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12:05 AM
hello
Can someone help me with a modular problem?
 
 
1 hour later…
1:18 AM
hmm....
 
Looks like no one's around
 
There is me ;)
 
My comment was a response to your hmm :P
but yeah
 
@Avantgarde So how is yours modular skills?
 
@Ilya_Gazman I don't exactly know what you mean. I'm not a math student
 
1:29 AM
Ok, I will wait for some one then ;)
 
0
Q: Finding a Bounded Measurable Set and Sequence of Simple Functions

user193319 Let $f$ be a measurable function on $E$ that is finite a.e. on $E$ and $m(E) < \infty$. Show that for each $\epsilon > 0$, show that there is a measurable set $F$ contained in $E$ and a sequence $\{\varphi_n \}$ of simple functions on $E$ such that $f$ is bounded on $F$ and $m(E-F) < \epsilon$...

 
moduli space?
 
Ok good luck. Maybe post a question
 
0
Q: How to simplify $2^{a\left(2^{bc}-1\right)}-1\mod{N}$

Ilya_GazmanHow to simplify $$2^{a\left(2^{bc}-1\right)}-1\mod{N}$$ Where a,b,c are big integers with relatively small primes and N is a big integer that is hard to factor(it does not have small primes). I have been trying doing the following: $$2^{a\left(2^{bc}-1\right)}-1\mod{N}=$$ $$2^{a^{\left(2^{bc}-...

Did that too ;)
 
2:02 AM
(cont.) Ok, what I said yesterday does not work since a set $S$ with cardinality $\kappa$ only has a $\mathcal{I}(S)$ of cardinality $2\kappa+1$, which is not enough to reach uncountability.
Hmm...
$a+1 := a \cup \{a\}$
$a+(b+1) = (a + b) + 1 := (a+b) \cup \{a+b\}$
$ab := a \times b = (a,b)$
$a^n :=\prod_{k=1}^n a=(a,a,a,...,a)$
$\lambda = \sup (n < \omega : \lambda [n]), |\lambda| = \aleph_0$
So succession will take us from 0 to any naturals, and from any limit to successors
Multiplication will take us from $\omega$ all the way to $\omega$ towers
actually no
Just succession and supremum of countable increasing sequences of ordinals (fundamental sequences) alone will reach any computable ordinal
Multiplication and exponentiation are ultimately shorthands for a lot of successions and supremums, so as Veblen functions and other recursive increasing functions on the ordinals
So eventually all the computable ordinals will be produced
 
2:45 AM
Whenever you get the chance, please check this @BalarkaSen. $H_2(P, P-p) \cong \Bbb{Z} \oplus \Bbb{Z}$. $H_1(P, P-p) \cong 0$. $H_0(P, P-p) \cong \Bbb{Z}.$
$P$ is the pinched torus and $p$ is the pinch point.
 
IF any1 is up for some topology
2
Q: Prove $\mathbb{R}$ is connected

Manolis LyviakisProve that $\mathbb{R}$ is connected. PLease i have found other ways to prove it but i want to make this way work. Proof: 1) Strategy : If i show that a arbitrary interval is connected then i can take the colection of intervals around zero that make up $\mathbb{R}$ and have a common point So...

im really stuck trying to use the specific arguments
i can draw the possibillities but i cant formally prove it
 
3:30 AM
Does anyone know what the notation $C_{3v}: E, C_3, C_3^2, 3\sigma_v$ means w.r.t point groups?
It's supposed to describe trigonal symmetry of sorts.
It might even be the dihedral group $D_2$ for all I know, but I can't decipher the notation.
 
4:13 AM
@Caddyshack $C_{3 v}$ is isomorphis to $D_{3}$
The $E, C_3, C_3^2$ are the identity and rotations, isomorphic to $C_3$ group. Each of the $\sigma_v$ is a reflection. There are 3 axes you can reflect about
(Some people call it $D_6$ dunno which you use
 
@KevinDriscoll Makes sense, thanks. With $D_3$ I know how to do the operations - with this notation, however, it doesn't seem clear.
 
What about it seems unclear?
 
Actually the notation is effectively the same. What initially threw me off is the fact that $3\sigma_v$ is three elements.
I had also seen it written as $C_{3v}: E, 2C_3^2, 3\sigma_v$, which confused me even more.
 
