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12:12 AM
@Potato So $W$ is some open subset of $\mathbf R^k$?
 
Yes.
 
Sorry, in retrospect this is obvious.
 
I having trouble working through the chain rule. In particular, I don't see why $D(f^{-1}\circ g)$ is the identity, nor why we can use the inverse function theorem on $f^{-1}$ when it is a map between spaces of different dimensions.
 
It probably isn't the identity.
Is it?
 
Well, I'm having trouble working it out.
I'm actually typing my question up more nicely into a question to post, if you want to think about it a little bit and post an answer.
 
12:20 AM
Psychologically it might be better to write $f\colon W \to U \cap M \subset \mathbf R^n$ where $U$ is some open set in $\mathbf R^n$ containing $x$ on which you can smoothly extend $f^{-1}$.
So it's an honest bijection and writing $f^{-1}$ feels less slimy.
 
Ok, just a sec. I have almost finished writing my question.
 
I'll take a look.
 
0
Q: Why is tangent space independent of choice of coordinates?

PotatoThis is a question about Spviak's Calculus on Manifolds, page 115. Let $M$ be a $k$-dimension manifold in $\mathbb{R}^n$ and let $f:W\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ be a coordinate system around $x=f(a)$, where $W$ is some open subset of $\mathbb{R}^k$. We know $f'(a)$ has rank $k$ 9by definition)...

 
But in the end it's the chain rule; it has to be.
 
Of course.
But I need to not get lazy when reading outside of class. Working through the details is a must.
 
12:26 AM
So I don't think that it's the identity. I think it's an isomorphism.
 
Oh, right.
 
So the image of $(f^{-1} \circ g)_*$ is all of $\mathbf R_a^K$. That's all.
 
Ah, ok.
Ok but wait.
Using the push forward of that involves taking the derivative.
 
Right.
 
So we are actually concerned about the image of $(f^{-1}\circ g)'$
 
12:29 AM
Agreed.
 
Silly question: what is the model of the tangent space the two of you are using?
 
Did you see the question I linked?
I must go. I'll be back in a bit.
 
Yes, I did. But I didn't see the definition of the tangent space there.
 
QED
Hello
 
Briefly, it's an ordered point of (point, vector)
 
12:32 AM
Hi
 
so it's the set of tangent vectors at the point
anyway I'll return in a bit
@DylanMoreland So why is $(f^{-1}\circ g)'(b)$ an isomorphism (invertible)?
@t.b. I'm back and ready to explain how Spivak defines tangent spaces, if you want.
 
12:59 AM
@Potato Because $f^{-1} \circ g$ has an inverse $g^{-1} \circ f$.
 
That just shows $f^{-1}\circ g$ is invertible. I'm concerned about the derivative.
 
The inverse is smooth.
Do you believe that $f^{-1} \circ g$ is smooth?
 
Let me back up and rephrase.
 
Hum. Does the inverse function theorem ever prove that something is smooth?
 
So for the first implication, we need to show that $g'$ = $f'\cdot(f^{-1}\circ g)'$, yes?
 
1:03 AM
Looks right.
I threw up a diagram in my post. Maybe it doesn't add anything but I like diagrams.
 
So this is true because of the chain rule?
 
Yes, because $f \circ (f^{-1} \circ g) = g$.
Maybe we should be careful about the points.
 
I think we should.
I think it's the points that are messing me up.
 
I don't remember Spivak's notation for this. He's always pretty funny about differential notation.
 
Just use whatever notation you like.
 
1:10 AM
Maybe that isn't the confusion here. If we use Wikipedia's convention then I'm claiming that $D_bg = D_af \circ D_b(f^{-1} \circ g)$.
All of these have domains that are open sets in Euclidean space. No worries about dimension there.
 
Introduction of the points is confusing me. If you use the chain rule on the right hand side, what do you get, with the subscripts included?
 
