« first day (2377 days earlier)      last day (2638 days later) » 

12:00 AM
@TedShifrin was it a rigorous class?
well
not sure how rigorous multivar calc can get
but you know what i mean
 
@Zach: My course was (is) totally rigorous.
But more grounded than courses like Harvard and Chicago teach.
 
Anyways. Where I was going with that is that, in solid state physics, the cases of interest are all in 3D.
 
Can someone check my proof of cauchy integral theorem ? ( I know Ted must be bored of me now )
 
@KasmirKhaan um ill try
cauchy integral theorem or formula?
 
@ZachHauk not horribly rigorous beyond standard analysis unless you apply measure theory, differential forms and the like
 
12:02 AM
Wanna listen to my latest musings, @Ted? I'm making a tiny bit of progress but still lots of stuff is unclear.
 
So therefore one can always get the dual basis from the original basis by using the cross product appropriately e.g. $\vec{b}_1=\vec{a}_2\times \vec{a}_3$.
 
@KasmirKhaan I can give it a shot.
 
And that's literally how you'll find it written in solid state textbooks.
And I -hate- that.
 
@ZachHauk @ThomasRasberry there is alot of notations i need to put it on latex to make it easiar to read
if i type here in words can you still help me ? @ThomasRasberry
 
Because the much easier way to do it is to write $A=(\vec{a}_1,\vec{a}_2,\vec{a}_3)$ (understanding them as column vectors).
and similarly for $B$.
Because then the defining condition is just $B^T A=I_3$.
 
12:03 AM
@ThomasRasberry are you undergrad or grad?
 
It's literally just matrix inversion.
 
@Semiclassic: All of us working in differential geometry do the same thing (in greater generality), unless we make them rows ... :P
 
I figured.
 
@ZachHauk Grad. I'm 2 mos. from my dissertation final exam.
 
@Danu: My brain is pretty much dead, and I'm leaving soon to meet an old student who popped into town from San Francisco.
 
12:04 AM
I'm more ranting about how much more annoying it is to define the dual basis using cross products.
 
But I'm dead tired after working on it all day and am at about \epsilon >0 power at the moment.
 
@Semiclassic: Of course in the standard multivariable calc class (all in $\Bbb R^2$ and $\Bbb R^3$) I used cross product a lot. In my multivariable math class, I almost never did.
 
@TedShifrin I see.
 
@KasmirKhaan Fire away.
 
Yeah.
 
12:05 AM
@Thomas: As long it's not $\epsilon^3$, you're OK.
 
@TedShifrin by $\Bbb R^2$ you mean mappings $\Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ or $\Bbb R^2 \to \Bbb R$?
 
Do you anyone who might be interested/knowledgeable when it comes to talking about the twistor space construction?
 
Oh hey, twistors.
i.e. something I have heard of and concluded I will never know more than that.
 
It doesn't really look like the thing Penrose did
 
@Zach, I meant $\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$ and $\Bbb R^3\to\Bbb R$, but there are also parametrized curves and surfaces in there, typically.
 
12:07 AM
@Ted :)
 
what is the general term for like
curves and surfaces and higher dimensional analogues?
 
Hypersurfaces.
 
@ThomasRasberry okay the idea is to add and subract f(z_0) , so we get line integral of f (zeta) / ( zeta - z_0) dzeta = line integral f(z_0) / zeta -z_0 ) dzeta + line integal (f(zeta) - f(z_0) / (zeta - z_0 )
 
I thought about that stuff 30-40 years ago, @Danu, but I've forgotten everything.
@Semiclassic: Be careful. A hypersurface refers specifically to codimension 1.
 
12:08 AM
AAAA what's a codimension
 
@KasmirKhaan gotcha.
 
In general dimension/codimension, they're just submanifolds.
 
Ah.
Back after dinner.
 
@Zach: difference between ambient dimension and dimension of the subspace.
 
@ThomasRasberry we call the first line integral for I_1 and second for I _2 and we have to show that I _2 is equal to 0 right?
 
