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12:00 AM
but i dont see any difference between direnctional derivative and analytic
they seem to be the same thing
 
hmm
well is this theorem true for directional derivatives?
 
@Kasmir: That's the magic of the complex derivative. Having a complex derivative (which gives you the Cauchy-Riemann equations) makes the Cauchy Integral Formula work, and this gives you infinitely many derivatives and, in fact, a convergent Taylor series. Magic.
 
If a complex function is continuously differentiable, it's infinitely continuously differentiable
which is absolutely amazing
 
But the only way to prove that is with the Cauchy Integral Formula, @GFauxPas.
 
Is that so? I'll take your word for it
 
12:01 AM
LOL, that's generous of you :D
 
But I don't know if you need to know about residues to understand the inuition of the complex derivative
:)
 
Nothing to do with residues.
 
Oh I'm thinking of the residue theorem
 
hmm it is still not clear to me to be honest
 
There's some serious mathematics going on, @Kasmir. It is not intuitively obvious.
 
12:03 AM
what is non serious math then ?
 
bad math jokes
 
It's a matter of degrees
 
got any examples?
lol !
 
here's another way to think about complex differentiability
 
okay that helps :D i need to pay extra attention on class next 4 lectures.
 
12:03 AM
Things like the Division Algorithm for integers are completely intuitively obvious.
 
Non-serious math is what I do.
 
remember how some functions have power series, and if you're lucky the power series converge to the function exactly , and everywhere
 
leo
@TedShifrin There are other involved ways see
 
Even the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus is an important theorem, but it's completely "obvious" and believable to anyone who sees the picture.
 
I think you should try to work out why $\bar z$ is not complex differentiable (that is, not analytic), by using the definition to try to find the derivative at $0$ @KasmirKhaan
 
12:04 AM
thanks all ! :)
 
if a function is complex differentiable, it has a power series that converges everywhere that it's complex differentiable
 
@leo: That link is talking about something else.
 
You end up with $\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{\bar h-\bar 0}{h-0}=\lim\dfrac{\bar h}h$
If $h$ is real and approaching $0$ then it's $1$,
but if $h$ is imaginary and approaching $0$ then it's $-1$.
 
intressting
 
and you only have to find two paths that are different to ruin differentiability, because differentiability requires EVERY path to converge to the same limit
 
12:06 AM
Thus it's not differentiable at $0$, and a similar argument shows it's not differentiable anywhere
 
how can i save this conversation ?
 
memorize it, then burn your computer
 
I think it will make sense after i go to the class
 
leo
I mean, in his book he proves that if a complex function is continuously differentiable, it's infinitely continuously differentiable without Cauchy's formula
 
12:06 AM
@MikeMiller If I understand the terminology right, I'd say leftist governments always used such fear tactics, at least from what I heard of the world.
 
Another surprising thing about analytic functions
 
@leo: OK, I don't know the book and so I can't argue. What I said is philosophically quite correct, even if it's not literally correct.
 
@KasmirKhaan You could make a permalink of a particular comment
 
@Balarka You have no idea what you're talking about.
 
12:07 AM
okay thanks @AkivaWeinberger
 
I can discuss elliptic regularity without mentioning the Cauchy Integral Formula, too, @leo, but it is still a huge cannon to shoot a fly.
 
leo
@TedShifrin Indeed. I don't want to argue either. Just saying :-)
 
is that, under certain assumptions, the definition of the function on a simply connected domain UNIQUELY define the function even outside the domain it's defined on
so if two analytic functions agree on some shared simply connected domain, they have to agree everywhere else they're analytic, barring something going wrong
 
@KasmirKhaan Apparently, on the transcript (what I linked to) you can bookmark a conversation by clicking that button on the right
 
All right thanks guys ! :) i should keep working on more porblems
 
12:09 AM
@Ted I think about it in terms of elliptic regularity, but ultimately elliptic regularity is a general version of the Cauchy integral formula (an expression of the differential operator as convolution with some kernel)
 
I got that akiva :)
 
I know, @MikeM. Or you can do it with pseudodifferential operators :P
 
the book I use is by Brown and Churchill
it's dirt cheap on amazon
 
Yes, we know the story.
 
Complex Variables and Applications
 
12:11 AM
@GFauxPas: If two analytic functions have the same domain and agree on any set with a limit point, then they have to be the same everywhere.
 
Saff and Snider: Fundamentals of complex analysis, Prentice-Hall.
this is the book they asked us to get
is it any good?
 
@MikeMiller I know some isolated stories from pre-WWII communist republics; I'd say the politics in there were founded upon fear.
 
Fear is a tool of any authoritarian government, rightist or leftist.
 
