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12:05 AM
Apparently:$$\sqrt{x^2+1-\frac1{16x^4+8x^2+1}}=x+\frac{2x}{1+4x^2}$$
I wonder if this can be generalized
 
@OneRaynyDay I know some with veeeery different tastes than yours.
 
We also have:$$\sqrt{x^2+1+\frac1{4x^2}}=x+\frac1{2x}$$
So I guess the question is, for what polynomials $P$ is $\sqrt{x^2+1+\frac1{P(x)}}$ a rational function.
 
@Arrow That's definitely wrong. That would say that the fibers of a nowhere smooth homeomorphism $\Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ are smoothly varying. I disagree with that.
 
user97303
Hey, silly question, but if you have functions $u, v$ from/to $\mathbb{R}$ and you apply integration by parts $\int_a^b u(t) dv(t)$, do you have that $v(t) = \int_a^t dv(x) $?
 
user97303
Wait, nevermind
 
12:23 AM
Ah, OK, it does generalize. Pretty easily, in fact.
$P(x)=64x^6+64x^4+16x^2$ is the next one
The idea is that $\sqrt{x+1}-\sqrt x=\frac1{2\sqrt x+(\sqrt{x+1}-\sqrt x)}$, so you can use the continued fraction to approximate $\sqrt{x+1}-\sqrt x$.
 
12:45 AM
1
Q: Need help with change of variables in very strange heat equation problem

Jessy CatI'm asked to find the equilibrium solution of the heat equation $u_{t} = \nabla^{2} u$ in the ring $0< a<r<b$ if $u_{r}(a,t)=1$ and $u_{r}(b,t) + u(b,t) = 2$. Now, I know how to find equilibrium solutions of normal looking heat equations of the form $u_{t} = \alpha u_{rr}$, but $u_{t} = \nabla^{...

 
user228700
Hi, again.
 
user228700
Can anybody please help me to prove that if $f$ and $g$ are two functions which are inverse of each other, then $f^{'}[g(x)]=1/g^{'}(x)$).
 
user228700
$f^{'}(x)$ may be expressed as $$\lim_{h \to 0}\{f[g(h+x) - f[g(x)]\}/h$$
 
user228700
Since $f$ and $g$ are inverse of each other, we know that $f[g(x)]=x$.
 
user228700
...and I am looking to simplify the above expression to get $1/g^{'}(x) = h/\{g(h+x)-g(x)\}$
 
user228700
12:52 AM
Can anybody help me, please?
 
1:14 AM
anyone around to help with conversion between coordinate systems and calculus and all that?
the hbar's empty.
 
@Kaumudi.H differentiating f(g(x))=x gives f'(g(x))g'(x)=1
 
user228700
@arctictern Ah, yes! Thanks!
 
the problem is
in The h Bar, 10 mins ago, by heather
okay, so imagine that there is a field, and we are looking at a point $p$ in that field. we can use a coordinate system with a $x_1$ axis and a $x_2$ axis. there is also an altogether different coordinate system, with a $y_1$ axis and a $y_2$ axis. and then to find the change in height, $d\phi$, over that field, I have the equation $d\phi=\sum\limits_n\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x^n}\,dx^n$. if i am trying to go from $\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x^n}$ to $\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial y^n}$
 
user228700
@heather Over my head, what you've written over there.
 
@Kaumudi.H, I probably have made it overly complicated =P I understand barely enough calculus to have gotten this far in the video, so.
in The h Bar, 9 mins ago, by heather
how would i get the conversion equation $\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial y^1}=\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x^1}\frac{\partial x^1}{\partial y^1}+\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x^2}\frac{\partial x^2}{\partial y^1}$?
 
1:40 AM
hey @arctictern around ?
 
maybe
 
I want to ask a quick question.
to make sure I understand this correctly.
Here $B_{b,E}$ is the matrix for the linear transformation ?
$\hat{b} : V \rightarrow V^{\star}$
is a linear transformation from V into its dual.
this is induced from the bilinear form b
i.e $\hat{b}(x)(y) = b(x,y)$.
so the matrix $\hat{b}$ represents the matrix which is obtained from the linear transformation $\hat{b}$ ?
 
looks like $B_{b,E}$ is the matrix of $b$ on $V$, and this equals the matrix of the map $\hat{b}:V\to V^\ast$
 
oh ok so the matrix obtained from the bilinear form b should equal the matrix obtained from the adjoint transformation $\hat{b}$.
 
