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12:00 AM
You are right about them just being a permutation
and we know that $1+\omega + \omega^2 + \dots + \omega^{n-1} =0 $
 
That was a somewhat nice result for me =)
It is very visually striking. I actually do have an analytic numbertheory proof of it as well
 
@N3buchadnezzar yep
 
My proffesor showed that the result can be shown by using a multiplicative convolution =)
 
You can also get stuff like that from looking at the sum of the roots of the equation $z^n-1 = 0$
and Vieta formulae
 
@OldJohn The visual aspect of it is that it is just a translation
 
12:03 AM
@N3buchadnezzar indeed.
 
Eg if you view the roots as vectors, it will always be a n-gon starting at $\omega_0$ and ending at $0$
By shifting it
 
Gauss also found out some fascinting results by looking at these things
@N3buchadnezzar exactly :)
 
This is the part i like, discovering things on my own =)
 
@N3buchadnezzar It is an excellent thing to do!
 
Also the product of the roots is nice!
Eg you multiply all the lengths (obviously 1), and then add all the angles.
Suming to either a multiple of $2\pi$ og $\pi$, hence $\omega_0\cdots\omega_{n-1}=(-1)^{n-1}$
 
12:06 AM
@N3buchadnezzar If you carry on in this direction, you could end up re-discovering Gauss sums and the construction of the regular 17-gon! :)
 
^^
I like mathematics, I am just not very good at it.
 
@N3buchadnezzar you are probably better at it than 99.9% of the population :)
 
@N3buchadnezzar Same here.
 
@anon Nice answer - my only criticism at the moment is the grammar of the sentence "Explicitly, the vertex set is rotation-invariant which implies their vector average is rotation-invariant the only vector of which is zero." :)))
 
okay, I'll put a comma in there
 
12:10 AM
GN!
 
Say a runner came last in the Olympics. Telling him that he is better than 99.9% of the population is probably true, but it does not make him feel any better. Oranges will always compare themselves with oranges, and bananas with bananas =)
 
@anon I think I would have said " ... and the only vector for which this is true is ... "
@N3buchadnezzar True - but it never hurts to look on your own achievements from a positive aspect :)
 
that would have made the last line of the paragraph spill over and end in the first third of the space alloted.
 
I do mathematics because I love doing it, and hopefully the same goes for the runner =)
 
@N3buchadnezzar that is the only reason I still do maths even though I have retired
 
12:14 AM
I am thinking whether I would be happier trying to become a professor or just doing math on my own working as something else
 
Time I slept - goodnight all
 
Goodnight!
 
@OldJohn Thanks for the help =)
 
Sometimes on MSE a paragraph's last line will simply consist of a single letter (representing a variable) and a period. That really rustles my jimmies.
 
12:15 AM
@N3buchadnezzar glad to help
 
@anon Wow, anon has not said so much for a long time.
 
@JasperLoy work as something else - and be a maths genius like Ramanujan!
@anon I always try to pad it out with some extra stuff in those cases
Night all!
 
Holy crab, It finally is ready : math.stackexchange.com/questions/621086/…
 
@anon Are you going to be a math professor? Is that your career choice?
 
@JasperLoy ballet dancer
 
12:20 AM
@N3buchadnezzar You?
 
@JasperLoy Anon
You, banana.
Me butterfly.
 
lol
@N3buchadnezzar Don't forget me when you win the fields medal
 
One day, I am going to see yet another problem with a title that references something only the OP can know, like "Probability question part b" and I am going to go absolutely insane.
 
I am already very confused between Arkamis and Karl Kronenfield
 
who?
what?
 
12:27 AM
@Arkamis A dream I had about numbers
 
anon refuses to answer me, lol
 
like this one: "Real Analysis Question 6". Oh, that's useful. Good. Helpful title. There's only been a single Question 6 in all of the real analysis courses, textbooks, and assigmnents ever
As if "Question 6" is supposed to be meaningful
 
@Arkamis I also hate "Hartshorne Chap 3 Ex 6"
Hi @ethan
 
hi
 
How are your applications.
 
