to the bookmarks in your browser and click on it while on this page
ah beautiful that's better thankyou so much
Hi, in the proof that for continuous functions on metric spaces the pre image of an open set is again open, why can we say for $A,B$ both open sets is $A \subseteq f^{-1}(B)$ equivalent to $f(A) \subseteq B$?
Or does this hold generally for any function (not necessarily continuous)?
12:22
@AkivaWeinberger thank u so much
$f(f^{-1}(B))\subseteq B$ for any function, so from $A\subseteq f^{-1}(B)$, by applying $f$ on both sides, you get $f(A)\subseteq f(f^{-1}(B))\subseteq B$
okay thanks!
Please someone suggest where should i begin my complex analysis study. I started with Ahlfors, but it became unbearable. I also tried Gamelin, but it mentions Riemann geometry in ch 1, which i have never learned. (I have basic understandin of real analysis upto ch 6 (integration) from Baby Rudin).
why not just finish rudin?
Hi, I'm your new meteorologist and a former software developer. Hey, when we say 12pm, does that mean the hour from 12pm to 1pm, or the hour centered on 12pm? Or is it a snapshot at 12:00 exactly? Because our 24-hour forecast has midnight at both ends, and I'm worried we have an off-by-one error.
5
12:43
I appreciate
"What is it doing?" "It's raining."
lol the math guy would make the weather forecast much more interesting to listen to at least
@s.patroller Oh! till then no complex analysis
?
Sure, why not?
the second book will cover it
@Silent I liked Stewart and Hall
thank u!
12:55
Welcome back @Semiclassical :P
should we still yell at you Semi?
@s.patroller bah, I knew it was that but I still wrote it wrong
np
*typed :P
13:16
Artin says: since $\sqrt[3]2$ is irrational, and root of $x^3-2$, we see that $x^3-2$ is not product $f=gh$ of two non-constant polynomials with rational coefficients. I can't see why we can't factor.
There is this result which says $a$ is a zero of a polynomial $f(t)$ iff $(t-a)$ is a factor of $f$. Since there is no rational zero there is no factor $(t-a)$ with $a$ rational.
@philmcole Thank u very much. So, there is no divisor polynomial of degree 2, because if there were $g$ with degree 2 with $f=gh$ for some polynomial h, then since $f$ has degree 2, $h$ would have degree 1, impossible as you showed. Is this reasoning correct?
there is a divisor polynomial of degree 2. By the above you can factor $f(t)=(t-a)q(t)$ where $q(t)$ doesn't factor anymore and has degree 2 (since $(t-a)$ has degree 1 and $f$ has degree 3).
But if I look at it I don't know if my theorem helps you though..
13:34
@philmcole it definitely helps! you let me know that divisor polynomial can't have degree one, and if there were divisor polynomial of degree 2 then there was a divisor polynomial of degree 1, so it can't have degree 2 polynomial divisor either. thank u
just constant polynomials have degree 1 so non-constant polynomials allow degree 1 and 2 right?
14:13
Don't constant polynomials have degree 0 ?
14:29
So I used the term "boundedish" when asking my professor a question and he used the term himself later that class and it made me happy
@Astyx ups right I was confused myself
that makes more sense
 
1 hour later…
15:37
@Secret
An attractive bounty for you, math.stackexchange.com/questions/2749560/…
vzn
vzn
@Secret way cool fascinating thx for sharing luv bitcoin, fluid dynamics + have found similar connections in number theory/ collatz maybe post to Physics chat also o_O vzn1.wordpress.com/code/collatz-conjecture-experiments
that xkcd in the starred posts is so good
r9m
r9m
@Waiting Hello! How are you?
@r9m Hey! I just entered the room to see what's going on. You?:-)
r9m
r9m
15:53
@Waiting I am doing okay .. as usual with a problem bugging me for a while that's all :)
any news of the awesome 'book'?