"adjoint transformation" is that what you call it?
 
1:50 AM
I understand the part $(\hat{b}e_i)e_j = b(e_i,e_j)$ but why does that equal $\hat{b}e_i = \Sigma b(e_i,e_j)e_j^{\star}$ ?
@arctictern Yeah that is what the book calls it.
I really don't understand this proof.
 
$\sum b(e_i,b_j)e_j^\ast$ and $\hat{b}(e_i)$ do the same thing to every basis vector, hence are the same transformation
 
I mean that matrix obtained from b has entries $b(e_i,e_j)$ for the $i,j$ entries.
ohhh I see
this is from the definition of $e_{j}^{\star}$ I guess to be the canocial delta function.
This book likes to have things on the right for some reason. Even though it is more natural to have them on the left.
I find it helpful to discuss things with people. Thanks a lot for providing me this opporunity. Especially for your knowledge in Algebra. @arctictern
@arctictern Btw I think I found an error in Michael Atiyah book.
@arctictern I think this definition of rings is wrong.
I think you can find rings which is closed under addition,multiplication, and contains the identity, but not closed under subtraction right ?
 
you mean find subsets, and yes
like N in Z
 
yeah
 
2:13 AM
Quick question: what is that thing which has 0 surface area but infinite volume?
 
@heather When you say field, are you referring to a vector field?
 
@Perturbative, nope, the video i'm watching talks about a field with grass and stuff (though I guess it could be a vector field, or a field of just about anything)
 
@Ramanujan you mean infinite surface area and finite volume.
gabriel's horn
 
@arctictern 0 volume and infinite surface area :P
 
@Ramanujan A plane?
 
2:18 AM
@Perturbative no
 
@heather I'm sure the grass they're referring to is an analogy of some sort to try and explain what a field is
 
A fractal
 
@Perturbative i think they assume knowledge of basic linear algebra
they definitely are assuming knowledge of calculus.
 
@heather It looks like they are trying to express differentials from a multivariable calculus point of view (which is why they make use of multiple axes and so forth). See here : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_derivative]
@heather What they are trying to define is the notion of a total derivative
 
okay...
i'm sorry, but the video is a stretch for me in of itself; the wikipedia article is over my head.
 
2:26 AM
@heather Are you watching a KhanAcademy video?
 
my single-variable calc is decent, but my multi-variable calc...well, it could be a bit better.
@Perturbative no, i'm watching the video
it's rather good, but occasionally, especially as the video progresses, i get lost in the math and forget what i'm doing.
case in point being understanding how he got the transformation equation.
 
@heather I'd recommend going through a bit of Multivariable Calculus, first before tackling those videos (not to discourage you at all, though). It's just that to understand the Einstein Field Equations you need to have a good understanding of Multivariable calculus, and Differential Geometry (that's where one usually learns tensors and the like)
 
indeed, so i've been told =) the guy is explaining tensors as he goes, so that's not as big a deal, but a better understanding of multivariable calc would probably help.
 
If you are going to learn about Einstein field equations I recommend Leonard Susskinds General Relativity lectures
 
@heather A good book (but definitely not a rigorous one) to look at would be Div, Grad Curl and All That :goodreads.com/book/show/703104.DIV_Grad_Curl_and_All_That
 
2:41 AM
thank you @Perturbative, and @AliCaglayan
 
@heather No problem :)
 
 
1 hour later…
3:45 AM
hi chat
 
Hi
 
Slightly tangential question to this one. Using just 3 (and only 3) is it reasonable for me to conclude that x' = (x')^2
-2
Q: Are these alternate axioms of differential algebra (on real number functions) consistent?

TheGreatDuckIn another question I asked, I asked about using a particular axiom to define the derivative so that I could negate it in general. However, I realized that there are two alternative systems in particular that I find interesting*, and that the core alternative truths that describe them as I desire...

:p
 
4:14 AM
I would think $x'=(x \circ x)'=(x' \circ x)x'=(x')x'=(x')^2$
any flaw in my reasoning?
I don't think 3 alone can prove x' = 1
but I believe it proves that $x' = (x')^n$, which I believe would suggest that x' is either 0 or 1 at any given point as when raised to an arbitrary power both 0 and 1 equal themselves.
 