12:31 AM
what title should I use to describe the question I give here on MSE
It says "title/position"
under one heading
I don't want it to sound stupid
lol
 
We all know you are the next Ramanujan
 
no one says that lol
 
@ethan Have you decided where to go?
 
Mathematics Question Help Provider?
@JasperLoy you mean where do I want to go lol, I'm still applying
 
@Ethan Good, I like it.
 
12:35 AM
how about mathematics tutor?
or is that
 
@JasperLoy At least with that there's a solid reference for the question
 
are there general methodologies to find aproximate, analytical, formulas for integrals that have no exact analytical expression?
 
yes
for example the Euler–Maclaurin formula
 
@Ethan thanks. Googling it right now. Anything else?
 
what exactly are you trying to approximate, your question was very open
 
12:50 AM
but right now I want to at least learn the names of general methods, whether they apply to that particular integration or not..
 
@becko your integral is a polynomial.
 
@Arkamis I'm pretty sure it isn't.
 
It's not a polynomial for example if $p_i$ or $q_i$ is a non integer
 
Oh sorry, my font didn't display right, it looked for a moment that you had $p_i > 1$, not -1
 
oops
 
12:57 AM
@ethan that's still not a problem for positive exponents.
 
i deleted it meant to say somthing else
my bad
lol
 
I'm not entirely convinced it's a problem for $p_1 > -1$ either, though.
 
You can assume that there are no singularities, as in the comment.
 
yea I don't know
well then that puts constraints on q_i and p_i
 
no. Assume that there are no singularities inside the interval of integration
It puts constraints on a and b
 
12:59 AM
oh
well you can't have all the pi_'s and q_i's sum to somthing always smaller then k
otherwise you would have singularities
 
what is k?
ohoh... sorry, missed my own notation
 
Hi @ethan
 
Yes. I already tried using the Binomial series. It didn't help.
 
alot of series multiplication
@becko take the exponential of the logarithm of the expression
 
1:01 AM
Series multiplication is trivial
 
approximate the logarithm some how
 
I kept only the first two terms of the Binomial series for each factor.
 
@Arkamis computationally not really
 
It didn't go too well.
@Ethan exponential of log, and then what?
 
the product will turn into a sum
 
1:01 AM
@Ethan vector convolution. Cauchy product
 
yes.
 
and the sum could be easier to calculate by numerical methods
 
You have to get a little clever with non-integer exponents
 
I tried playing exp log a little, but I got nowhere.
 
but it's not impossible.
 
1:02 AM
@becko I don't know I have to work on my college apps
sorry
 
becko, typically with numerical integration issues, a method slows down if you have to continuously compute the function at a number of nodes. If you can memoize certain parts of the function, you can avoid much of the computation.
In this case, you can directly cast the product as a summation by using the generalized binomial theorem. This will allow you to memoize the coefficients and as such if you choose to do a numerical quadrature routine, will greatly accelerate the process.
 
@Arkamis The problem I had with the binomial series was that the series doesn't converge whenever x is close to P_i or Q_i
 
It's a finite series. It converges.
 
it is not finite if p_i and q_i are not integers
 
Right, keep forgetting that part.
 
1:07 AM
well if the interval [a,b] is very large
eventually all you need to really look at is the main x^n term
 
But your P_i, Q_i are distinct
 
@Ethan ok. Good luck.
 
so why not use the series for the cases when it's not close, and then handle the cases where it is independently
 
@Ethan $$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{i^2(i^2-i j+j^2)}$$
 
In any case, if x is near P_i for some P_i, then your function is close to zero
for that term
Alternatively
 
1:09 AM
@Arkamis Yes. Probably using that in conjunction with the binomial series leads somewhere.... that's what I was trying to do now.
 
if your P_i, Q_i are in the interval [a,b], then you have finitely many such points
Break the domain of integration down into sub-intervals
 
yes
 
so [a,P_1],[P_1,P_2], etc. (here I'm just assuming that P_1 < P_2 etc but it need not be the case)
 
ok
after you split the interval of integration like that, the singularities are guaranteed to be only in the extreme points of integration
I'll work on that idea... see where it leads.
 