12:09 AM
@TedShifrin You don't really seem to be able to spare the time to think about this stuff. There are so many people asking for your help.
 
@Zach: A curve in $\Bbb R^3$ has codimension 2.
 
in order to get that formula to be 2pi*i f (z_0) @ThomasRasberry
 
@Danu: I already told you my brain can't handle hard things now.
 
what does a surface have?
 
Yeah, I know.
 
12:09 AM
codimension 1?
 
I'm thankful for as much as I already got out of you :P
 
@Zach: A surface in $\Bbb R^3$ has codimension 1, but a (two-parameter) surface in $\Bbb R^7$ has codimension 5.
 
ok
iget the gist of it
but its probably defined by some rigorous stuff i have no idea about
 
Well, manifolds, @Zach. You'll get there eventually.
They're the calculus/differentiable version of algebraic varieties and schemes you used to be obsessed with :P
 
@TedShifrin my interest for such maths will be renewed sometime
i just dont know when :P
 
12:11 AM
@KasmirKhaan Yep, caught up now, following.
What if zeta=z_0?
 
but the singularity is at one point here right?@ThomasRasberry
 
@Zach: As I keep saying, I'm fine with this. Don't go too fast and blow yourself out.
 
we can instead of the countour pick a circle of radius epsilon surrounding the singularity@ThomasRasberry
 
I don't know why people think schemes are exciting. I don't know any algebraic geometers who think schemes are exciting.
 
Yep. So use f'(z_0) there instead of (fzeta-fz_0)/(zeta-z0)
 
12:13 AM
They're the basic objects just like manifolds are the basic objects in geometry/topology, @MikeM ... Unless you're going to go completely off the deep end.
 
just checking
 
Reading math in here without MathJax really sucks ...
 
I know. But I also don't know anyone who gets excited for the stuff you need to do before you do any actual differential geometry or topology. :)
 
Ted is right ><
I should put this on latex and make clean
 
@MikeMiller I think many, many students who learn GR are pretty excited when they learn about manifolds.
 
12:15 AM
I will come back later when am done ! thanks alot @TedShifrin @ThomasRasberry
 
@MikeM: Much to my shock (but not dismay), I actually ended up dealing with a non-reduced scheme and an embedded component in one of my papers (it was generalized Chern classes of the Whitney umbrella, basically).
LOL, @Kasmir.
 
I don't know why you'd think I know the Whitney umbrella. Strangely enough, I do.
 
Once you learn a little LaTeX, you can type math faster in LaTeX than without using it.
@MikeM: I expect you to know everything I do and more.
 
@TedShifrin its true , am even tired with reading what i wrote
 
Maybe a little bit unfair.
 
12:16 AM
Ted is there a way to learn latex with like videos or pdf ?
 
You were supposed to be flattered, not upset, @MikeM.
 
@TedShifrin I feel like I've been typing in LaTeX forever ... still can't get any faster. I think it is because I don't hotkey.
 
I am. :)
 
I have no idea, @Kasmir. I learned stuff from books back 25+ years ago.
@Thomas: For every course I taught and every book I wrote, I had a whole file of macros I'd input, pretty much.
 
Ill look on google for videos or something , i really need to learn how to type with latex
 
12:17 AM
Makes it far more painless. Even typesetting systems of linear equations can be macro-ized.
@Kasmir: If you're going on in math seriously, it is essential.
@MikeM: So, I'll bite. In what context did you encounter the Whitney umbrella?
 
I have many courses now , but I promise on summer ill put few hours each day on that
 
@KasmirKhaan Good luck!
 
@Kasmir: Just to do basics in here won't take you more than a half hour.
 
@TedShifrin yeah I do some macros, can't keep my sanity without them. But it feels like getting interrupted on the fly. And the pathing ... three years and I still cannot figure out how to insert images. I have three (INSERT FIGURE HERE) typed into my dissertation currently. it is shameful
 
There is probably a ChatJax tutorial on the main site here.
 