Hey chat
 
I hope my reasoning is not flawed.
@KajHansen hello
@KajHansen I'm trying to prove that given only the identity $(f \circ g)'=(f' \circ g)g'$ that $x' = (x')^2$
no limits or anything. I'm looking at more as abstract rules that define derivation if that makes sense to you.
 
Hmm. where is the composition of functions in $x' = (x')^2$ that will allow you to use the chain rule?
 
x is composed with x
implicitly since x is the identity function
 
Oh I see it now
 
4:29 AM
I just wasn't sure if there was anything wrong with me concluding that $(x' \circ x) = x'$
 
As long as you're willing to take $x' = 1$ for granted I think
 
why?
isn't any function composed with x in that manner equal to said function?
(I am logical. I do accept x' = 1. However, I do not believe the chain rule is purely capable of proving that.)
@KajHansen for instance. for arguments sake, if I said only two things were given: the chain rule, and x' = 0. Could you at all prove that I have contradicted myself. Obviously it's false, but I'm not curious what is true but rather what can be proven true with just the chain rule.
and I just realized the purpose of axiom 4 in the list I found. :-)
 
@TheGreatDuck Ok yeah, I see what you're saying. That seems fine then
Since $x$ is the identity function, anything composed with it will just give the thing back
 
if x were 0 at any point, then for all other non-constant functions the chain rule would result in that point always being 0. However, axioms states that for any point there is a function that gives a non-zero derivative. Therefore, the derivative of x must not be 0 at any point. Therefore, since axiom 3 implies x is only either 0 or 1 at any point, it must be 1 at every point by elimination.
and I just worked out how to prove x' = 1. Interesting.
 
There's something somewhere saying something along the lines of as soon as you have one inconsistency, like $x' = 0$ in this case, then you can "prove" anything you want
 
4:38 AM
yeah but axioms 2-4 in my list give no inconsistency because they are true things of the derivative.
 
Whether I can specifically, I'm not sure lol
 
whether or not every property is provable from them is questionable
I think the "prove everything" is a more trivial thing. Basically you prove "FALSE" is "TRUE" and from there you just say "every statement is TRUE or FALSE. Therefore they are all TRUE."
 
You're gonna need that limit definition at some point. I bet there are functions that cannot be derived like this.
 
well of course.
this isn't a replacement
to be fair though, I'm only concerned about the smooth functions as (assuming consistency in my alteration) I think given these proving everything about smooth functions the alteration might prove anything relevant (in that system) regarding piecewise continuous. Anything beyond that is best left to... whatever Lebesgue integrals cover.
(those functions are important I'm sure but far too messy for what I would intend to look at)
probably one thing I want to try to reach ASAP in terms of proving would that $(e^x)' = e^x$
or that if $y' = y$ then $y = e^x$ as that would serve as a partial building block of a linear differential equation (and the ability to solve one).
 
0
Q: Applying difficult initial conditions to general form of a solution to get bounds on a solution

Jessy CatThis question is related to one I asked earlier here This time, however, I have the same equation, $u_{t} = 2u_{xx} - 2u_{x} - u$, $0<x<1$ to solve, but this time the boundary conditions are different: $u(0,t) = 4t+1$, $u(1,t) = \cos t$, and the initial condition $u(x,0) = 1$. What I'm doing t...

One lat ditch effort to see if I can get any help with this last problem I have to do.
 
4:46 AM
@KajHansen while I am starting with norma differentiation to get a foothold my actual intention is to later re-do the proofs using an alternate axiom and look at the results. That's why the limit definition cannot be explicitly used as it wouldn't apply to something that doesn't have the same identities.
It's like asking whether I am doing geometry on a torus or geometry on a plane. I cannot necessarily differentiate the two using Euclid's postulates. However, if I can prove I'm not on a sphere that is an interesting consequence but not directly relevant to whatever results the postulates give in and of themselves.
 
That last submit makes sense. You'll have to flesh out the details more on what you're doing with re-axiomitizing derivatives for me to see things how you envision them
 
user228700
5:10 AM
Hi, again.
 
user228700
I have a quick-ish question about inverse trigonometric functions. The $\sin$ function isn't invertible as it is, since it's not one-one so we restrict the domain to $[-\pi/2, \pi/2]$, correct?
 
user228700
Then we can define an inverse function whose domain is $[-1,1]$ and range is $[-\pi/2,\pi/2]$, yes?
 
user228700
In this process, have we restricted the domain of the $\sin$ function just to be able to find an inverse function or is it that it's domain is still $R$, even when the conversation includes its inverse function? I'm a bit confused about this especially because some sources continue to take $R$ as the domain of the $\sin$ function just as soon as they're done defining the inverse function.
 
user228700
...I hope I've made my dilemma quite clear. Do ping me if u know an answer...
 