@r9m I have a 300 bounty for a nice question involving the calculation of a particular case of a slightly modified form of the Faddeeva function by means of contour integration exclusively.
r9m
r9m
@Waiting lemme check! ..
It's almost crazy to see no one knows how to deal with it by contour integration. Did you ever try it?
@r9m Perfect.
@r9m Lately I'm thinking of the butterfly wings contour (roughly). I'll tell you the details if I can make it working.
r9m
r9m
@Waiting cool! :)
Let $p$ be a prime number and $a$ an integer and $n$ a nonnegative integer. If $p | a^n$ then $p | a$? Is that true?
15:58
Is that much like the pochhammer contour?
To some extent.
hmm
I like the pochhammer contour, so that's on my attention
In mathematics, the Pochhammer contour, introduced by Camille Jordan (1887) and Leo Pochhammer (1890), is a contour in the complex plane with two points removed, used for contour integration. If A and B are loops around the two points, both starting at some fixed point P, then the Pochhammer contour is the commutator ABA−1B−1, where the superscript −1 denotes a path taken in the opposite direction. With the two points taken as 0 and 1, the fixed basepoint P being on the real axis between them, an example is the path that starts at P, encircles the point 1 in the counter-clockwise direction and...
yeah, that's a fun picture
@r9m r9m It's long time done. Now I only need to wait. :-)
r9m
r9m
16:03
cool! :)
The fun bit of pochhammer in the complex plane is that, if you've got a function with poles at the highlighted points and analytic everywhere else, then integrating around that contour always gives zero
@r9m What are you doing lately?
Preparing for PhD? :P
r9m
r9m
@Semiclassical it may do well as a good interview question .. to see if one can relate the homology and homotopy versions of cauchy residue theorem ..
@Waiting aye aye captain :)
Well, depends on what you're interviewing for
for a math position, maybe
r9m
r9m
yas .. I meant for a math program :)
16:06
For anything else, you'd probably see it posed in terms of "how do you hang a picture on two nails so that removing one nail makes the picture fall"
r9m
r9m
nice!! :D
Hey @r9m
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen hey man! How are you?
@Semiclassical good point
(which in homology terms is of course the same as what you were getting at: that you want a curve which is not null-homotopic but is null-homologous)
an interesting variation on that is to do setups with more than two nails
16:08
@Semiclassical Only in the context of $S^1 \vee S^1$.
I like how the Age of Geometry (2018) makes integrals have a geometric context such as contour integrals
@BalarkaSen hmm?
@r9m So-so. Going to take the admissions soon.
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen awesome!! :D
Eh, opposite of that really.
16:09
still I am trying to be better at contour integration. Perhaps those complex plotters might come in handy to gain more intuitions...
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen I was only expressing how that made me feel :)
@BalarkaSen why does 2 have to divide $n+1$?
@Semiclassical Well, the nail-and-picture formulation and the nullhomotopic vs nullhomologous formulation only relates in the context of the wedge of two circles.
eh. doubly-punctured plane
is enough for me
@BalarkaSen .
16:11
That's the same as the wedge of two circles upto homotopy equivalence.
yeah, fair enough
and when I write stuff like $\alpha\beta\alpha^{-1}\beta^{-1}$ I do admittedly have that setting in mind
I was commenting on the "of course". It's not "of course" the same formulations.
Just happens to be the same in the specific space.
Well, in the context of the problem it is.
Wasn't trying to insist beyond that.
Gotcha.
@Twink $2$ divides $n^a = (n+1)^b$. If $2$ divides $(n+1)^b$, it divides $n+1$ (why?)
On that note, I still want to get you to do stuff on magnetic helicity :)
16:13
yes that's my question, why?
@r9m Hah, from my perspective it's quite scary
is this by Euclid's lemma?
@Twink You answered your own question :)
but Euclid's lemma is not that general
@BalarkaSen it's awesome in rather the same way that an avalanche is.