The right hand side is the application of the chain rule to $D_b(f \circ (f^{-1} \circ g))$.
 
Oh, ok. Thanks. Now it clicks.
 
Excellent.
 
For the second part, why is $(f^{-1}\circ g)'$ an isomorphism?
 
1:18 AM
Because (and I'm shrinking $V, W$ at the beginning to ensure this makes sense) the original function $f^{-1} \circ g$ is a diffeomorphism, because it's smooth and has a smooth inverse $g^{-1} \circ f$.
 
I don't see how that implies the conclusion.
 
Again, chain rule.
The derivative of $(f^{-1} \circ g) \circ (g^{-1} \circ f)$ is the derivative of the identity, which is the identity.
So $D_b(f^{-1} \circ g)$ is a linear map with a linear inverse, $D_a(g^{-1} \circ f)$.
Sorry, I didn't think that this was the unclear bit. Does it make sense now?
Like, if I have a diffeomorphism between open subsets of $\mathbf R^n$, then the derivative at any point is nonsingular/invertible/what have you.
This is sort of the converse to the inverse function theorem, I think.
 
Hmm, ok.
Ok, yes, now I get it.
Thank you!
 
No trouble at all.
 
@DylanMoreland nice to hear :-)
replying out of context is fun :-)
 
1:33 AM
How is $ds$ usually defined for one dimensional manifolds?
I want to show that if I have an oriented 1-d manifold in $R^n$, and $c:[0,1]\rightarrow M$ is orientation preserving, that the integral of $c^*(ds)$ over [0,1] is just the integral of the norm of $c'$ over [0,1] (the usual length formula).
So this is just integral of $ds$ along the manifold
Err, no.
 
$ds$ is not a 1-form. For one thing, $ds$ is always non-negative, but any non-trivial linear form must take negative values as well as positive values.
 
$ds$ here is the 1-dimensional volume element.
 
As you know, there is no canonical choice of a volume element...
 
Well, there is if the manifold is oriented and we use the standard inner product.
 
Sure, but then you're in the Riemannian case and everything's as you expect anyway...
 
1:47 AM
Basically, if I could figure out why $ds(v)=|v|$ I would be done, because then you just use the pushforward on $c$.
Well, yeah.
So if we have the usual inner product and a given orientation, why is $ds$ of a vector just the norm?
I'm a bit fuzzy on defining volume elements.
 
@Potato Thanks, it's fine. I thought bringing up doubts about the very definitions you're using might help. But you appear to have figured it out by now.
 
@Potato: It isn't. It can be plus or minus the norm.
 
Ok. But we are given an orientation here so that it's plus the norm.
Ok this is all slowly making sense.
I think I need to read a serious book on differential geometry though. Spviak is very terse and has weird notation.
 
Yeah, but then I can take $-1$ of your vector and then $ds$ of it becomes negative.
 
Oh no! Don't do that!
If $f:[a,b]\rightarrow R$ is non-negative and the graph of $f$ in the x-y plane is revolved around the $x$-axis in $R^3$ to yield a solid $M$, how do I use differential forms along with the standard volume elements to derive the usual calculus formulas for these?
 
1:53 AM
You don't, if you don't have to!
 
But I want to!
 
There are lots of icky bookkeeping details here.
 
I'd be fine with a sketch, or a reference.
 
There are all kinds of annoying things like, "the integral of a form over a subspace of full measure is equal to the integral over the whole space".
So, suppose you're given a volume form $\omega$ for $M$. The volume of $M$ is just what you expect: $$\int_M \omega$$
To convert this to a calculus formula, choose a diffeomorphism $\phi : (0, 1)^n \to M$ with image a subspace of full measure (dense suffices!) and pull back the integral through $\phi$.
We have $$\int_M \omega = \int_{(0, 1)^n} \phi^* \omega$$
 
Ok.
Ick.
Do you know a good reference on this?
 
1:59 AM
Told you so.
 
Spivak is not doing it for me.
 