5:27 AM
@Kaumudi.H, the domain is always R on the sine function. The inverse function has domain [-1,1] and will give the $x \in [-\pi/2, \pi/2]$ for which $\sin(x) = y$ for a given $y \in [-1,1]$.
 
user228700
@KajHansen I see. So even though we need to restrict the domain of the $\sin$ function to obtain a proper inverse, we go back to defining $R$ to be the domain just as soon as we're done defining the inverse function?
 
Yeah @Kaumudi.H.
 
user228700
:-| That seems a bit...sketchy, actually.
 
I mean technically you never have to redefine the domain. You just have to recognize that the sine wave repeats itself every $\2pi$...things.
 
user228700
Hmm, yeah, OK.
 
5:36 AM
So if you want to know what $x \in \mathbb{R}$ maps to a $y$, we know we're gonna be able to write $x = z + 2\pi k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ and $z \in [-\pi/2, \pi/2]$
 
user228700
Yes, alright, thanks very much :-)
 
mhm; that's difficult for me to explain well given the relative simplicity of the concept.
 
user228700
What is? I think I do understand what you're saying.
 
What's going on with that; idk why. I'm glad you understand though :D
 
user228700
Yeah :-| OK, thanks :-)
 
6:20 AM
this question got 6 upvote in just 15 views and 5 minutes :D 👍
 
6:42 AM
I wish my questions got upvotes like that.
If I have the general form of a solution to a diffusion equation
How can I use the Maximum principle to put bounds on the exact solution without having to find it?
The b.c.'s are horrible.
So I'm pretty sure I'm not supposed to actually apply them.
 
Morning all. Can anybody with 10k (or a moderator) tell me why this question was deleted?
 
@Glorfindel I don't have that much rep, but was it something like find primes for which $p^2q^{2^{2017}}$ is a square?
I'm inferring from the URL
 
Yep.
 
6:58 AM
Well, that's probably because it's a national quiz question for one such quiz in progress.
Very likely, given that structure
But it's also super easy.
Do you care about the answer? Or the question more?
 
I know the answer; I wrote one that got a +7 score. That's why I'm asking. No idea that that one was from an ongoing competition ...
 
I don't know for sure, but it's likely.
That's the only thing I can infer without seeing the page myself.
 
0
Q: Rigged Hilbert Space in Quantum Mechanics and Generalized Notion of Sequence

DavidI have been reading Arno Bohm and Israel Gel'Fand, on Rigged Hilbert Space ($\Phi \subset H \subset \Phi'$), which is an attempt to put the Quantum Mechanics Bra-Ket notation, of Dirac, on rigorous mathematical footing. This makes heavy use of linear topological spaces, which in turn makes heavy ...

 
If it was a question around for longer than a day, unlikely.
 
That's a continuum and not a sequence ,right? A "sequence" where the index set is a superset of integers
 
7:00 AM
@Secret Isn't the difference whether it's discrete or not?
 
Well, if the index set is $\mathbb{Q}$ it is still discrete, but it already differs a lot from the integers?
 
Anybody in here know how to use the maximum principle to find bounds on the solution to a diffusion equation?
 
@Secret $\mathbb Q$ is just as big as the integers, though
 
yeah bad example, how about the index set being the set of transcendentals
 
@Axoren no, it was from yesterday 6PM UTC, but it has been on the site until two hours ago.
 
7:02 AM
@Secret Slow your roll, Satan.
 
then you get something that is not quite a continuum
 
Indexing over the transcendentals is something I'll have to think about
And it's definitely not a superset of the integers.
@Glorfindel You'll have to ask a mod directly.
Or someone in the 10k Club
I think you can ask in the Mod chat
 
Thanks!
 
@Secret How is this any different from just having a function $f: \mathbb R \to S$?
 
7:06 AM
A sequence is just a function $f: \mathbb N \to S$
Where $f(n) = a_n$
 
@Axoren Hmm, that does sounds like that, so I guess functions already covered that
 
But just thinking about the topology of a function over the transcendentals is scary.
Or worse yet, the transcendental plane.
It would be like looking at the fuzzy end of a microfiber cloth. There's technically holes and gaps everywhere, but it's just so damn soft that it feels smooth.
 