12:20 AM
1698
Q: MathJax basic tutorial and quick reference

MJD To see how any formula was written in any question or answer, including this one, right-click on the expression it and choose "Show Math As > TeX Commands". (When you do this, the '$' will not display. Make sure you add these. See the next point.) For inline formulas, enclose the formula in $......

 
Oh, @Thomas, it isn't bad at all. You use the graphicx package and put \insertgraphics ...
 
I can start with this =p
 
@TedShifrin OR USE TIKZ AMIRITE
 
smacks @Danu
 
@TedShifrin In Kronheimer and Mrowka's beautiful book that gives the technical underpinning of their definition of Seiberg-Witten Floer homology, they give the Whitney Umbrella as a visualization of the sort of singularities that can occur when you try to make the natural compactification of the space of gradient flowlines a smooth manifold.
 
12:21 AM
I tried @TedShifrin. It comes up as an error, even with graphicx and \insertgraphics and having the images in the "correct" folder and all.

I think it is my punishment for being a Mac user.
 
i've seen things like "P = NP reduces to N = 1 which we will show in this paper"
 
Very interesting, @MikeM.
 
The structure they naturally get is a $C^0$ manifold with boundary, the Whitney singularity being the essential failure of getting differentiability.
 
@ThomasRasberry what's the error?
 
No, @Thomas, I'm a proud Mac user since 1988.
 
12:22 AM
Can't find the file.
Or something down those lines
 
It's section 18.1 if you can find the book. It's more or less disjoint from the rest.
 
i'm not. can't afford a mac. proud linux user since 2013
 
@MikeM: It's sort of the most basic example of an interesting stratification.
 
Makes sense.
 
12:22 AM
You need to make sure the suffix on the graphics file name is right, @Thomas.
 
lemme dig it up
brb
 
@ThomasRasberry is the TeX file in the same directory as your graphic?
 
I will be heading out soon, @Thomas, but if you can't get any of your friends to help you at your university, send me a bit of your document and a graphics document in email and I'll see what I can do.
 
If all tautologies are logically equivalent; why do we label some axioms differently, even though both are tautologies?
 
The structure of the moduli spaces they actually end up getting a handle on are something like stratified spaces; they tend to be awful but good enough that one can still make "counts of boundary points with orientation of a 1-dimensional thing = 0" work.
 
12:23 AM
LOL @Zach: Young pride :P
 
haha
 
Makes eminent sense, @MikeM.
 
@TedShifrin OK, got the file up.
I'm going to try inserting the test image that came with my uni's thesis file
 
@MikeM: I'd post my article with that stuff in it, but it's done on an old-fashioned typewriter (back from the 80s) and you would all laugh me out of the business.
 
\usepackage[pdftex]{graphicx} is in the main file
 
12:26 AM
@TedShifrin I like typewriters. Just not handwriting.
 
Oh, I hate those university thesis files.
LOL, Ok, @MikeM.
 
pens + math = disaster
 
Yep, gotta do it. They won't give me my degree if I go rogue
 
Ah, @Thomas. If you're using TeXShop you have the option of typesetting with Pdftex or with TeX and DVI. I normally do the latter by default.
 
@ZachHauk, neh, I prefer the mess. My exam taking days are behind me though
 
12:27 AM
But you need to select Pdftex under Typeset.
Yes, @Thomas, I know. I was a faculty member for an eternity :P
@MikeM: Here you go. And there's even a picture of vanishing cycles for @Semiclassic.
 
@TedShifrin ok, gotcha there, but where is Typeset? I know I'm supposed to know, but I've basically ben on autotype for about eleven months now since I last messed around with all this
 
Hmm, remind me never to upload serious .pdf files up like that.
@Thomas: In the menu bar.
 
PDFTech is checked in menu bar
 
The University of Shifrin
 
As is LATex
 
12:29 AM
Ugh, that is unreadable. I can't upload a file like that.
 
