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12:15 AM
Hey guys! I was just wondering whether an answer I came up with was correct for the given problem(linear algebra):
Find all 2x2 matrix such that E_7 = R^2.
I thought since the matrix could be composed of any coefficients [[a,b],[c,d]] such that ax+by = 7x and cx + dy = 7y.
 
@OneRaynyDay what do you mean by E_7?
 
@arctictern The eigenspace where the eigenvalue is 7.
 
so matrices A for which det(A-7I)=0?
 
Yep! But specifically that the span of the matrix is all reals in 2d.
 
ah, E_7= all of R^2
 
12:20 AM
I know how to do it if the span is a specific vector, but my intuition fails for all reals in 2D
 
hint: if e1 and e2 are the two basis coordinate vectors, then Ae1 and Ae2 are the columns of A
actually you don't need a basis
if v is in R^2, then Av=7v, so A acts as multiplication-by-7...
 
Oh - I see. If e1 and e2 compose the two basis vectors then it spans all reals in 2D right?
Right - So I gave the answer [[7,0],[0,7]], effectively 7I.
But there's no answer for this(even questions darn you), and I don't know if its a unique solution :o
 
you know the first column of the matrix. you know the second column of the matrix. so you know the whole matrix.
alternatively, distinct matrices correspond to distinct linear transformations and vice-versa. since Av=7v for all v, A must be 7I.
 
Ah, I see what you mean. So the "for all matrices that..." was just a mind-trick
Since the distinct matrices thing is true/obvious but I wasn't able to pick up on that
 
I don't see the phrase "for all matrices" anywhere. I see you typed "find all 2x2 matrix" ...
 
12:26 AM
@arctictern Right - I mean for 2x2's.
 
I bet there's a bunch.
At least one.
 
hiii
 
@Axoren a bunch? After arctic convinced me, I'm pretty sure there's only one :)
 
1:05 AM
anyone here
 
1:16 AM
hi there,

if f:R→R and $f(x)=x^{2}$ is it injective? i think it is not since $f(−1)^{2}$=1 and $f(1)^{2}$=1
 
you mean since f(-1)=1 and f(1)=1
 
yeap
f(-1)^2=1 and f(1)^2=1
 
Hey arctic! I'm trying to get the MathJax thing to work, but for some reason when I click on rendering on it doesn't seem to change anything.
Ironically I should know this since the professor who made this is from the same uni I'm in LOL
 
1:33 AM
@Surdz no, f(-1)=1 and f(1)=1.
@OneRaynyDay you made the mathjax code a thing in your bookmarks bar right? and you click it while you're on this tab?
 
Yup - I clicked on it and there's literally no difference. Should I refresh or something?
 
@OneRaynyDay did you not try that already?
 
@arctictern Tried - and no difference.
 
does it work on the mathjax page where you got the bookmark thing?
 
yup - when I clicked it the mathjax page works.
Maybe it doesn't like opera?
 
1:37 AM
it's possible. I don't know if we've experimented much with opera.
 
I see. By the way - does RobJohn frequent this chat?
 
depending on what you consider frequent.
you can always ping him and he'll get back to you. better than silently waiting to talk to him live.
 
Perhaps once per week? I've never seen him on campus actually. Didn't even know there was a math professor called Rob John.
@robjohn Hello there! Are you still teaching at UCLA?
And ah, @arctictern it works with chrome :)
 
2:05 AM
@OneRaynyDay That's right, there's at least one. There's also at most one. It was a joke about your question stating "all".
 
 
2 hours later…
3:39 AM
@Axoren Gotcha :)
 
 
4 hours later…
7:38 AM
/
 
8:18 AM
Do you think my solution is right? I'm getting different results on online calculators.
 
Fortunately, checking is just a matter of differentiating the result.
 
ADG
Hello people, I have no idea about legendre transform but was reading some paper, can you procide some sources to read it.
I only found it in context of thermodynamics and classical mechanics
 
@ADG didn't the paper provide any?
 