4:39 AM
@KevinDriscoll I'm reading that the nontrivial subgroups of $C_{3v}$ are $H_1 = \left\{E, \sigma_h\right\}$ and $H_2 = \left\{E, C_3, C_3^2\right\}$. But $\sigma_h$ is not in the group, right? It should be $\sigma_v$?
 
@Caddyshack I think its just notation. They proably mean $h$ to index the 3 $\sigma$ elements. So each of the sets $\{E, \sigma_1 \}$ $\{E, \sigma_2 \}$ and $\{E, \sigma_3 \}$ is a subgroup
or maybe you want to call them $\sigma_{v 1}$ etc....
 
@KevinDriscoll Thanks, again. Makes sense.
 
 
3 hours later…
8:11 AM
in Mathworks (Not the main chat!), 4 mins ago, by Secret
We now learnt from an ordinal arithmetic perspective, $\omega_1^{CK}$ is in fact the first ordinal inaccessible by succession, cartesian product and supremum from any computable ordinals. This is why we cannot find a fundamental sequence for it
 
Really, apologize for the wrong link.
5
Q: which of the following is/are true for the entire function $f$?

ademberLet , $f$ be an entire function. Let, $g(z)=\overline{f(\bar z)}$. Let, $D=\{z:Im(z)=0\}\cup\{z:Im(z)=a\}$ for some $a>0$. Then which are correct ? (A) If $f(z)\in \mathbb R$ for all $z\in \mathbb R$ then $f=g$. (B) If $f(z)\in \mathbb R$ for all $z\in D$ then $f(z+ia)=f(z-ia)$ for all $z\in \m...

The answer is given by the timon in (B). I have doubts.
f(x−ia)=g(x−ia)=f(x+ia)
How it is coming
please help me.
 
9:11 AM
@gian Quite right. You can compute like this: say $U$ is a cone neighborhood of $p$, then $P - U$ is a subset of $P - p$ is a subset of $P$. Excise that little piece of shit. You get $H_2(P, P - p) \cong H_2(U, U - p)$. Now, you can prove homology $(U, U - p)$ is isomorphic to the homology of $(U, \partial U)$ - this is because $U - p$ deformation retracts to $\partial U$
(Hint: write down the two long exact sequences, and set up isomorphism $H_*(U) \to H_*(U)$, $H_*(\partial U) \to H_*(U - p)$, use the five lemma to conclude)
But $H_*(U, \partial U)$ is isomorphic to $H_*(U/\partial U)$, and that quotient space is just $S^2 \vee S^2$
 
Hey everyone!
 
This is the algebraic nonsense. Geometrically, you do this: Bro you're just looking at singular simplices in $P$ containing $p$ in the interior. It is clear that there are just two such simplices upto homology inside $P - p$
One in "one side" of the cone, the other in "the other side" of the cone
So it's $\Bbb Z^2$ :P
I'll let you decide if algebra is efficient or geometry is efficient
@Daminark Heya
 
Lol speaking of geometry
After literally 6 weeks I only just understood the dihedral group
 
What do you mean?
 
But I get it now so that's something
 
9:15 AM
Hi chat
 
Like my prof was deriving all the properties of D_n and I was like "Uh... I guess I'll take your word for it"
But I just couldn't see why, for example, $srs = r^{-1}$
 
so you mean you prefer blackboxing the presentation of $D_n$ instead of thinking of it as the isometry group of the polygon?
or rather, you did
 
I never realized that all the dihedral groups were the isometry groups of the square. Math is truly a magical subject
 
How did you define $D_n$?
 
Dammit Balarka with your time traveling
 
9:18 AM
not the square, the $2n$-gon. sorry
i'm in a loose mode
 
Kek the 2n gon. But I defined it just as the symmetries and then immediately used the presentation
So I did black box the proof of the presentation
 
gotcha
 
Ah, I see, you can construct it as a subgroup of $S_n$ in a way that I find more intuitive to work with than "symmetries of a polygon"
 
I don't actually think about the 2n gon most of the time
 
But about a week and half, maybe 2 weeks ago
Discrete math was doing graph theory and one of the problems I was grading was to find how many automorphisms there are of the path, the cycle graph, and the complete graph
Now, the automorphism group of the cycle graph is $D_n$
And the argument for why there were 2n automorphisms made total sense to me
You have to preserve adjacency of vertices, so you can send any vertex to any other vertex by rotations (turns out I'm okay with rotations in 2d), and at that point, take one of the vertices that was adjacent to it, it has 2 places it can go
Either to the left or to the right. That was the first time I was comfortably convinced that $|D_n| = 2n$
And tonight I realized why $srs = r^{-1}$ after a friend was explaining it to me for like, literally half an hour
@Alessandro what do you do?
 