Just confirming, the function $f(x) = a^tx = \sum_i a_ix_i$ is convex right?
Because $\nabla^2_xf(x) = 0$
 
@OneRaynyDay I think there's another condition to go that route: that it must be smooth.
Luckily, there's an easier route: I'm pretty sure all linear transformations are convex.
Which is stronger than saying $f(x)$ is smooth and has 0 second derivative.
 
@Axoren You mean $D(f)$ is convex?
I mean, I suppose - but then it'd be like a chicken-or-the-egg problem
because I'm trying to prove that a general linear transformation is convex. LOL
 
7:15 AM
@OneRaynyDay Multiplication by $a^T$ is, and when you take $\nabla f$, what do you end up with?
OH
Well then just go back to the definition of convexity.
 
There's multiple definitions though. Like Jensen's inequality, first order positive definiteness, second order 0 matrix, the classic $\theta x + (1-\theta)y \in$ convex set
 
$f(ta + (1-t)b) < tf(a) + (1-t)f(b)$
 
Just not sure what you mean by smoothness - you mean continuity?
 
Continuity and differentiability.
 
righty. Gotcha :)
 
7:18 AM
For example, $f(x) = -|x|$
It has $\nabla^2f = 0$ everywhere it's defined.
But at $x = 0$, it's not defined.
And $f(x) = -|x|$ isn't convex.
Double check me on that, I'm partially retarded tonight.
 
Yeah - you're right
-|x| isn't convex.
 
If your function is nice enough, that is $C^1$ you can see that convexity is equivalent to the graph of the function being above the tangent plane to the graph at every point
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Could you explain that?
I've never heard that before
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Sorry - Not that far into the course yet - could you explain what $C^1$ is?
Oops I got ninja'd
 
7:30 AM
Isn't that just the first order taylor approximation at point x
 
$C^1$ means differentiable with a continuous derivative, but just differentiable should be enough here
 
Ah gotcha. That makes sense. Thank you
 
@OneRaynyDay The tangent plane where defined is the best linear approximation at a point. For convex functions you have a $\ge$ in there though
 
Righty. Thank you :)
I have some basic mathematical knowledge, and am trying to go through a crash course through convex optimization
Since it's a pre-requisite to a machine learning class I'm taking right now.
 
The point was that the tangent plane to the graph of a linear function is particularly nice
 
7:39 AM
yes, because it's convex by satisfying the = in $\geq$
 
Now trival answers are automatically converted to comments :(
 
Yep. You could have also seen that directly from the usual definition of convex, that is $f(tx+(1-t)y)\le tf(x)+(1-t)f(y))
 
Yep - worked it out :)
 
Since $f$ is linear $f(tx+(1-t)y)=f(tx)+f((1-t)y)$ and you take out the constants
 
learning about convex functions made me realize how restricted this class of functions actually are
yupyup
 
 
1 hour later…
9:10 AM
I was just told that there is a letter for me from MathReviews (sent to my university address, so they will forward it to me). I wonder what that could be.
 
@TobiasKildetoft this: mathreviews.ca?
 
@s.harp I assume the ones behind MathSciNet
 
Looking at the website: When they say they store reviews, do they mean the reviews by referees for papers in consideration for publication?
 
@s.harp You mean on MathSciNet?
 
yes
I cant look at anything on the site because I don't have an id D:
 
9:18 AM
Each paper there is accompanied by a review of it written specifically for the site by an expert in the field. This is non-anonymous and is more of an overview than a critical review (most of the time)
Ahh yeah, it requires a subscription
 
So the papers are then also restricted to "classic" or impactful papers from some years ago?
 
all papers are indexed as long as they are published in reputable journals
though the indexing can take a bit of time, and the review usually only appears after some further time (since they need to find someone to do it and that person has to actually do it)
 
@TobiasKildetoft but there are lots of papers being published in reputable journals, surely they do not find a reviewer for every paper?
 
They really do
 
Aka peer review
 
9:22 AM
@Pissedofflayman No, this is not the same as peer review
 
But then they do not just take every paper from a certain journal?
 