ADG
@TobiasKildetoft they kind of skipped it, if you widh i can tell which line of some paper
i prefer purely mathematical context first
 
@ADG I don't know anything about it myself
 
ADG
8:24 AM
hmm, no problem
 
@TobiasKildetoft where do think my problem is?
 
@HananN. No idea. What did the calculator tell you the answer should be?
 
ADG
@HananN. I see a simple integration picture you have attached, what du u wish to know
 
And what do you get when you differentiate your answer?
 
differentiate the answer i get $ -sin(x)/2cos(x)^2 $
 
ADG
8:27 AM
you have put the substitution wrongly
 
@HananN. Ahh, you have changed a $1-\cdots$ to a $1 * \cdots$
 
ADG
try differentiationg 0.5tanx-secx
 
so it should be $1+...$ ?
 
Hey guys when my lecturer asks us to write about "how Real Analysis/Number theory has influence your thinking about infinity," what do you think he is really looking for? It's the first analysis subject we've ever done
 
8:42 AM
@DamonWilliams Why not ask him? He is the one who set the task
(sounds like a rather weird question to ask though)
 
It's a homework question so he wouldn't tell us. But I have no idea what to write to be honest.
 
@DamonWilliams What do you mean he wouldn't tell you? He has set a vague assignment so he needs to clarify it.
 
All he said is: "It's meant to be a reflective piece. Write how it's changed your perspective about infinity."
 
What sort of course was this?
 
8:58 AM
It's called Real Analysis (also known as Number theory).
 
Those are two completely different topics that do not overlap until a quite advanced level. What sort of place are you studying?
 
I'm a 2nd year university student, studying at the university of Melbourne
Very basic level. Most of the subject was an introduction to analysis
 
Right, so how is that number theory?
 
My bad, I thought they were the same thing. Other universities teach number theory rather than real analysis in 2nd year
 
@DamonWilliams Most universities teach more than one thing per year
 
9:02 AM
Yea I've always thought they were the same. Thanks for clearing that up.
 
I am not sure how you could get that impression. Does this mean you have not had any number theory at all? Like, not even some basic stuff like unique factorization of integers and stuff like that?
Anyway, I have no idea what your lecturer expects you to write. It seems like a weird assignment to me (I mean, what if it has not changed your view at all, should you just write that?)
 
To be completely honest, it really hasn't. And to answer your first question, I don't know what number theory refers to in general
Gotta BS my way through it I guess
 
In math, it is the general study of integers and certain generalizations (such as number fields)
 
9:45 AM
@HananN. I believe that the second step is wrong, namely you converted $1-2\sin(x)\ \mathrm dx$ to $1\cdot\mathrm du$
(where $u=2\cos(x)$)
 
10:00 AM
Here:
$\displaystyle\quad\int\frac{0.5-\sin(x)}{\cos^2(x)}\mathrm dx$
$\displaystyle=\int\left[0.5\sec^2(x)-\tan(x)\sec(x)\right]\ \mathrm dx$
$\displaystyle=0.5\tan(x)-\sec(x)+C$
 
excellent.
Thanks.
 
anytime
 
11:04 AM
I think most would agree that 2*pii=ln(1). Because e^(2*pii) = 1, however ln(1) equals zero doesn't it?
 
@P.Andrews Yes to the last, no to the first
exp is not injective as a complex function
 
So is this true for i*pi=log(-1) as well? Anywhere I could read up on this?
 
complex logarithm is multi-valued
in particular, $\ln(re^{i\theta})=\ln(r)+i(\theta+2n\pi)$
 
@LeakyNun or alternatively you need to pick a cut to define it
 
where $r,\theta\in\mathbb R$
and $n\in\mathbb Z$
 
11:14 AM
Thanks
 
11:30 AM
Is there a better way to end the "Why was 6 afraid of 7?" joke?
 
Because 7 always one-upped 6?
I dunno.
 
Why are these numbers so close to each other?

$$\log (6)=\lim_{s\to 1} \, \left(1-\frac{1}{6^{s-1}}\right) \zeta (s)$$
$$\Im(\rho _1) \approx \pi \Re\left(\left(1-\frac{1}{6^{\frac{1}{\rho _2}-1}}\right) \zeta \left(\frac{1}{\rho _2}\right)\right)+2 \pi$$
$$14.1347251417... \approx 14.1347256418...$$
 
Google tells me a common way to end it is "Because 7 was a registered 6 offender"...
 