9:28 AM
Consider the monoid of "affine" functions on $\Bbb Z/(n)$, that is $\{f_{a,b}:\Bbb Z/(n)\to\Bbb Z/(n)\quad a,b\in \Bbb Z/(n)\}$ with $f_{a,b}(x)=ax+b$, then $D_n$ is the group of units of that monoid, that is $f_{a,b}$ with $a=\pm 1$. If you write $\Bbb Z/(n)$ along the vertices of an $n$-gon you recover the geometric interpretation, $f_{1,b}$ are rotations, $f_{-1,b}$ reflections
 
I see
 
The product then is just composition of functions
By taking $\Bbb Z$ instead of $\Bbb Z/(n)$ you get $D_\infty$
 
I can take that
 
I quite like that
 
If I ever teach group theory (which I probably will) I'll try to explain it like so
 
Oh lord
 
That's how my professor introduced the dihedral groups (we also saw the presentation and stuff later, but we did all of the geometrical interpretation and conjugacy classes things with the group written as a group of functions)
 
Sky cowboy is making a comeback
 
Truly
 
Like for a while on r/Youtubehaiku every single video on "hot" had that in some form
@Alessandro our prof just toyed with polygons and I'm like "Ya cool kthxm8"
 
10:02 AM
Alright everybody imma take a geometric approach to sleeping so see you!
 
Good night and differentiable dreams?
 
Combinatorial dreams kthx
Honestly it seems like once an algebra problem becomes combinatorics or just putting theorems together I handle it so much better than I do anything else
Like I don't know if later number theory/combinatorics looks at all like this stuff but honestly that might just be the subject I should go for, I can reason about numbers
So yeah smooth dreams are all nice nd shit but like discrete is where it's at
 
[To be checked]
in Mathworks (Not the main chat!), 2 mins ago, by Secret
$$\omega_1 = \sup (m,n < \omega : S^m[n])$$
In words: Grab any computable countable ordinal already constructed, let $\omega_1^{CK}$ be the first ordinal not constructible from the countable union of any computable ordinal already constructed (inserted by some axiom I added), make a fundamental sequence using $\omega_1^{CK}$ as the base with cartesian products, succession and supremums. Iterate the above process countably many times. After that, one get the recursively inaccessible ordinals.
Iterate the above process countably many times with these ordinals as a starting base
Since $\omega_1$ is an admissible, eventually this will get you to it
In order to do the above, two axioms were inserted to create this particular model of ZF:
Existence of smallest supremum inaccessible ordinals
> For every set of ordinals, there exists a smallest ordinal that is not a successor ordinal, and inaccessible from any supremum of ordinals smaller than it
Axiom of smallest inaccessible ordinals
> For every ordinal with cardinality $\kappa$, there exists a smallest ordinal inaccessible from $\kappa$ many iterations of the following: Iterated construction of fundamental sequence and application of the axiom of Existence of smallest supremum inaccessible ordinals
 
10:45 AM
Therefore:
Let E,Reg,U,R,I,P,C be the axioms: Extensionality, Regularity, Union, Replacement, Infinity, Powerset, Choice.
\begin{align}
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-E}} & = \text{I have no idea}\\
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-Reg}} & = 0\\
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-U}} & = \{0,1,2\}\\
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-R-I-P}} & = \Bbb{On} \cap [0,\omega)\\
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-I-P}} & = \Bbb{On} \cap [0,\omega 2 )\\
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-P-2nd order definitions}} & = \Bbb{On}^{\text{Predicative}} = \Bbb{On} \cap [0,\Gamma_0 )\\
\Bbb{On}^{\text{ZF-P}} & = \Bbb{On}^{\text{Predicative}} = \Bbb{On} \cap [0,\omega_1^{CK} )\\
 
11:17 AM
@Hippalectryon hey! How are you doing? :-)
@Secret how is it going?
 