@TedShifrin The kind of really bad singularity they get is special to the Seiberg-Witten case. In the Morse case, you get C^0 manifolds with corners, smooth on the interior. I seem to remember them saying that it could in principle be something like a Hawaiian earring with a whisker at the basepoint.
 
what
 
OK, @Thomas, and the graphics file needs to be a .pdf file when you use that. I do .eps files and use TeX and DVI.
Yikes @MikeM.
 
I can't find the statement, though. I also seem to remember hearing that it probably couldn't actually be that, but that was what they could prove.
 
only in math could saying "a Hawaiian earring with a whisker at the basepoint" make sense
 
12:30 AM
LOL
 
Oh gah.
 
maybe that would pass in physics
 
@Thomas: What sorts of graphics files do you have? What type document?
 
The test picture is a jpg. How do I turn that into a pdf?
 
online
 
12:31 AM
I'm running everything out of TeXshop if that helps
 
haha in one of the games i play if you get 100 points it will say "100!" on the screen
 
Yeah, that's the problem. You can convert using Mac's Preview.
 
as if you are getting 100 factorial points
 
Yes, I knew you were using TeXShop :)
I tend to produce all my graphics using Illustrator, and I save them as .eps.
Open the file with Preview and do SaveAs, @Thomas.
 
Conversion done
(I've uploaded a lot of snow-day and exam-day-at-work assignments from my phone over the past 4 years, doing this while working full time is rough lol)
 
12:35 AM
Anyhow, @Thomas, you can find my email in my MSE profile. I'll try to help if you can't get it working. Just send me enough of a file (and an actual graphics file) to play with.
 
Sure. I think this will probably fix it though. This seemed like the no-brainer piece I typically miss with these things
oh
and do you happen to know anything about underdetermined systems/compressive sensing?
 
No, but I know people that do.
 
I have one little thing on a side-chapter of my dissertation left to prove. It seems so elementary in my head but I haven't seen a proof for it in literature (it is just assumed, which makes me think it is easy). I asked in Overflow and have had no positive responses yet
 
This is what advisers are for :)
 
hi chat
 
12:40 AM
I'm going down a path that shows whether Ax=b consistent und. systems having a min sup solution is NP hard over finite fields
 
Hi again @Semi.
 
proved it for F2 and F_{p^n} assuming F_p but can't slide over to a different characteristic from the F_2 case
 
Oh, not at all what I expected when you said compressive sensing. I know nothing of this ...
 
and my advisor doesn't know either - or, better, is pretending to not know
 
Hi again, @Fargle. I'm departing. Have a good evening/night, all.
 
12:41 AM
bye @ted
 
Bye @Semiclassic.
 
Yeah that's the closest term I can come up for what I'm doing @TedShifrin, since compressive sensing deals with the closest topic to my dissertation but of course \ell_1 doesnt function over finite fields
I invented a solver for min \|X\|_0 but it is terrible.
But it will get me my Ph.D in two months, at least.
 
Farewell, @Ted.
 
Bye @TedShifrin and thanks again!
Ah geez, do people usually type \Bbb instead of \Mathbb nowadays?
 
Only in this chat
I think it's supposed to be bad form.
But in chat it's worth the few characters.
I think it's generally a good idea to keep the standard things you need \mathbb for on a shortcut anyways---I use \R, \C, etc.
 
12:47 AM
Well, I'm embarrassingly behind on LaTeX at this point
but not as behind as I am on Mathematica, where I have to type the algorithm I'm doing for my dissertation
 
I don't know why anyone thinks it's bad form. I use \mathbb in my code because I get irritated by the warnings.
 
8
Q: Obsolete comand \Bbb

Beni BogoselA warning keeps popping up in my LaTeX editor, and it's really annoying. It says that the command \Bbb is obsolete and I should use \mathbb instead. I personally like the command \Bbb by the obvious reason that its shorter than the newer one. If the command \Bbb is obsolete then why they don't ta...