12:04 PM
@MatsGranvik Coincidence?
 
@LeakyNun maybe
 
Hey is it possible to write a surreal number as $\{ \mathrm{No} \vert \}$
A number bigger than every surreal number
Since it is a proper class I'm not sure exactly
 
@Slereah Where would that number "live"?
 
That I do not know
But I know that in proper classes you do get odd results like $V = \mathcal P (V)$
(for the universal class)
So I thought I would check
 
@Slereah How do you even define the powerset (powerclass?) of a proper class? That does not seem like it should be a proper class
 
@Slereah that is pretty much gibberish
So powerclass does not really behave like powerset, since for example the class itself is not an element. So I don't see how this is so strange.
 
Alright
 
So that would be like defining powerset to only consist of the finite subsets of the set.
 
Do you also happen to know if there's some link between Colombeau's generalized numbers and hyperreals, by the way
I've been wondering
 
Anyway, I have never really thought much about the properties of the surreals related to them being a proper class (instead, I ignore all of that)
no idea about what those are
 
12:18 PM
Oh well
Thanks
 
@SteamyRoot That's a good one.
 
My lecturer claims probability and stochastic processes is common sense. Thoughts?
 
12:44 PM
That's some horse duke. Unfortunately, humans react to vivid stimuli more than others. We're more likely to fear scary dangers than common dangers (plane crash vs. car crash). We more easily fall into the gambler's ruin, chasing the big payout of a gamble than identifying the constant risk associated with attempting it.
 
how to prove that $\frac12$ is not an integer?
(Sorry if it is too trivial)
I don't have enough sleep
 
I wonder if your lecturer ever had to explain Monty Hall to a person with little to no mathematical knowledge.
 
@LeakyNun Can it be written as a sum of ones?
 
Prove that it cannot?
@JesterTran Then what is he doing there? Improving our common sense?
 
That's fairly easy, I feel. if you start from $0$ and add $1$, you've already passed $\frac 1 2$. Any further addition of $1$s will get you further away.
Therefore, it's not a positive integer.
 
Huy
12:48 PM
ok maybe I've gone completely crazy but proving $A \implies B$ is equivalent to proving $\neg B \implies \neg A$, right?
 
@Huy Yes
 
@Huy One of those mornings?
 
In propositional logic, modus tollens (or modus tollendo tollens and also denying the consequent) (Latin for "the way that denies by denying") is a valid argument form and a rule of inference. It is an application of the general truth that if a statement is true, then so is its contra-positive. The first to explicitly describe the argument form modus tollens were the Stoics. The inference rule modus tollens validates the inference from implies and the contradictory of to the contradictory of . The modus tollens rule can be stated formally as: where stands for the statement "P implies Q". ...
 
Is that logic only mathematical. Or does it apply to pretty much everything in life?
 
@Axoren can it be more formal?
 
12:49 PM
lol
 
@LeakyNun He's implying the course should not be hard in hopes of removing any rumours or fears about the difficulty of the course
 
Huy
it's just so weird, I'm reading lecture notes and one lemma contains an if and only if statement, and they first prove $A \implies B$ and then they prove $\neg B \implies \neg A$
that makes zero sense
 
@Huy (out of curiosity) what is that lemma?
 
@Huy but then they have shown the same thing twice
 
Huy
Lemma 3.12, statement (4), page 33 & 34 in this pdf
@TobiasKildetoft: exactly
 
12:50 PM
@Huy $A \to B$ can be rewritten as $\neg A \lor B$
Then, use commutativity.
$B \lor \neg A$
Do you see what to do next?
 
@Axoren your hints don't really go anywhere as it really is an error.
 
Huy
@Axoren: I just can't believe the authors of those notes have proven the same thing twice and forgotten the backward direction
 
Oh, they stated it backwards?
I was still reading the document.
Oh, the document is unrelated.
 