Currently deep in set theory stuff
 
My logic background is not very strong, which is why a lot of the stuff I said here sounds like rambles
It also does not help that I am actually procrastinating from writing the final data analysis code for my PhD, which is why I am too guilty to be able to spend time reading the logic textbook called forallx
Above all, I am currently deeply obssessed in trying to define $\omega_1$, the first uncountable ordinal explicitly
so in conclusion, not a very productive month
 
 
1 hour later…
12:30 PM
@Waiting Hi :-) I have a PC now that's always on so I might appear online even when I'm not in front of the computer
 
@Hippalectryon haha, that's slightly deceiving
:-)
 
It's been a long time since I've been here, anything new ? @Waiting
 
@Hippalectryon The same here. I didn't enter the room for a long while. Well, except the fact these days are my best days ever, not that much. I'm just one step away from finalizing my project.
 
Great :D
 
@Hippalectryon I made a couple of fascinating discoveries these days. I'm still overwhelmed by the beauty of the results.
@Hippalectryon You?
 
12:36 PM
Not much about maths, I've been doing more physics and CS lately
 
I see.
 
Any news about the book project ? Last time we talked if I recall it hyad been called off ?
 
@Hippalectryon Tell you more privately when there are news. ;)
 
0
Q: Finding a Bounded Measurable Set and Sequence of Simple Functions

user193319 Let $f$ be a measurable function on $E$ that is finite a.e. on $E$ and $m(E) < \infty$. Show that for each $\epsilon > 0$, show that there is a measurable set $F$ contained in $E$ and a sequence $\{\varphi_n \}$ of simple functions on $E$ such that $f$ is bounded on $F$ and $m(E-F) < \epsilon$...

 
@Waiting great :-)
 
12:42 PM
@Hippalectryon I wondered a couple of time if I would going to get stuck at some point, not being able to advance anymore. It's so nice things continously come to me.
@Hippalectryon It's as if mathematics comes to me naturally, without doing a particular effort, like you navigate on the sea, you're pushed in all directions by the wind.
I love what I do, that's clear, and every new discovery is a moment of great joy!
 
Still only on integrals/sums/..., or have you started other fields ?
 
@Hippalectryon I'm looking a bit over fractals lately, but not doing research, more learning.
 
Ah yeah I've studied those in the past :-)
 
@Hippalectryon Nice. If you have some links with free-to-read materials, let me know.
 
Ah that was some time ago, and I don't think I've stored any special papers on that subject :(
 
12:55 PM
Ah, it's OK.
@Hippalectryon I also have a result that I think would help me to clarify once and for all the irrationality of Catalan's constant.
 
@Waiting That would be pretty awesome
 
I need more time and energy investment in it, but all that after finishing my first project (just one step away).
 
Is it true that if two different metrics $d$ and $\rho$ on the same set induce the same topology, then they are equivalent, in these that $ad \le \rho \le bd$ for positive constants $a$ and $b$?
 
@Hippalectryon I'm out with some tutoring. Talk later. ;)
 
cya
 
1:12 PM
See ya
 
How about a math bot @Hippalectryon?
 
@user685252 I'm currently fixing chemobot and despite its name, chemobot can be adapted to pretty much any chatroom
But I'm not sure what use it would have here
 
or we could just use the chembot
 
What would we use it for in this room ?
 
Wikipedia articles
 
1:16 PM
Other than that ?
 
dunno, that's a start :-)
There was a network wide bot that brought up the articles.
and definitions
 
I mean, having a bot for just one command is not really worth it
imo
 
true
(just a thought :)
 
1:53 PM
math.stackexchange.com/questions/1103634/… Using Parseval's inequality. I can show that it is equality.Right? How could he say that (c) is true and (d) is false? He pointed out the counterexample also, I don't understand. Please help me.
 
2:22 PM
From "The Mathematician's Shiva," by Stuart Rojstaczer​. While mathematicians can be expected to be difficult and unsuitable for human interaction, PDE people, as they are sometimes known for short, are certainly among the most normal of the lot. Topologists ...are the worst."
 
@0celo7 Hmmmmmmm
I think not.
 
he won't get notified of that message
 
2:48 PM
has anyone in here taken the GRE ?
 