You said you have no singularities
But in that case, yes, that would force them to the endpoints
 
1:12 AM
Yes. That's what I meant when i said no singularities. That you had split the integration, so that the singularities were at the endpoints. As in the comment by Kyle in the question.
 
As long as your singularities are non-essential, you should have no problems.
 
@Arkamis I'll see where it leads. I'll post in the question if it works.
 
1:33 AM
How to show that number of $r$-circular permutations out of $n$ objects $Q_r^n=\dfrac{P_r^n}{r}$ is always positive integer?
 
1:56 AM
@Sush that's the same as proving that n!/(n-r)! is divisible by r
In fact, you can make a stronger claim: n!/(n-r)! is divisible r!
You can prove that n!/(n-r)!r! is an integer by induction. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_triangle
 
Guys, does anyone know where I can find a proof for the sum to infinity formula
$S_{\infty} = \frac{a}{1-r}$
 
i'm going crazy
 
@Nick you're talking about the geometric series?
 
@gecko: yes, absolutely
 
2:05 AM
Oh! As n goes to infinity, the absolute value of r must be less than one for the series to converge.
I didn't know it was that simple
 
yes.
 
@becko: Are you good with infinite series?
 
not really
 
oh,well my questions isn't too complex it's just some simple intuition
S = 1 - 2+ 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 + ...
 
if you have a question that admits a well defined answer, you should ask it in the forum
 
2:07 AM
O_o oh yeah, right then. I think I'd like to here what they's say
well thanks anyway.
Bye Bye
hugs for everyone
 
Why does $0=c(T-\lambda _1I)...(T-\lambda _m I)v$ mean that the map $(T-\lambda _i I)$ is not injective?
 
@Nick look here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
 
O_O
What the heck? There's a wikipedia page for that!!?
But mine is different, it's S = 1 - 2+ 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 + ...
 
you can obtain your series from the one in wikipedia. the one in wikipedia is your S times 2 minus 1
 
But if I take the double of my series in a certain way, then I get that
 
2:15 AM
@Nick exactly
What's the rate of convergence of the binomial series?
Where can I find an estimate of the error in keeping the first n terms?
 
Woah!
I just found out my series can be two things if I double it
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1...
which is 1/2
and
4 + 8 + 12 + 16 + 20 + 24 + ...
which is infinity!
 
@Nick that tends to happen when the series diverges
 
But the grandi's series. I have the answer to that.
So, can I say that S = 1/4 ?
Maybe.
 
oh no.
 
2:35 AM
@Nick Don't believe everything you see on TV.
 
@Alizter: hehehe
@Alizter: So, tell me. What is the right answer? 1/4 or infinity?
 
numberphile is the literal devil
in the standard sense of summation (limit of partial sums) your series goes to infinity
 
I take it that you've all seen the the whole sum of natural number is -1/12 thing
 
of you go ahead and define summation differently you can obtain different values for it
 
Well, we're not defining summation differently.
We have an infinite number of terms
If I had an infinite number of rooms and they were all full and I had to make space for you, I'd tell everyone to shift one room and then there'd be a room for you.
 
2:42 AM
yes you are
you obtain -1/12 by doing something called zeta function regularization
 
Yeah, I watched that proof as well
 
in the standard sense (limits of partial sums) the sum over the naturals is very much infinity
 
But So, 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = 4 + 8 + 12 + 16 + 20 + 24 + ...right?
 
not in the sense you're probably thinking
 
mhh...
eh, equation systems were made intended for use with finite things. So yeah, it is wrong to equate two infinite series
I'll maybe ask this on main later
till then, bye
I gotta get to school
 
2:58 AM
your question will get closed on main
the issue isn't setting two series equal, it's that they are divergent series
 
 
1 hour later…
4:26 AM
"In order to give it a rigorous meaning, it must be divided by another functional determinant, making the spurious constants cancel." - en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Functional_determinant - What is the rigorous definition of the ratio of two functional integrals like this?
hmm, actually I shall read the next section
 
4:38 AM
next section doesn't say
 
 
1 hour later…
5:54 AM
$$\dfrac{(2n)!}{2^n\times n!}=(2n-1)\cdot(2n-3)\cdots5\cdot3\cdot1$$ how to show it?
@becko, many many thanks!
 