It's fine, @Kasmir. These are all pretty much the same sort of undergraduate textbook with some applications. They're more involved than a calculus course, but not as sophisticated as a graduate level text.
 
@TedShifrin oh even if it's not simply connected? awesome
 
12:16 AM
Simple connectivity is important for things like defining logs, @GFauxPas ... back to your branch issues :P
 
oh bother
 
The politics professed by such a regime seem basically meaningless; what matters is power and control.
 
@Balarka You are completely misunderstanding what the term politics of fear in that article is, the use of the term "the left" as if it refers to a government in the US, the use of fear of other as political motivator vs fear of persecution by the state, conflating the USSR with "leftist government", ...
 
guys this isnt math
 
Any other observations?
 
12:19 AM
plenty
 
@MikeM Ah, ok, fair enough. (I disagree on the interpretation of what I said at the 2nd and the 4th point, however, but that's pointless anyway).
 
The set of possible political views forms an infinite-dimensional metric space
^ this is math
 
can you have an uncountably infinite dimensional space?
I guess that's what $\mathcal{C}^\infty$ is
 
Sure, set of functions from $[0,1]$ to $[0,1]$, supremum metric
Probably
 
direct product of R's.
or R over Q with Hamel basis.
 
12:31 AM
The Dehn invariant of the tetrahedron was ${\rm something}\otimes{\rm irrational~times~}\pi\in\Bbb R\otimes_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb R/\pi\Bbb Q$
Why are we sure this isn't $0$?
 
DogAteMy: That question is a little vague (and I don't know the topology in question). Are you worried about why $\frac1\pi\cdot\pi\otimes_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb R/\pi\Bbb Q$ is nonzero? That really doesn't even make sense. :)
 
abs (z-a) = r how to see that is a circle
z is complex ?
 
Think.
 
start with $\vert z \vert = r$
 
I have no idea what a Dehn invariant is.
 
12:41 AM
and think about how that's a circle
 
thinking give me one second
 
Specifically I'm not sure why $6(72)^{1/6}\otimes\arccos\frac13\ne0$
Like, how we know for sure
 
abs(z) = x^2+y^2
 
I know $\arccos\frac13$ isn't a rational multiple of $\pi$
 
In mathematics, Niven's theorem, named after Ivan Niven, states that the only rational values of θ in the interval 0 ≤ θ ≤ 90 for which the sine of θ degrees is also a rational number are: sin ⁡ 0 ∘ = 0 , sin ⁡ ...
 
12:42 AM
@BalarkaSen I know that
 
oops, ok
 
Balarka is supposed to be fast asleep.
 
But sometimes $a\otimes b=0$ even when $a,b\ne0$
 
Well, that's what I was about to talk about. You're thinking of this as an element of the tensor product of what two rings?
 
I think I need to find some $\Bbb Q$-linear function from $\Bbb R\otimes_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb R/\pi\Bbb Q$ to $\Bbb R$ that doesn't map it to $0$
 
12:43 AM
@KasmirKhaan yup
 
ahhhhhh the distance between z and a is r
makes it a circle :D
 
:)
 
thanks ! :)
 
Sure
 
which would first involve some linear function from $\Bbb R/\pi\Bbb Q$ that doesn't map it to $0$
 
12:44 AM
am supposed to show that the line integral dz/ (z-a)^k = 2pi*i
for k =1
 
So you can only end up with a $0$ answer if you have a rational multiple of $\pi$.
 
@AkivaWeinberger Well $\Bbb R$ is free as a $\Bbb Q$-module, yeah?
 
I don't remember what free means
 
no torsion
 
@TedShifrin That's what I'm trying to prove
 
12:45 AM
hi
 
hi @meow ...
 
I think I would be done if I had a linear function from $\Bbb R/\pi\Bbb Q$ to $\Bbb R$ that didn't map $x\notin\pi\Bbb Q$ to $0$
 
hey, @TedShifrin, what was that geometry problem you said i should do?
 
You have several, @meow. Why did you get parallel lines when you bisected sides? Why are you ending up with circles in those constant-angle constructions?
 
Don't I need Choice or something?
 
12:46 AM
Are there functions with primitives that aren't analytic?
 
You mean analytic functions, @GFauxPas?
Yes. $1/z$ ... depending on domain.
 
@GFauxPas 1/z?
 
I meant, are there function that are not analytic but have primitives
 
Oh
I think not, it should follow from how differentiable functions have all derivatives
so the second derivative of the primitive should exist
 
@GFauxPas: Huh? Then we're back to regular calculus?
Whoa, whoa. Slow down.
 