Suppose $X_0,X_1,\cdots$ are completely metrizable spaces (even Polish actually) and that $d_n$ is an equivalent metric on $X_n$ bounded by $1$. We define $\hat{d}$ on $\prod X_i$ by setting $\hat{d}(f,g)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \frac1{2^{i+1}}d_n(f(n),g(n))$ where $f,g\in\prod X_i$ and $f(n)=\pi_n(f)$. I can see that with the topology induced by $\hat{d}$ the product is a complete space, but I'm not sure why this topology is the same as the product one.
 
Does $a_n=a_1^{\log^{n-1}r}$ means $a_{n}=a_{1}^{(\log{r})^{n-1}}$?
 
3:50 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti does it work if they're British?
 
@Hippalectryon you are designing a bot ?
hey btw
 
@Idle Chemobot is quite an old project :-) I'm just upgrading it to V3
 
just got stumbled to this question i think unless it's disapproving it by a countereample, no one ever on earth face can prove lemoine's conjecture.
@Hippalectryon Git project ?
 
@Idle github.com/gauthierhaas/SE_Bot - I'm currently rewriting the readme.
 
NIIIIICE !!!
I'll try to pullrequests and maybe contribute, as far i have time.
 
4:01 PM
great :-)
 
I'm very interested in bots and python both.
 
Hey guys
 
i don't know, i thought of mutating my comment into an answer but i doubted myself.
 
@AkivaWeinberger can you prove $x > 0 \implies 1 + x + \frac {x^2} 2 < \exp p$ given the following?
1. $\exp 0 = 1$
2. $\exp (x+y) = \exp x \times \exp y$
3. $x < y \implies \exp x < \exp y$
4. $\exp x \le 1 + x \implies x = 0$
 
4:18 PM
those are familiar axioms !
 
I meant $\exp x$, not $\exp p$
 
@Idle readme somewhat updated :-)
 
4:33 PM
alot of unicode lol
 
@LeakyNun $\exp(x)=\exp(x/2+x/4+x/4)=\exp(x/2)\exp(x/4)^2> (1+x/2)(1+x/4)^2=x^3/32+5x^2/16+x+1 > 1+x+x^2/2$
 
@MatheinBoulomenos my graph doesn't confirm it
 
@LeakyNun what?
 
my graph says $(1+x/2)(1+x/4)^2 < 1+x+x^2/2$
at least for $0 < x < 6$ it says that
 
Ah I see
I only proved it for 1+x+x^2/4
 
4:37 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos that follows from (1+x/2)^2 already
the thing is that (1+x/a)^a only gives you 1+x+(x^2/2)(1-1/a)
you need a bigger "a" value for a smaller "x"
which isn't first-order
 
Is this a problem?
 
eh, I want to have a first-order proof?
 
4:52 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos if there isn't a first-order proof, then it would mean that there is a model that disobeys it
 
@LeakyNun you solved it ?
 
@Idle not yet
 
i was trying to pickle it someway using lambert but i failed.
@LeakyNun try to integrate
i was using log both sides then i figured why shouldn't one integrate both sides of an inequality ?
from here $e^x>x+1$ integrate both edges and see
that exp stays untouched, but the other side expands.
 
$\displaystyle \int_0^x \exp x \ \mathrm dx \ge \int_0^x (1 + x) \ \mathrm dx$
$\exp x - 1 \ge x + \dfrac {x^2} 2$
fair enough
now prove this via first order :P
 
How is integration first-order?
 
5:04 PM
btw you still need to prove $\exp x \ne 1 + x + \dfrac{x^2}2$
 
Question about notation in the context of probability.
When we denote a probability as P(a, b, c) we also mean P(a and b and c), right? That is, P(a, b, c) is a joint probability of a, b and c, right?
 
@MatheinBoulomenos eh, sometimes moving outside the model gives you some insight
@nbro I don't write that
but it can mean P(a or b or c) as well
 
Is there a professor here who can authoritatively answer me?
 
You also need to prove $(e^x)' = e^x$ in the axioms Leaky gave. i.e., need to show $\lim_{h \to 0} (e^h - 1)/h = 1$
 
I was surprised to know that you can express that in first order
 
5:08 PM
In the study of probability, given at least two random variables X, Y, ..., that are defined on a probability space, the joint probability distribution for X, Y, ... is a probability distribution that gives the probability that each of X, Y, ... falls in any particular range or discrete set of values specified for that variable. In the case of only two random variables, this is called a bivariate distribution, but the concept generalizes to any number of random variables, giving a multivariate distribution. The joint probability distribution can be expressed either in terms of a joint cumulative...
Blah!
 