$\not\exists n\in\mathbb Z:2n=1$
 
@LeakyNun While that is a statement, I think for a proof you need to show that no such $n$ exists.
 
12:54 PM
Yep, and that is what I am asking for
I hope it isn't too trivial
 
Consider a property of multiplication by $2$: the result is always even on the integers.
 
even => divisible by 2
 
$1$ is not even, therefore, the factor is not an integer.
 
1 is not divisible by 2, therefore 1 is not divisible by 2
 
We're not working with the quantity $\frac 1 2$?
 
12:56 PM
I actually think the most clear proof is by induction
 
I guess you're working with the division of 1 by 2.
 
Basically, you're saying that since 1 is not divisible by 2, so 1/2 is not an integer?
@TobiasKildetoft but... we're dealing with $\mathbb Z$ not $\mathbb N$...
 
@LeakyNun but clearly if it is an integer then it is positive
 
@DamonWilliams Yeah, can applied to life
 
@TobiasKildetoft well, ok...
 
12:57 PM
You are working with 0.5, which we know is greater than 0 in other fields.
Or at least I hope so.
It's one of those mornings.
 
well, so it is between 0 and 1
then... what's the next step?
because $\frac12>\frac02=0$ and $\frac12<\frac22=1$
or do I need to prove that as well?
 
In some sense there is no way to do this without specifying what you actually mean by the integers
 
@TobiasKildetoft By induction, would you show that $2n \neq 1$, then $2(n+1) \neq 1$?
And then pick a base case?
 
@Axoren Right, though probably it is even easier to observe that the only solution to $x+y = 1$ in the natural numbers is with either $x$ or $y$ equal to $1$
 
@TobiasKildetoft You know, $0\in\mathbb Z\land n\in\mathbb Z\iff S(n)\in\mathbb Z$
 
1:01 PM
but all these things come back to what the integers are
 
(I don't know if this is the formal definition)
 
The successor is the best way to talk about naturals.
However, integers have a negative side.
 
What's the formal definition of that?
 
Depends.
Many places, I've seen integers defined as a 2-tuple of naturals.
 
I see
 
1:03 PM
It's not explicitly helpful to get that deep into the construction, I feel.
What are you trying to prove this for?
 
for fun
 
That's a shame, it won't be.
 
well...
 
Many of the proofs of $2+2$ are ridiculous, but at least those operate strictly in the naturals.
 
Then let's only deal with the naturals?
Well, $2+2=2+S(1)=S(2+1)=S(S(2))=S(3)=4$
 
1:05 PM
Super easy: use the successor function and induction.
 
how would I use the inductive step?
 
5 mins ago, by Axoren
@TobiasKildetoft By induction, would you show that $2n \neq 1$, then $2(n+1) \neq 1$?
Algebra on integers is well-defined.
 
Yes, and how do I prove that?
 
Start with two base cases: $n = 0, 1$
$2(0) = 0$, $2(1) = 2$
For all $1 \le k < n$, $2k > 1$,
This is slightly easier.
 
well, okay...
 
1:09 PM
If $2n > 1$, $2n +2 > 1$
As a result, the natural $n + 1$ is not half of 1.
By induction, no naturals are half of 1.
I made a bad change of variables I shouldn't have done.
Long story short, induction. (Which I guess is exactly what induction is.)
 
ok, thanks
 
1/2 an integer means 2n = 1, which is 2n = s(1) *n = n * 1 + n = n+n, we have $n \geq 0$ and $n+n \geq n$ or $1 \geq n$
So either $n$ is 0 or 1 but that's pretty easy to prove false
Guess I didn't need to decompose the product tho
Oh well
 
this room is the only one where moderators are never absent
 
Math never rests
 
1:25 PM
atleast one of them i mean *
 
The moderators are a sleep, post contradictions.
 
Huy
maybe you're a sleep
 
I can't deny that.
 
