A particle moves along the x-axis so that at time t its position is given by $x(t) = t^3-6t^2+9t+11$ during what time intervals is the particle moving to the left? so I know that we need the velocity for that and we can get that after taking the derivative but I don't know what to do after that the velocity would than be $v(t) = 3t^2-12t+9$ how could I find the intervals
@MATHASKER $v(t)$ is as you have described. Solve for the set of $t$ so that $v(t)<0$. Note that your polynomial factors as $3(t^2-4t+3)=(3(t-1)(t-3))$.
Fix $c\in\{0,1,\dots\}$, let $K\geq c$ be an integer, and define $z_K=K^{-\alpha}$ for some $\alpha\in(0,2)$.
I believe I have numerically discovered that
$$
\sum_{n=0}^{K-c}\binom{K}{n}\binom{K}{n+c}z_K^{n+c/2} \sim \sum_{n=0}^K \binom{K}{n}^2 z_K^n \quad \text{ as } K\to\infty
$$
but cannot ...
So, the whole discussion is about some polynomial $p(A)$, for $A$ an $n\times n$ matrix with entries in $\mathbf{C}$, and eigenvalues $\lambda_1,\ldots, \lambda_k$.
Anyways, part (a) is talking about proving that $p(\lambda_1),\ldots, p(\lambda_k)$ are eigenvalues of $p(A)$. That's basically routine computation. No problem there. The next bit is to compute the dimension of the eigenspaces $E(p(A), p(\lambda_i))$.
Seems like this bit follows from the same argument. An eigenvector for $A$ is an eigenvector for $p(A)$, so the rest seems to follow.
Finally, the last part is to find the characteristic polynomial of $p(A)$. I guess this means in terms of the characteristic polynomial of $A$.
Well, we do know what the eigenvalues are...
The so-called Spectral Mapping Theorem tells us that the eigenvalues of $p(A)$ are exactly the $p(\lambda_i)$.
Well, geometric multiplicity is the same thing as # of linearly independent eigenvectors for $\lambda$. Since eigenvectors carry over, this isn't an issue, right?
If we're computing the nth homology of something and find that it can be written as the mth suspension of another space where m>n, that'll be zero, right?
This reminds me a bit of the real grassmannian of oriented 2-planes embedding as a complex hyperquadric in $\Bbb P^n$. Danu and I discussed that ages ago.
Usually, by the time you start talking about complex numbers you consider the real numbers as a subset of them, since a and b are real in a + bi. But you could define it that way and call it a "standard form" like ax + by = c for linear equations :-) @Riker
"a + bi where a and b are integers" Complex numbers a + bi where a and b are integers are called Gaussian integers.
I was wondering If it is easier to factor in a non-ufd then it is to factor in a ufd.
I can come up with arguments for that , but I also have arguments in the opposite direction.
For instance : It should be easier to factor When there are more possibilities ( multiple factorizations in a non-ufd...
Hey, could someone help me understand what this linear algebra question is asking?
It gets three vectors, v1, v2, and v3. v1 is {1,4,-9,-5}. v2 is {4,-7,2,5}. v3 is {1,-5,3,4}. It then says "It can be shown that v1-3v2+5v5=0. Use this to find a basis for span{v1,v2,v3}."
But v5 is never given, and it's not a typo because v3 doesn't fit that criteria
Yeah, I'm still not entirely sure what the answer would be. It's my understanding that the basis would be written in the form "span{some vectors here}"
Ah, okay. So I arrange these into a matrix, get it into reduced row echelon form, and then each column with a pivot column is one of the vectors that forms a basis?
I still don't know what exactly he wants with the v5 thing
Ok, in chapter 4, right after the alternative proof of the weak Nullstellensatz by Nagata there is an explanation and a graph involving hyperbolas that I don't understand
I see why $K[X,Y]/(XY-1)$ is algebraic but not integral over $K[X]$ and I see why modifying it makes it integral as well, but I don't understand how is that related to the projection missing a point
So remember that we discussed that if $f : X \to Y$ is a morphism of varieties with dense image, you could talk about the extension of rings $f^*:k[Y] \hookrightarrow k[X]$?
Indeed. Alternatively, if you imagine $X$ to be an affine variety sitting inside $\Bbb A^n$, think of $k[X]$ as the ring of polynomial functions/regular functions $X \to \Bbb A^1$.
That's of course the same as your definition, because those which vanish on the variety are precisely elements of $I(X)$
So you have to mod out $k[\Bbb A^n] = k[X_1, \cdots, X_n]$ by that ideal
Ah, that's to get the injectivity of $f^*$. Remember my half-assed argument that if you had a function on $f(X)$ you could extend that to a function on $Y$ by density?
So the two varieties are the hyperbola and the x-axis in the plane, it wasn't clear to me at all from the book that he was thinking about the x-axis as a second variety here
So there's a fact out there (Lying over theorem iirc) that says if $f : X \to Y$ is such a map I mentioned, $f^* k[Y] \subset k[X]$ is integral implies $f$ is a closed map.
And that you can extend chains, if $P\subset P'$ are prime ideals in $A$ and $Q$ is prime in $B$ with $Q\cap A=P$ then there is a prime $Q'\supset Q$ in $B$ with $Q'\cap A=P'$
Does anyone know if $T: V \to R^n$ is an inner product space isomorphism if $T(v) = (v)_S$, where $S$ is a basis for $V$? My book isn't saying so explicitly, but there was a theorem saying that an inner product isomorphism exists, and another theorem kind of suggesting that it should work.
i.e. you can transform $v,w \in V$ into $R^n$ with $T$, take the inner product between them there, then transform back, making the result the same as taking the inner product in $V$
@TobiasKildetoft Sorry, I meant that they should be equal (accidently sent this before writing my answer. Writing it now)
Isn't there this theorem saying that if $v,w \in V$ ($V$ being an inner product space), then $||v|| = ||(v)_S||$? (where the left norm is defined as the norm in $V$ and the right norm is the euclidean norm) I thought that this would somehow result from isomorphism
also, if you have an isomorphisms of inner product spaces, then there is a basis where the map will be given like this, and that basis will be orthonormal
@AlessandroCodenotti Actually, such a $f$ in fact needs to be surjective. Take any $y \in Y$; the maximal ideal of $k[Y]$ corresponding to that is $(Y_1 - y_1, \cdots, Y_n - y_n)$. The ideal corresponding to the subvariety $f^{-1}(y) \subset X$ in $k[X]$ is then nothing but $(f^* Y_1 - y_1, \cdots, f^* Y_n - y_n)$. If this is empty, weak Nullstellensatz kicks in to say that there are $g_1, \cdots, g_n \in k[X]$ such that $\sum_i (f^* Y_i - y_i)g_i = 1$.
Well, better to say that $(f^* Y_1 - y_1, \cdots, f^* Y_n - y_n)$ is the trivial ideal I guess. Hmm, I'm stuck again
O(n) acts transitively on S^(n-1) with stabilizer at a point O(n-1)
For any transitive G action on a set X with stabilizer H, G/H $\cong$ X set theoretically. In this case, as the action is a smooth action by a Lie group, you can prove this set-theoretic bijection gives a diffeomorphism