@BalarkaSen even if you have that, you still need to prove the FTC in first-order
 
2 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
I was surprised to know that you can express that in first order
well, not a great surprise, I mean, you can express 1 + x + x^2/2 < exp(x) in first order as well
but I don't think one can prove it in first order
 
5:22 PM
Let $\{f_n\}$ be a sequence of measurable real-valued functions whose domain is the measurable set $E$. I am asked to show that $\sup \{f_n \}(x) := \sup \{f_n(x) \mid n \in \Bbb{N} \}$ is a measurable function. My only problem is, how do I know the supremum exists? Are we allowing it to take on the value of infinity?
 
yeah, infinity is okay
 
Okay! Thanks!
 
at least it's common practice in measure-theory to allow infinity
 
5:39 PM
I have simplified that $\sum_{k=2}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{(2k+1)(2k+5)}}= \sum_{k=2}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{4(2k+1)}} + \sum_{k=2}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{-4(2k+5)}}$.
Can someone help me, to show that this series converges, please?
 
Your simplification does not work. The LHS conerges, but the two sums on the RHS don't
 
so do you think that the simplification does not help or is wrong?
 
it is wrong
 
what the heck ?
I was able to form it in both directions.. :/
 
you have to be careful with sums and limits
 
5:42 PM
ok. so the term is correct but not the thing with the sums?
 
Yes, you partial fraction decomposition is correct
 
so how can I get the limit (and thus show that is converges)?
 
I don't know how to compute the actual limit
but if you just want to show convergence, the integral criterion works
 
 
@MatheinBoulomenos my script does not contain that :( I should use something else
 
5:49 PM
using those axioms i need to infer $(A $ or $B) \to C$ from $A\to C$ , $B\to C$ . someone can help?
we also have $A$ or $\neg A $ as an axioms
 
@Liad are you allowed to have subcontexts?
 
What's that?
 
it's where you assume A, derive B, and conclude A implies B
 
@jublikon okay, as all the summands are positives, you just need an upper bound. Your sum is smaller than $\sum_{k=2}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{k(k+1)}}$
 
Hm, we are not allowed to do that
we need to use $A \to C,B\to C$ and and axioms to get $A$or$B\to C$
 
5:53 PM
but only the last axiom lets you have arrows
and it isn't really useful
 
As $\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{1}{k}-\frac{1}{k+1}$, this series is telescoping
 
we have $A\to B$ by def $\neg A $ or $B $ @LeakyNun
 
@Liad you should have said that
 
thought that this is how it is defined everywhere :P
 
not really
 
5:55 PM
thanks @MatheinBoulomenos
 
alright, didn't know that .
you got something? @LeakyNun
 
@Liad thinking
@Liad do you have commutativity?
 
i proved it , yes
 
how?
well, you don't have substitution, so I'm not sure if you can prove commutativity in general
 
how you write "or" here?
 
6:05 PM
you just did :)
( - :
4
 
:P
\what ?
$\or$
 
@MikeMiller This smile is really disorienting
 
just write "or"
 
ok so if we assume $A $ or $B$
 
in LaTeX it is $\lor$ \lor but why bother
 
6:06 PM
Ɑ:
 
then $\neg A$ or $A$ is axiom, so $B$ or $A$ follows by the cut rule
 
O_o
 
you said A or not A is an axiom
 
Ops :P. so now you see how we get commutative
 
@Liad how?
 
6:09 PM
just wrote it
if we assume $A \lor B$ be infer $B \lor A$
 
no, you wrongly stated that "not A or A" is axiom when you gave me "A or not A"
 
not A or A is an axiom
 
which one is it?
 
@MikeMiller I have a Kickstarter idea. How about we set up lootcrates in LaTeX, to provide the writers a sense of pride and accomplishment for unlocking more things to write?
7
 
not A or A
 
6:12 PM
@BalarkaSen Oh, I like that
cool pdfs or interesting problems or something unlock as they write each section
and there's a little animation of confetti exploding
 
So did you solved it ? @LeakyNun
 
@Liad wait, thinking
 
alright ,thanks.
 
@MikeMiller Nice suggestions!
I love that
 
6:40 PM
@Liad I have no idea, sorry
 
Finally @LeakyNun ;)
 
6:54 PM
Hai
 
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