$A \neq A$
$p \wedge \neg p$
$\neg (p \lor \neg p)$
 
and this is the only room where moderators are more rushed to help
 
1:28 PM
$\perp \not \vdash \psi$
 
$\exists A. A = \{ x \vert x \notin x\}$
 
$\forall (x, A), x \not \in A$
 
Well, that's not a contradiction if you consider the empty universe :p
Or a universe with just one set
 
All opposites have something in common. Black and white are both colors. True and False are both values. 1 and 0 are both numbers. 0 and Infinity are numbers.
 
@Axoren what does this mean?
@MatsGranvik "0 and Infinity are numbers"???
 
1:33 PM
Depends how you define number, I guess
 
@JesterTran ok that last one was a bit of a stretch. But they are something, everything is something.
 
Is nothing something
 
@Slereah lol
 
@Slereah Outside the set of everything is nothing. So in a Venn diagram everything is nothing.
 
I don't think I am high enough to carry on this topic
 
1:40 PM
give me contact eye
 
By the way, anyone got an idea on this
2
Q: Coordinates of a plane with a handle

SlereahI am trying to find the appropriate coordinates for a plane with a handle (of topology $\mathbb{R}^2 \# \mathbb{T}^2$), without having to use several coordinate patches. My current intuition is to use two cyclical coordinates, $\theta$ corresponding to some angle around the half torus embedded ...

Never got any answer, not quite sure if it's been done before
 
math.stackexchange.com/questions/1800524/… Anyone here know how to do part (d)? I've confirmed that (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Graham did help. But I still can't figure out the MGF function using the definition
 
Uhhh degenerative function
Sorry though, I've forgotten all about this stuff
 
1:58 PM
I don't think it's that hard. But I can solve it and don't know why.
 
@MikeMiller I see. Thanks anyway. Do you have a grasp of the correspondence between Lie-algebra-valued forms on principal bundles ("connection forms, Ehresmann connections") and Lie-algebra-valued forms on the base manifold ("gauge potentials")? After all, that's what Nakahara is trying to explain.
 
I keep getting undefined or infinity for the limiting mgf
 
An Ehresmann connection $\omega$ on a principal bundle $P$ can always be pulled back to the base manifold $M$ via a section $\sigma:M\to P$. The pullback $\mathcal A=\sigma^*\omega$ is then a gauge potential, i.e. a Lie-algebra-valued form on the base manifold (or on an open subset $M$).
Via theorem 10.1 in Nakahara's book, this correspondence can be bijective, i.e. one can construct an Ehresmann connection from the gauge potential.
 
It's the other way around that's easy. Principal bundles do not usually have sections.
The construction you do in both directions can be carried out pointwise. It's not much more than linear algebra. Another place this is explained is Kobayashi-Nomizu's first book.
 
2:14 PM
Nakahara does the "lifting construction" basically by pulling back the gauge potential via the projection $\pi:P\to M$, so he defines $\omega:=\pi^*\mathcal A$.
Do you know an exact construction in this direction?
Constructing an Ehresmann connection from a gauge potential?
 
Didn't you just do it?
 
Well, Nakahara's definition has more elements in it. Basically it's the pullback of the projection, yes, but there's some sort of adjoint action $g^{-1}\pi^*\mathcal A g$, plus there's the addition of a term $g^{-1}\mathrm{d}_P g$ where $\mathrm_P$ is the exterior derivative on $P$ and $g$ is the canonical local trivialization.
 
Well, it seems like with your extra data you constructed a lift up above.
 
I'd like to understand why these things are necessary, and how it's possible to "add the exterior derivative" to a Lie-algebra-valued form. After all, the exterior derivative is a differential operator. Adding it to a Lie-algebra-valued form seems to me like adding apples to oranges.
 
Fair enough.
The reason you need to add such a thing is that there's a list of axioms the form on the total space of the bundle must satisfy. One is that, on each fiber, it's the tautological form of the Lie group. Your pullback is not that tautological form.
 
2:33 PM
I see. Gonna check that. And the addition thing? How can $g^{-1}\mathrm{d}_P g$ be added to a Lie-algebra-valued one-form?
 
You're not adding $d_P$. You're adding the exterior derivative of the multiplication-by-g map.
 