16:14
it's just for squares
@Semiclassical Hahah I really do want to study that after my exams are over
if $p|a^2$ then $p|a$
@Twink Euclid's lemma says $p$ divides $ab$ iff $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$.
$2$ divides $(n+1)^b = (n+1)(n+1)^{b-1}$, so ...
what if it divides $(n+1)^{b-1}$?
Do the same argument :)
16:16
do I need to use induction
:(
yeah, but it's easy in this case.
To be entirely rigorous, yes. The point is Euclid's lemma in general says if $p$ divides $\prod a_i$ iff $p$ divides $a_i$ for some $i$.
no it's not what it says
Euclid's lemma says $p$ divides $ab$ iff $p$ divides $a$ or $p$ divides $b$.
That's the punchline formulation, and nobody spells out the generalization I wrote because it's a "trivial" corollary
I'd say it's not Euclid's lemma in that case, but it's an obvious generalization/application of it
16:19
it just has to be proven by induction
You start with the two-factor case and bootstrap to the full case
Induction on the number of factors, correct.
@Semiclassical Also, that's accurate, I'd say
Mostly I just like the excuse to use the word 'bootstrap'
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen all I can say is that if the interviewers start from a normal frame frame of mind .. they will be shocked soon enough :P
and if use the corollary of Euclid's lemma that says that if $p|a^2$ then $p|a$, and I want to prove that if $p|a^n$ then $p|a$, I need to use induction on $n$ right?
16:21
@r9m If I get to the interviews that is!!
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen (-_-) okay modest guy! :-)
@Semiclassical can you help me with a frechet derivative stuff?
(rude)
r9m
r9m
okay :)
both because I should be doing other stuff and b/c I just don't know that stuff so well
16:24
@BalarkaSen Good luck, man.
@r9m Here's a more constructive question instead of panic-channeling: How did you approach the CMI paper? Was it more with a psychological goal of absolutely nailing down every problem, or writing down observations which may or may not lead to a full solution?
@ParthKohli Hey, long time. Thanks a lot!
How's life?
@BalarkaSen I'm going to be writing the CMI paper as well (even though I wouldn't be joining -- I'm already done with a year of college).
Ah nice.
¬¬
I'm not even sure why I'm doing this... it's possibly because I committed a few computational errors the last time in the first section, and I need to check this thing off my bucket list.
Did you write JEE Main?
16:29
Nope.
Is CMI your final bet then?
I'm taking both CMI and ISI, let's see what happens.
16:42
@BalarkaSen if you do get to a math interview, the helicity thing might be a good example since you can link it with both topology and physics
though I guess that includes some assumptions as to how such interviews work, which I'm probably wrong about
I think it's more along the lines of, they'll ask people to solve pretty concrete down-to-earth problems
I imagine there's a chance at being able to demonstrate what kind of math one likes, though.
@BalarkaSen Wish you much luck at the interview in the sense nobody will ask you to calculate a tricky integral. ;)
Hahahah god I hope not
16:48
The ISI interview is very elementary, as far as I know. :|
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen writing down observations which displays you are on the right track to the solution will definitely add positive score .. as far as I have heard each problem is broken (unless it's something utterly trivial) has a number of essential steps. Guessing or proving each essential step adds credit. Out of the box solutions are greatly appreciated.
@ParthKohli The ISI exam in general is quite elementary, it's the time constraint of 2 hours that fucks with me.
@r9m Got it. Thanks!
r9m
r9m
@BalarkaSen I believe .. for ISI they expect you to nail shit down! :P
Yeah I imagine so.
@BalarkaSen well, keep in mind how I motivated the helicity stuff: thinking about how the Biot-Savart law together with Ampere's law gives you Gauss's winding number formula
16:57
I liked that idea.
So if Ampere's law comes up you could potentially use that as a jumping off point
Again, though, it depends a lot on the context of the interview
Oh it won't. It's just a honest to god math test.
right
this would be more like if you were wanting to do a grad school program tbh
Or @Astyx's admission exams into the Ecole Woahs

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