@s.harp All papers from all journals that they have deemed good enough (which basically means that the journal should do proper peer review and publish only math)
 
Not even sort of @TobiasKildetoft?
:P
 
journals that do peer review and publish both math and non-math are usually partially indexed (so they index the math papers)
@Pissedofflayman It is similar, but this happens after publication and will usually not include any suggestions for corrections (as those would be pointless)
 
9:24 AM
@TobiasKildetoft so either I am severely underestimating the amount of math papers published or this is an absolutely gigantic thing :D
 
@s.harp It is huge
 
morning everyone
 
But then, there are also a lot of mathematicians, and unlike peer review, they do get paid for this (though the amount is like a few bucks to be used at the AMS bookstore)
 
@TobiasKildetoft how does one get a subscription? Do the libraries of universties usually have one?
 
9:26 AM
@s.harp Yeah, basically all universities have one and going online through the university net will usually suffice to get access
 
I'm in the network of a bakery next to the math department, so I'm not in the uni net. That might be why I can't access :)
 
Using eduroam might also be enough (at least it is for me), and then one can pair the computer with the access so you keep access on that computer for 90 days, even without having to use the university net
I mainly use it to find the correct reference for papers (it can give you the BiBTeX code)
though it also has a nice search feature, as it can search the review text which is often more detailed than the abstract
(and of course, it can calculate collaboration distance which is invaluable for finding Erdos numbers)
 
@TobiasKildetoft when do you get to see the letter?
 
@Pissedofflayman Probably in a few days, depending on the postal service
 
@Semiclassical I'd watch this.
 
9:55 AM
Claim: $0\mathbb{Z}=\{0\}$
 
@Secret Yes, clearly
 
0 is the identity element for addition.
 
We known in groups we can quotient any group by the trivial group $\{1\}$ to get the group itself, and that quotients also exist in the context of rings. However there's something not very clear here will I get different result if given a ring $R$, I quotient it by $\{1\}$ and $\{0\}$ given that they are regarded as identities for the multiplication and addition structure respectively?
 
@Secret For rings you need to quotient by an ideal and $\{1\}$ is not an ideal
 
Ah I see
 
10:43 AM
If $1 \in I$ for some ideal $I$, then $I = R$.
 
 
1 hour later…
12:04 PM
It's just a thursday and everywhere is quiet like space
 
Lectures are starting again in the US I think
 
Exams are starting at my uni tomorrow
 
12:22 PM
Here too, but I think they are before the winter holidays in the US
 
12:45 PM
Hi. Trying to remember the name of something in graph theory, could someone please lend a helping hand? :-)

I'm looking a measure of how many vertices can be reached from any vertex in a graph. I.e. something similar to the degree of a vertex, but applied to the entire graph, following edges to calculate the total number of other vertices reachable from any given vertex.
I'm trying to measure the changes in connectedness of a graph after running a community finding algorithm on it
 
@SteveDL is the graph directed?
 
@TobiasKildetoft nope.
 
then this is the size of the connected components
 
I could write the algorithm, I just know there's already a name for it which I forgot
@TobiasKildetoft oh, good call.
Thanks!
ah, turns out this property is called reachability.
 
 
1 hour later…
1:55 PM
I'm sick
Time to do math :)
Fak I cought on my paper
I'm rooted into my bed
 
Someone voting down my all network post in alternate days. Here is one the post, should deassociate from this? This was first post on SE network:

http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1364274/let-g-be-finite-group-if-a-b-le-g-with-orders-4-5-respectively-then-a
 
Oh no
@PearlSek Feel better
 
@MithleshUpadhyay If you feel one and the same person is voting down all your posts, notify a moderator (this usually should get caught by the system, though).
 
I didn't realize you could still vote on a closed question
 
Last time $i \, 2^3 \, \sigma \, \pi$, maybe I was food poisoned
 
2:06 PM
\Sigma not \sigma
 
$2b\lor\lnot2b$
 
Hmmm... I actually wonder now
$\varsigma$
Oooh, that does work.
$\varkappa$ $\vartheta$ $\varrho$
Damn, I only knew about varepsilon and varphi for so long >.<
 
\varpi $\varpi$
 
Ugh, I hate correcting exercises the day before the exam
Giving the number of bijections between $X = \{a,b,c\}$ and $Y = \{1,2\}$ should not be difficult.
 
I suspect I'm misunderstanding. How could you have a bijection between two finite sets of different cardinality?
 
2:21 PM
You're not misunderstanding.
 
The answer is just 0...
 
Yeah, if people aren't getting that it's a bit disappointing.
Counting how many bijections there are between -subsets- of X, Y would require a bit of thought, but between X and Y themselves?
 