12:48 AM
I meant
Like, the thm that f has a primitive iff the integral along a closed contour is zero
 
I want a precise question.
What hypotheses on what?
 
Is there a function that had the property that it's integral on every closed contour is zero, buy isn't analytic?
 
Continuous function?
 
Yeah sure
 
I.e., no branch issues?
Then, no. This is called Morera's Theorem.
 
12:51 AM
Right
 
(Assuming you're still talking about complex functions on open subsets of the plane.)
 
@TedShifrin is complex projective space the same as the riemann sphere?
 
integral dz / (z-a)^k = 2pi*i for k=1 , 0 for other natural numbers
 
Cool, Googling moreras thm now, thanks Ted
 
should I parametrize my curcve?
abs (z-a) =r
 
12:52 AM
@meow: $\Bbb CP^1$.
 
oops
meant the complex projective line
 
Yes. You'll get to some of that if you keep reading the chapter :)
 
Then yeah, just like RP^1 is a circle
 
Circles centered at $0$ are trivial to parameterize if you know about the polar form of complex numbers
 
or a line with point at infinity ;)
@GFauxPas yes. $re^{i\theta}$
 
12:53 AM
@meow-mix I haven't seen that
 
guys please help , how to parametrize abs (z-a) = r ? is it x=a+cost , y=a+sint ?
 
The Riemann sphere is in that book, @GFauxPas. They might call it the extended complex plane.
 
@TedShifrin which chapter?
 
@Kasmir: if you're doing complex stuff, use $e^{it}$.
 
I didn't ask about the Riemann sphere
 
12:54 AM
also, after this you want me to read the next 2 chapters?
 
@TedShifrin but a could be any value , how would i parametrize that ?
 
$a$ is in there, too, Kasmir.
@meow: You've asked me that a bunch of times, and I've said yes, if you're interested.
 
Do a change of variables to put the circle centered st the origin; at least, that's what I do with conics
 
Sections, not chapters. But meanwhile there's lots of exercises in section 2.
 
e^it is unit circle now I have to figure out where that "a" should fit
 
12:56 AM
indeed.
 
Kasmir: Seriously. You need to think more and ask fewer questions.
You've done this a bunch of times already.
 
hey @arctictern are the only subgroups of order 8 in $S_4$ $D_8$ ?
 
sorry ! it is just stressfull how many things am supposed to know to the exam
sorry again all
 
Actually, the quaternion group doesn't embed as a subgroup of $S_4$, @Balarka, right?
 
yeah
it doesn't
 
12:57 AM
That's why I deleted it
 
So, Karim, the only nonabelian groups of order 8 are ... and the only abelian ones are ...
 
Kasmir, just like in regular calculus, substitutions of the form $u=ax +b$ are very easy to do
$du = a dx $
So make the circle at the origin
 
Karim: What are the Sylow 2-subgroups of $S_4$? you can see that geometrically.
 
$Q_8$ and $D_8$ why can't it be abelian though ?
why can't the subgroup of order 8 be abelian ?
 
Easy answer to this, Karim. Use Sylow, as I just asked you.
 
12:59 AM
we have that $n_2 = 1$ so $n_2 = 1\ or\ 3$
 
But what do you know about all Sylow p-subgroups?
And do you not know that $S_4$ is the group of symmetries of the cube? So you can see everything geometrically.
 
they don't have trivial center.
 
Most basic result, part of the Sylow theorems is that all Sylow p-subgroups of any finite group are ... what?
 
oh really ?
conjugates ?
 
Bingo
 
1:03 AM
oh
 
But you can see the Sylow 2-subgroups of the cube group very geometrically. Think about how $D_4$ (which you call $D_8$) sits in there geometrically.
 
let us say
oh I see it now. We have reflection
like if we draw a line cutting the middle of the cube
and we can reflect across that line and also rotate vertices as well right ?
 
So you have symmetries of (pairs of) faces.
 
yeah
cool
 
And you see clearly that there are 3 such conjugate subgroups :)
 
1:08 AM
yeah
 
That's my algebra wisdom for you for the year.
 
that is awesome :) haha
I am almost done preparing for algebra :D I feel like 90 % prepared
just have to review galois theory and rep theory then I am done
 
@TedShifrin am i considering this projection of $\Bbb P^1$ to be given by $x_0 = 1, x_1 = x, x_2 = y$?
 