@JesterTran It means that given a contradiction, you can't conclude anything. Paired with the principle of explosion, it itself is a contradiction. Further, by the principle of explosion, if you accept $\perp \not \vdash \psi$ as an axiom, you can conclude anything.
It's read as "$\text{contradiction } \not \to \text{ any logical statement}$"
 
@TheGreatDuck: I had a flash of insight last night and I have discovered something you might be interested in.
Briefly, it is a very strong connection between the implied integral and the ordinary integral.
Ping me and we can talk :)
[I'm going to try to write an answer to your question, but it might be a while; there are quite a few details.]
 
2:51 PM
@MikeMiller Getting closer. Why can the multiplication-by-g map be considered a differential form?
 
It's not.
 
How can the exterior derivative (which usually acts on differential forms) act on the multiplication-by-g map?
 
3:34 PM
Hello!!

Suppose that we have a matrix with characteristic polynomial $(x+2)^2(x-5)^3$.
How can we find the elementary divisors?
Are the elementary divisors all the elements of the form $(x+2)^i(x-5)^3$, with $1\leq i \leq 2, 1\leq j\leq 3$ ?
 
I don't think there's enough information to answer that, Mary.
See this question, for instance.
 
4:10 PM
does it take $n = m$ exponents for $a^{n} \equiv 0 ~(\mod m)$ if $(a,m) = 1$?
if $a^n = a + a + a...$ n times of course.
ah nvm yes that's true
Is this a true statement: Only permutations of $S_n$ of order $n$ are of length $n$?
 
4:44 PM
hi
 
hello
 
@Obliv what do you mean with "a permutation of length $n$"?
 
cycle length
 
A single cycle of length $n$, or would $(1 2)(3 4 5)$ also be length $5$?
 
a single cycle, sorry.
if it were not true, there would be disjoint cycles with $lcm = n$ which I don't think is possible.. not sure
 
4:55 PM
Well, in $S_6$, $(1 2)(3 4 5)$ and $(1 2 3 4 5 6)$ both have order $6$?
 
damn it
well that throws my proof out the window haha
 
5:36 PM
hi, can I show you my forum question on this chat?
 
Oh jeez, someone starred my horse duke message.
I'm glad I used less colorful language than I could have.
 
my question is about representation of lie algebras, I am not able to find a basis of weight vectors for a linear lie algebra, here it ishttp://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1800883/how-to-find-a-basis-of-weight-‌​vectors
0
Q: How to find a basis of weight vectors

MaryI have to following Lie Algebra $L=\{x\in End(\mathbb{C}^6)\colon x^tS+Sx=0\}$, where $S=[\begin{smallmatrix} 0&I_3 \\ I_3&0 \end{smallmatrix}]$, and the subalgebra $H$ given by the diagonal elements in $L$. I have found a basis of $L$ and $H$, which are, respectively: $B_L=\{e_{ij}-e_{i+3j+3},...

 
6:13 PM
I asked this before at some point, but is there any notion for a graph whose vertex set is continuous?
 
@Axoren what does it mean for a set to be continuous?
 
My mistake. Dense in the reals*
 
If I have the parametric equation $$x(t) = r\cos_e(t),\ y(t) = \sin_e (t)$$
 
And the edges to be continuous functions from $[0, 1] \to V$
I dozed away while reasking the question.
 
Such that $\cos_e(t)$ is a function such that over the range of $e$, it spans every possible conic section
Is $\cos_e$ continuous at $e=1$?
I don't think you can continuously deform an ellipse into a parabola, no?
 
6:24 PM
A parabola can be considered the limit of an ellipsoid as its major radius tends towards infinity.
 
Would that function be continuous, though
 
At some point, I suspect it would break.
 
I don't think so since I think it would be like... $\cos t \rightarrow t^2$?
 
Given that $\infty$ isn't in the domain of that function.
 
Unfortunate
Welp, I think my attempts to make a coordinate system for a plane with a handle have been met with too many obstacles
Probably time to drop that one
 
6:28 PM
Is the handle hollow?
 
It's the manifold $\Bbb R^2 \# T^2$
 
Are there any nice layman term summaries of the isomorphism theorems' statements?
 