 
I think \mathbb is seen as standard, so I use it for all my documents, but I use \Bbb in here
 
Yeah, I had always used \mathbb by default because that's what I'd seen
 
good, good
 
12:48 AM
@MikeMiller Because "officially" it has been superseded.
Nobody here probably cares.
 
meh
 
But once I saw people using \Bbb here I started doing the same because it's shorter.
 
I also do not care. I was simply unaware of \Bbb before I saw people using it here.
 
Same.
 
Hashtag samesies.
 
12:49 AM
Anyway, nice meeting all of you - see you soon.
 
I should get back to my homework for real analysis.
 
me too
i always used mathbb
 
1:15 AM
How to write the cardinallity of the continuum?
 
\mathfrak c
 
Thanks!
If I wanted to take the cardinality of the powerset of the reals, would I just say P(R)?
 
sure, or 2^c
 
ok
0
Q: Is there a better upper bound to the cardinality of the continuum?

Simply Beautiful ArtWe know that $\aleph_0$ is smaller than $\mathfrak c$, the cardinality of the continuum. But are there some good upper-bounds? For example, it is trivial that $\mathfrak c<2^{\mathfrak c}$, but I wonder if there are better bounds. Specifically, I have to wonder if there exists $\alpha\in\mathb...

 
This sounds a lot like the continuum hypothesis
 
1:25 AM
Nah
 
it's consistent that $\mathfrak c$ can be larger than any given $\aleph_n$
 
Oh
Poop, that sucks
Well, is it known things like...
$\mathfrak c<\aleph_\alpha$ for transfinite $\alpha$?
 
Anyone here knows an interesting knot theory topic
 
what are you looking for?
 
1:29 AM
@Simple knot that I know of
 
@SimplyBeautifulArt I know, you told me last week
 
Your welcome
 
Hi, a probabilistic question here. Consider zero mean random variables $X_1,\dots,X_N$ with unknown distributions. Actually they have random distributions such that the covariance between $X_i$ and $X_j$ is determined by some discrete random variable $Z_{ij}$. Then $E[X_iX_j]$ averages over $Z_{ij}$, while $E[X_iX_j|Z_{ij}]$ gives the "true" covariance in a sense that I use fixed distributions for $X_i$ and $X_j$ rather than random ones.
Analogy to stationary zero mean times series: $E[X_tX_s]=r(|t-s|)$ for some known function $r$. The difference in my case is that this lag $|t-s|$ correspo
 
I'm pretty sure you can make $2^{\aleph_0}$ be any cardinal that's not a countable limit cardinal.
AKA, given any cardinal $\aleph_\kappa$, as long as $\kappa$ isn't something plus $\omega$, I think you could have $2^{\aleph_0} = \aleph_\kappa$.
 
Oh
:|
i.e. $\forall k<\omega\implies 2^{\aleph_0}=\aleph_{k}$
 
1:38 AM
"You can find a model of set theory in which", yes. But you can make it much larger than $\omega$.
 
2:04 AM
Under nonconstant quadratic maps $\Bbb C\to\Bbb C,~z\mapsto az^2+bz+c$, the images of rays from the origin are still rays, right?
 
I'd be surprised, since that doesn't map the origin to itself unless $c=0$.
 
2:20 AM
@Semiclassical I just want the images to be rays
It's the same as wanting the images of $az^2+bz$ to be rays from the origin, I guess
 
Hmm.
You've also got two zeros of that as well, though.
 
I loathe how addicting this site is.
I should be doing something else, but instead I'm here doing more math...
 
@JossieCalderon Same
Definitely does not help to be the top user this year
 
oh shit lol
 
:|
RIP goes my life
 
2:32 AM
There has to be something we can create specifically dealing with math that can add value to lots of people's lives not dealing with anything school related like tutoring, what is it?
 
2:53 AM
@JossieCalderon Mathematical models?
 
Thanks!
 
