Im thinking, that I don't really know how uniform convergence on a series on $\Bbb Z$ is even defined. But I guess it means that:
$$∀ϵ>0,∃N,∀n>N,∀z∈A:|\sum_{|k|<n}f_n(z)-\sum_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_n(z)|<ϵ$$
And that is:
$$∀ϵ>0,∃N,∀n>N,∀z∈A:|\sum_{|k|≥n}f_n(z)|<ϵ$$
In that sense, it seems I don't have to worry about the middle part anyway.