Anyone familiar with Linear Algebra
 
@Kari I don't see how that would make much sense. The theorems require you to know the terms involved which makes you not a layman
 
Rather, a simplified version, @TobiasKildetoft?
 
6:31 PM
@Kari simpler than what? And which particular isomorphism theorems?
 
The first, second and third ones.
 
@Kari the numbering is not universal (nor is the algebraic structure involved)
 
Just like how Burnside's lemma can be reduced to "The number of orbits is equal to the average number of points fixed by an element of G".
 
Personally, I like talking to gardeners and bakers about isomorphisms. They have such wonderful insights.
 
Ah, I didn't know it wasn't a universal numbering.
This page has the three I am referring to, @TobiasKildetoft.
 
6:32 PM
the first one is sometimes numbered 0 instead, and I have seen the other two switched up many places
 
@Axoren A simplistic wisdom
Much more practical than all the science of the scholars
 
@Kari Anyway, I am not sure if I can give you a simpler description. They all have fairly intuitive explanations
 
I guess I'll have to do with the gross coordinates that you get :p
Just stitching coordinate patches together
 
I'll try a different way of phrasing then! How can we think of the isomorphism $G/\ker(\varphi) \cong \text{image}(\varphi)$, @TobiasKildetoft? So far, I just see it as the cosets of the kernel being isomorphic to the image but that doesn't help me much.
 
@Kari Hmm, actually I don't think I have a very compelling intuition for that one (it just sort of "clicks" at some point). The other are easier in that sense
 
6:38 PM
Ah, I see. I'll try and study examples a bit more until I get it!
 
@Kari For the others, when you take $HK/K$ you would expect to get left with just $H$ (seeing the quotient as in some sense opposite to the multiplication). But you have to take into account that when you multiply there will be some overlap if the subgroups have nontrivial intersection, so you end up also killing off this overlap
 
Karl, the way I usually think about that one is that transporting the structure out of a group is rather difficult-- specifically, all possible ways of doing it are already somehow contained in the structure of the group itself.
 
I'm not sure what you mean by 'some sense opposite to the multiplication', @TobiasKildetoft.
 
@Kari Well, it is sort of a division (it is not really that, but it behaves a bit like it)
 
Well, $H\times K/(1\times K)=H$; it's sort of a one-way inverse, for instance.
 
6:42 PM
What do you mean by transport, @EricStucky?
Ah, I see @TobiasKildetoft.
 
Nothing rigorous, but that is what a morphism is for, yes?
You want to take the structure of the group and find it somewhere else.
 
I understand what you mean now, yes.
$(H \times K)/(1 \times K)$ is a bit confusing.
 
So that theorem is something like: you don't actually have to look anywhere else. If you can just understand the group well (e.g. you know quotients) then you know all the ways of seeing its structure in any context.
 
How does knowing the quotients to help us understand the group, @EricStucky?
I don't really see the power in quotient groups yet.
 
Ah, sorry, I meant the other way
Although, certainly understanding quotients does help us understand the group, in the sense that we then understand morphisms out of it :P
But
I mean, "knowing the group well" in that informal description is supposed to mean "knowing all of the group's quotients."
(afk)
 
6:49 PM
Probably one of the easiest way to see how useful the theorem can be is to use it to show that $GL_n(k)/SL_n(k)\cong k^{\times}$ for any field $k$.
Which might get somewhat annoying to do directly
 
Are the elementary divisors of the characteristic polynomial $(x+2)^2(x-5)^3$ the following?
- $(x+2)^2, (x-5)^3$
- $(x+2), (x-5)^3, (x+2)$
- $(x+2), (x-5)^2, (x+2), (x-5)$
- $(x+2), (x+2), (x-5), (x-5), (x-5)$
- $(x+2)^2, (x-5)^2, (x-5)$
- $(x+2)^2, (x-5), (x-5), (x-5)$
 
Mary, you still don't have enough information to answer that question.
 
Hi guys
 
eya
 
Yea, under the determinant operator, @TobiasKildetoft.
I've seen that example before.
 
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