3:08 AM
So I've found some sort of contradiction in the definitions I know for Therefore, and Modus Ponens. In regards to therefore: I have it defined as; $A\therefore B \leftrightarrow (A\rightarrow B)\land A$ this definition simplifies to $A\therefore B\leftrightarrow AB$
In my Modus Ponens definition: I have $((A\rightarrow B)A)\rightarrow B$. This is the same as writing $(A\therefore B)\rightarrow B$
The problem is the whole thing simplifies down to $\lnot A \lor \lnot B \lor B$
Which does not imply that B must be true; which Modus Ponens is meant to do.
 
What did you simplify? $((A\rightarrow B)\land A)\rightarrow B$?
 
Yes that is what I simplified
simplifying that expression give a tautology; but I cant see how the tautology tells us that B must be true. It seems that it would work regardless of the truth value of B
Besides tautalogies work regardless of the truth values of what is inside them by definition.
I just tripple checked everything and it appears my definitions are right; its just the understanding of why Modus Ponens tells us that the consequent is true is off.
 
Suppose $B$ is false. Then the only way for that implication to be true is if either $A\implies B$ is false or $A$ is false. But if $A$ is true then $A\implies B$ is certainly false, so either way the statement is true.
Which is to say: It seems to indeed work just fine if $B$ is false.
Or, putting it better: If $A$ is false, then the implication is true regardless of $B$. But if $A$ is true, then you've just got $B\implies B$ which is trivial. So it doesn't constrain $B$ at all.
should be $\to$ in the above, woops.
 
I'm pretty good at changing between symbols so dont worry about the notation difference
My question is if it does not constrain B, then how come Modus Pones is described as telling us that B is true?
 
shrug
 
3:23 AM
Rest in Peace explanation
Anyway; was that question in chat explained well enough to be posted on SE? If I just wrote it the same way with better formating; would other people be able to understand what I'm asking?
 
@user400188 Modus ponens doesn't say B is true. It says that if $A\therefore B$, then $B$ is true.
If $\lnot(A\therefore b)$, then $B$ can be anything.
 
I don't get the notation here: you say "if" but you seem to be using it in the context of asserting that the premisis is true.
 
Combined with the deduction you gave earlier that "$A$ therefore $B$" is equivalent to "$A$ and $B$", modus ponens would amount to "If A and B then B."
 
Indeed it would
exactly; Its left me very confused
it wouldnt depend on either becuase its a tautology
 
Which is trivial, since if $B$ is true then...well, $B$ is true.
 
3:30 AM
so well; if we go by that definition; how do we say B is true when we write " if A∴B, then B"
Ive seen the thing used in phrases such as: "If today is Tuesday, then John will go to work.
Today is Tuesday.
Therefore, John will go to work"
which seems to say that it is true that Jhon will go to work; but nowhere in the expression can I see why this is true
 
Well, careful. If $A$ is true, then "A therefore B" would seem to mean just "$B$" in which case you've just got "$B$ implies $B$". That's true regardless of $B$.
 
indeed
 
and the case of $A$ being false is similarly tautological...blah
If I were to guess where the issue is, it's whether "A therefore B" is logically equivalent to "A and B".
Which doesn't seem right, if only because it would then be equivalent to "B therefore A".
 
It is in fsct the case: I can give two reasons why:
first of which is the definition of therefore: A∴B↔(A→B)∧A. Which is read as "If A, then B, And A." Which is basicly saying that "If A then B" is true, and we know A to be true, then we can say A therefore B.
 
Hmm, yes. If A is false, then it's false. If A is true, then it's equivalent to B.
 
3:37 AM
Another example, is the conjuction of sets when we use therefore, in our working: When we write functions and their definitions in our working, then use the therefore symbol; we always take the conjunction of the sets in the next line. This is becuase we are "ANDing" the two together.
 