Turning most of my proofs into those handy category theoric looking diagrams do help to illuminate that they are not perfect and I miss some rather subtle cases. They are now under investigation
 
Bob
I have the following post on Stack Exchange Computer Science. I am thinking that I should have posted it to Mathematics instead. Please comment. cs.stackexchange.com/questions/68581/…
 
2:25 PM
Hmm. Is there a name for that, actually: Given two finite sets, how many bijections are there between their subsets?
 
Bob
1
Q: Generating Pairs of Random Numbers

BobPlease consider the following probability density function of two variables. \begin{eqnarray*} f(x_1,x_2) &=& \begin{cases} 2(x_1+x_2) & \text{for} \,\, 0 <= x_1 <= x_2 <= 1\\ 0 &\text{ otherwise } \\ \end{cases} \end{eqnarray*} I would like to generate two random values $X_1$ and $X_...

 
Hmm... I don't know if there is.
 
Hi
:)
anyone here?
 
Writing down that as a sum seems pretty straightforward: For any $k>0$, we pick $k$-element subsets of $X$ and $Y$. This can be done in $\binom{|X|}{k}$ ways for $X$ and $\binom{|Y|}{k}$ ways for $Y$. There are then k! (?) bijections between these two subsets.
So should be $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \binom{|X|}{k}\binom{|Y|}{k} k!=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{|X|!|Y|!}{k!(|X|-k)!(|Y|-k)!}$$ @SteamyRoot
@a-kile If you've got a question, ask it; if anyone is interested, they'll respond.
 
@Semi
@Semiclassical nope
 
2:33 PM
okay.
 
I'm pretty new around here, so just checking out
 
Ah, fair enough.
There's a lot of people who wander in here with questions and, as the room description states, "ask if they can ask a question." That tends to be a waste of time.
 
So it's the exponential generating function of $\frac{a!b!}{(a-k)!(b-k)!}$?
 
@SteamyRoot , thanks for suggestion. I report this to SO Team.
 
(Cont'd) Don't know if that helps any.
 
2:35 PM
@akiva Yeah, that works. I don't know if it helps either though.
 
a linear equationsystem over $\mathbb{F}_3$ with 3 equations and 3 variables can have at most 27 solutions. This would be the case if all equations are 0=0, and therefore the variables can be chosen in 27 ways ($3^3$). But how do I show that this is the maximum number?
 
What's the formula for the product of two exponential generating functions, again?
 
Can't remember myself.
 
Oh, never mind
 
so
cool idk what i should talk here xd
 
2:43 PM
@SteamyRoot It doesn't seem to be tabulated over at OEIS that I can tell.
 
Hi my name is Antonio and I'm a procrastinator
 
Hi Antonio.
 
I recall someone once saying this chat was "procrastinators unanonymous"
 
Oh, I should mention: I may be running back into Riemann-Hilbert stuff again.
 
@AntonioVargas you are not alone friend
 
2:50 PM
@Semiclassical Ooo neat
 
More precisely, I'm running into stuff where the only analytical proofs seem to be either based on symmetry (for small matrix cases) or really painful asymptotics if you try to do it in a way that doesn't rely on that.
 
Painful asymptotics is my jam.
 
I figured. Let me sketch the simplest case; it's a building block for others.
Consider the first-order ODE system $$i\frac{d}{dt}\begin{pmatrix} \psi_1 \\ \psi_2 \end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} -\alpha t & 1\\ 1 & \alpha t \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} \psi_1 \\ \psi_2 \end{pmatrix}$$
More compactly, $i \frac{d}{dt}\Psi = (\sigma_1 -\alpha t\,\sigma_3)\Psi$ (names of the matrices $\sigma_1,\sigma_3$ are conventional.)
 
ah yeah Pauli matrices
 
2:57 PM
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2094785/… I'm missing something obvious, why does symmetry make it trivial?
 
If I act twice with $i\frac{d}{dt}$ and use that equation to simplify, I get $$-\ddot{\Psi}=-i\alpha \sigma_3 \Psi+(\sigma_1-\alpha t\sigma_3)^2\Psi = (1+\alpha^2 t^2)\Psi-i\alpha \sigma_3\Psi$$
This decouples the system, yielding the second-order ODE $-\ddot{\psi_1}=(1-i \alpha+\alpha^2 t^2)\psi_1$.
 
I follow so far
 

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