Huh?
 
like
hmm i don't know how to phrase this
so right now im in $\Bbb R^2$
 
1:11 AM
@TedShifrin My exam schedule for next semester it looks I have 2 exams in the same day
** is wrong with this stupid thing system.
I should probably ask prof next year I can't have exam in same day
 
People scheduling classes can't avoid all possible issues.
Grow up.
You're sounding like a whiny undergraduate.
 
haha
 
I'm serious.
 
yeah I guess lol
 
Ted, what's wrong with 1/z that you can't apply Korea on
 
1:12 AM
LOL, Korea?
What's the integral around the unit circle?
 
Ted, what's wrong with 1/z that you can't apply Morera on it
 
That's exactly the whole point :)
 
Also, autocorrect
 
LOL, oh. I hate that thing. It happens on my phone but not on my desktop.
 
@GFauxPas some of its contour integrals have non-zero value?
 
1:13 AM
@meow: You keep getting distracted !!
 
Oh whoops, was mixing up sufficient and necessary
I'm on my phone
 
well im really not sure how im supposed to take $R^2$ and apply the projective stuff to it
 
I guess the converse isn't a thm :)
 
@meow: You did that for the medians problem. $\Bbb R^2\subset\Bbb P^2$, so you can take a figure that lives in the Euclidean plane, think of it in the projective plane, and deduce things.
 
adios!
oh
wow
my messages sent in the wrong order..
what i said was
" i have an essay due in 4 hours, adios"
anyways bye
 
1:18 AM
Bye. :)
 
@Ted come write for proofwiki with us
 
Huh?
 
It's a website of theorems and definitions
proofwiki.org
 
The arXiv is similar but more expansive.
 
No its not a repository for papers
It's a repository of theorems
 
1:28 AM
yeah but what's a paper but a repository of theorems
 
A lot more than a repository, I hope.
 
Proofwiki catalogues theorems and proofs, you don't read a page in proofwiki, you follow a chain of links
It's a wiki
You don't read a paper I mean
 
hey guys, Im the guy who asked how to do trig stuff without a calculator, I'm back with a new question.

When factoring a trinomial,
Why do we do a * c and then find the factors of that result that when added or subtracted equal the middle term?

How did we come up with a * c?
oh fail
 
This one I wrote and I like it
 
@CausingUnderflowsEverywhere I think there's a question on the main site on that, let's see if I can find it
@CausingUnderflowsEverywhere I think the idea is that, if the first coefficient is $1$ (so we have $x^2+bx+c$),
and we want to factor it into $(x+P)(x+Q)$,
(By the way, do you have LaTeX enabled? It turns the dollar-sign things into cool rendered math formulas)
...then (by expanding the last thing) we essentially want $x^2+bx+c$ to be $x^2+(P+Q)x+PQ$.
And it's clear that we want numbers $P$ and $Q$ that sum to $b$ and multiply to $c$.
 
1:38 AM
@GFauxPas I'm being disingenuous. In any case, I still don't quite understand the point of the website. I don't see anything it fixes that was broken before.
 
If the first coefficient isn't $1$, we end up wanting something of the form $(Px+Q)(Rx+S)=PRx^2+(PS+QR)x+QS$ to be equal to $ax^2+bx+c$.
 
Oh it does a lot, but the mission statement there is more eloquent than what I could say. Part of its uniqueness is its accessibility without sacrifice of rigor
 
There we can notice, trying to generalize the version with $1$ as the first coefficient, that $b=PS+QR$ is the sum of two numbers that multiply to $PSQR=(PR)(QS)=ac$.
The equation becomes easier to factor once you have these two numbers $PS$ and $QR$, and now we know how to look for them.
 
I can't find the mission statement but I doubt I would be convinced.
I'm going to play picross.
 
Well of you won't read it then that's all there is to it
 
1:42 AM
reminds DogAteMy that he has a paper to write and submit :D
@GFauxPas: I've found enough stuff wrong on Wiki that I'm not going to worry about trying to proofread or check proofwiki.
 
Yeah, if you want that, go read an algebra textbook.
 
I wasnt asking you to proofread or check things, I meant to ask you to write proofs for us
 
Chill out, guys.
@GFauxPas: I already wrote four textbooks. That's enough for me.
 
And that's one of the advantages of proofwiki over WP; fewer mistakes. Oh, cool! Are they online?
 
The only one that's legally on-line is the diff geo text I already told you to get.
 
1:45 AM
Okay, I'll take a look. Thank you Ted
 
@MikeMiller I played (Mario) picross for the GB sooo much as a kid
I can remember the music still :/
 
how do I enable LaTeX?
 
See the link at LaTeX in chat up over there >>>>>^^^^
 
@Semiclassical They still put out new ones for the 3ds - I can probably buy the mario one on this actually
 
oh, nice
 
1:51 AM
what's the privacy policy on LaTeX?
thanks you Ted
 
no privacy policy ... totally available
 

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