@Sush, rewrite your denominator as (2n) * (2n-2) * ... *2, by splitting up your 2^n into n 2's, and multiply each 2 to each thing in the product of n!
 
6:10 AM
@Sanchez, Many many thanks, Sir!
 
 
1 hour later…
@Nick : That's usual convergence issue with conditionally convergent series. See Riemann rearrangement theorem. Similar can be stated when a series diverges. But nevertheless, they all make sense.
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + ... = -1/2
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ... = 1/2
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ... = -1/12
etc. etc.
@Mike : Zeta function regularization isn't generally the formal way to state their 'sense'. See summability methods.
Oh, and 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + .... = 1/4
 
1-1+1-1+... = 1/2 can be summed through Cesaro summation
1-2+3-4+5-.... = 1/4 can be summed through Abel summation
1+2+3+4+... = -1/12 is a little bit stronger (see definition in summability methods) that the other two, it can be done by Ramanujan C(0).
Finally and lastly, 1 + 1 + 1 + ... This can be done by C(0) too.
 
So none of them are actually much 'tough' to do. The real strong one is to sum 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ..., which doesn't even have a regularized value of the zeta function(*).
In 2003, Berndt proposed Ramanujan C(1) summation, which in a precise sense involving difference equations is unique. This nevertheless sums the harmonic series too.... EM constant!
*EM = Euler-Mascheroni constant.
 
7:48 AM
PS : I just wrote an article on this! (I think I am not alone in MSE). Tag : @Mike and @Nick
Bye!
I consider this one of my best answers. I'll put it in the shelf for now. =D.
 
 
2 hours later…
10:10 AM
Hey Everyone :)
@Jasper , :) (Here comes your Papaya Friend ;))
I hope you dint forget me ^_^
 
Hullo.
Did Naruto ever shrunk that much in Shippuden?
I didn't know @Chris'ssis could change his/her identicon. Can anyone do that?
 
Hahahaha Lolz. No He dint shrink . This is his chibi mode ;)
Balarka, I need a simple help
this one is for finding area of any polygon depending upon their number of coordinates
I want to find the above series SUM formula ?
Just like we do have SUM formula for Arithmetic Progression
I am sorry if I am being completely rely . :'(
 
10:41 AM
You want to write that in sum notation, is that right?
Otherwise I am not sure what you mean by 'sum formula'.
 
Yes Right
 
$1/2 \left | \sum_{i=1}^{n} ( x_i y_{i+1} - x_{i+1} y_i ) \right |$ with $(x_{n+1}, y_{n+1}) = (x_1, y_1)$
 
10:57 AM
Thanks Balarka :)
 
11:48 AM
Nice work!
 
12:00 PM
(Dang that inversion theorem)
 
Cya Balarka ^_^
 
Byes.
 
 
2 hours later…
1:35 PM
How is the Bernoulli numbers? For example, as against $B_2$?
 
1:48 PM
Can anyone help me out with a good reference explaining about the Gregorzczyk hierarchy.
I've been looking at the seminal paper that introduces it and I'm losing patience with all the errors and the ambiguities
The foundational paper is here if anyone wants to look at it with me: matwbn.icm.edu.pl/ksiazki/rm/rm04/rm0401.pdf
don't be scared -- no prerequisites
@Mike
 
Huy
@DanielFischer: Are you busy just now? I have a small problem with the proof of Baire's theorem.
 
@Huy I have looked at this if you mean Baire's Category Theorem. I can help too perhaps.
 
@Huy What problem?
 
Huy
Let $(M,d)$ be a complete metric space. A part of the theorem states that for $A \subset M$ with $\operatorname{Kat}(A) = 1$ we have $\operatorname{Kat}(A^c)=2$ and $A^c$ is dense in $M$ (is that the correct English notion?).
 

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