I'm back to shrug, I think
 
well the first example is enough to prove the eqivalence between the two anyway. So we can just go with that
I think the best thing to do at the moment is not to solve the problem but figure out the best way to ask it and what we are wanting to ask.
That way I can put this up on SE and more people can see it
I think I should drop including therefore in the question; since it can be asked without it and it seems to be confusing people.
As it stands the question will just be: Modus Ponens is defined as ((A→B)∧A)→B "reference". How is it that this expression allows us to write things like
"If today is Tuesday, then John will go to work.
Today is Tuesday.
Therefore, John will go to work"

And if this is the case why does the english statement seem to tell us that "it is true that John will go to work"; while the logical expression seems to be true independent of the value of the consequent?
 
It's more like "If we have the first two lines in the syllogism you wrote then we will have the third line"
 
hi @ted
 
(If the first two lines are true then the third line will be true)
 
3:47 AM
I'm annoyed at myself, because there was a MO question/answer I wanted to show you and now I can't find it.
 
actualy I think Akiva just nailed it there.
if the first two lines are true then we will have AB=T. Which means that B must be true
taking the first two lines to mean ((A→B)∧A)
and the third to be B
 
(couldn't find it initially because the answer referenced "Kirvan" not "Kirwan")
 
Those Å‚acky Poles
Never mind, she's British. I guess "Kirvan" is just a typo then
Maybe you want to edit the answer
 
I may. I may also want to edit the other answer to actually use MathJax >:/
 
I didn't even see that. Yes, definitely do that
 
3:57 AM
Oh, lol. All I'm trying to change is one character, and it won't let me because that's too few. (Maybe because I don't have rep on MO).
 
@Semiclassical As a cheat, can you put in ${}{}{}{}$ as well?
And maybe another edit to take it out
 
Maybe. Going to edit the other one first.
 
I assume the non-TeX sites on Stack Exchange don't have this problem :P
Lots of people use it to bypass the 15 char min for comments.
 
Gotcha.
One problem with editing this other one is that I'm pretty sure some of it should be mathcal'ed.
For instance, I'm pretty sure "chi(OX)" should be $\chi(\mathcal{O}_X)$ in this context.
But I don't know what "OS(-X)" should look like.
$\mathcal{O}_{S(-X)}$?
I'm probably wrong, which means I'm hesitant to go much further.
Or maybe it's $\mathcal{O}_S(-X)$.
It's supposed to be a line bundle, but I don't know enough to disambiguate it.
 
4:39 AM
Okay, gave it my best shot.
 
4:54 AM
Disprove the following statement: if a rational-coefficient polynomial produces integers for every integer input, then the coefficients are integers
 
in fact the ring of such polynomials has binomial coefficients as a Z-basis
 
what if i replace "rational" by "real"?
can a non-rational-coefficient polynomial produce integer?
 
@DHMO you can solve for the coefficients using (input,output) pairs and linear algebra, in which case if all integer inputs yield integer outputs then the coefficients must be rational
 
I think you'd want to have that replacement be rational -> irrational, yeah.
 
interesting
 
4:59 AM
e.g. if $f(x)=ax^2+bx+c$ then you have an infinite family of linear equations, $f(0)=c$, $f(1)=a+b+c$, $f(-1)=a-b+c$, etc.
 
How does one get a polynomial mapping Z to Z which doesn't have integer coefficients?
 
$\binom{n}{k}$ as a function of $n$ for fixed $k$
4 mins ago, by arctic tern
in fact the ring of such polynomials has binomial coefficients as a Z-basis
 
Huh.
That's neat.
For $k>1$, though. When $k=1$ it's just $n$ which is integer.
 
that is, if $f\in\Bbb Q[x]$ is a polynomial such that $f(\Bbb Z)\subseteq\Bbb Z$, then $f(x)=\sum_k a_k\binom{x}{k}$ for some integers $a_k\in\Bbb Z$ (all but finitely many $0$ of course). essentially you can induct on degree, or apply forward difference operators and "integrate" back
 
What's the range on $k$?
 
5:03 AM
you mean in the sum?
I said all but finitely many $a_k$s are zero
 
Hmm, okay.
 
the forward difference operator is $\Delta f(x):=f(x+1)-f(x)$. notice this reduces the degree of $f$, and in particular $\Delta \binom{x}{k}=\binom{x}{k-1}$. thus, we can apply $\Delta$ enough times to $f$ to get $\Delta^n f(x)=c$ for some constant $c$, then write $\Delta^{n-1}f(x)=c\binom{x}{1}+d$, then $\Delta^{n-2}f(x)=c\binom{x}{2}+d\binom{x}{1}+e$, etc.
 
Nice.
 
it's a discrete analogue to differential equations
 
Sure, sure.
I've done that stuff before, just hadn't seen this application of it.
Here's a question for you, in this context: One way of solving difference equations is via generating functions. What's the differential equations analog of that?
(I have an answer, I'm just curious what you think)
 
5:09 AM
how do we use generating functions to solve difference equationss?
 
I have in mind $a_{n}=a_{n-1}+a_{n-2}$, and resumming that to get the GF $$A(x)=\frac{1}{1-x-x^2}=1+x+2x^2+\cdots$$
Stuff like that.
Anyways, I'd say the analog is just "Laplace transforms."
 
sure. multiplying both sides of the recurrence by x^n and then summing over n is the discrete analogue of multiplying both sides of a differential equation by a^-x and integrating over x
 
You have an integral rather than a sum, but in both scenarios one converts the problem into an algebra form, solve for the transform, then 'invert' the transform to get the asnwer.
Right.
 
5:29 AM
is the concept of using transforms to solve differential equations the best though?
 
Where did I claim it was?
It works on some problems, therefore I'm happy to use it on them.
 
5:45 AM
Laplace transform is hell whenever you have quotients or products of different functions
 
 
1 hour later…
6:55 AM
@Secret You missed a great opportunity to call products and Laplace transforms convoluted.
 
O, I was asleep at that time
 
7:10 AM
@user400188: I don't think you got a very clear answer. Your issue is that you're conflating the formal system and the meta-system. In propositional logic, given any propositions A,B the string "A implies B" is also a proposition. There are many formal systems for propositional logic. Of them, Hilbert-style systems have a single inference rule called modus ponens. A rule is not a proposition, nor a string, unlike an axiom, which is a proposition.
@user400188: Modus ponens (MP) exists as an object in the meta-system, which is part of the formal system being studied, in this case a Hilbert-style system, which is also an object in the meta-system. MP can be represented as a relation such that MP(x,y,z) is true iff there are propositions A,B such that x="A" and y="A implies B" as z="B".
(I'm being slightly sloppy here. Technically one should distinguish clearly between variables and quoted symbols. Precisely, I should say: MP can be represented as a relation such that MP(x,y,z) is true iff there are propositions A,B such that x=A and y="("A+"->"+B+")" and z=B... But for ease of reading we shall just use our brain to figure out which symbols are quotations.)
@user400188: Now in a Hilbert-system, the collection of theorems is simply the smallest collection of propositions that includes the axioms and is closed under MP. You can think of MP as a generator that generates more strings from previously generated strings. Taking to the 'limit' gives the resulting collection of theorems.
So remember, MP is not an axiom. Given any propositions A,B, "(A implies B) and A implies B" is a tautology, but is not at all MP. It can be said to be an internal reflection of MP, though.
Sorry for me to say "closed under" I should have defined MP as a function such that MP(x,y)=z iff there are propositions A,B such that x="A" and y="A implies B" and z="B".
@user21820 Sorry I can't amend this message and the next one.
 
 
1 hour later…
8:48 AM
Hello!
What kind of continued fraction it means?
Sorry I got
 
 
2 hours later…
10:56 AM
$$\left ( \begin{matrix}
3 & 10 & 5 \\
4 & 6 & 2 \\
\end{matrix} \right )
\left ( \begin{matrix}
a\\
b\\
c\\
\end{matrix} \right ) =
\left ( \begin{matrix}
0 \\
0\\
\end{matrix} \right )
$$
What will be $\Delta_1$ for this matrix? (In Cramer's rule)
 

« first day (2377 days earlier)      last day (2638 days later) »