No, I don't know of any good references for differential geometry. I learned it in bits and pieces from various books / the internet / lectures.
 
test
F1! I'm facing a strange problem with chat since the evening. I'm unable to chat from chrome.
Right now, I am chatting from FF (and it keeps crashing frequently -- this is just FF's fault, and has nothing to do with the chat).
Is anyone else facing any trouble with chatting from Chrome?
 
I'm using Safari, things seem to work.
 
And again in Chrome, I see a new button that says "fixed font" in my chat window. Do you guys see it?
@ZhenLin I see; thanks.
test
The OP here says "After all, to define the Lesbesgue integral you could take the Caratheodary route or the representation theory route - both fiddly - but at least you know why you were putting the effort in." -- What is this representation theory route towards Lebesgue integral? I wouldn't understand surely; if you can just point me to some relevant keywords/wikipedia page/lecture notes, I'll be happy. =)
 
2:19 AM
@Srivatsan A Borel measure on a compact space $K$ is the same thing as a positive linear functional on $C(K)$ (the associated integral). This is the Riesz-Markov theorem.
Big Rudin, chapter 2, Pedersen, Analysis Now, Chapter 6, for example.
 
Ah, this doesn't look as bad as I feared. Thanks!
@robjohn: Do you use Chrome? Does the chat behave normally for you? See here: chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/2853071#2853071.
 
@Srivatsan The idea is actually pretty easy: given a positive linear functional $I: C(K) \to \mathbb{R}$ and $G \subset K$ open put $\bar{\mu}(G) = \sup{\{I(f)\,:\,\operatorname{supp}{f} \subset G, 0 \leq f \leq 1\}}$ and then for an arbitrary subset $E$ of $K$ put $\mu^\ast(E) = \inf{\{\bar{\mu}(G)\,:\,G \supset E\text{ open}\}}$. Then show that $\mu^\ast$ is an outer measure and that the Borel sets are measurable and, finally that $I(f) = \int f\,d\mu$.
Conversely you get a functional $I(f) = \int f\,d\mu$ from a Borel measure and the above procedure gives the measure back.
 
One sec. I am installing the MathJax bookmarklet right now. =)
OK, ready.
What's the assumption on $K$?
 
2:40 AM
Let $K$ be compact Hausdorff (or locally compact and replace $C(K)$ by $C_c(X)$ --the space of continuous functions with compact support)
 
It looks good, thanks. But, high level question: why the term "representation theorem"?
[And the OP used the term "representation theory", which I think is not right.]
 
@Srivatsan Representation of linear functionals on $C_c(X)$. Representation theorY is wrong.
 
@tb In fact, the "theory" was what made me back off a bit originally. :)
OK. Let me browse through the 2 resources you gave...
 
That was funny. But I think that is meant for the OP.
 
2:48 AM
@Srivatsan yeah, but notice that I gave a definition of his integral in about 10 lines while Bochner theory needs about as many pages to develop... I could think of at least 3 more senses in which one can interpret the integral.
 
Is there a standard term for a set whose complement is isolated?
 
@tb I don't understand. Why does the OP have to understand a new definition of integration? Won't one of the more standard definitions work?
I haven't seen this barycenter integral before.
I have to leave in a minute or so. I will meet you again soon.
 
@Srivatsan he wants to make sense of a formula involving an integral over a set of measures that spits out a measure.
@ZhenLin I don't know what exactly you have in mind. But the complement of the set of isolated points is called the derived set.
 
Well, I was thinking about the complement of a dense open set and then I realised it need not be discrete.
But nevermind, it turns out that nowhere dense was the correct property anyway.
 
 
1 hour later…
4:18 AM
@Srivatsan the test line says only "test"
 
4:29 AM
Hello
 
4:57 AM
@AlexBecker good day :-)
 
@robjohn Ah, read the next few lines... =)
hi Alex
 
@Srivatsan I am not using Chrome. I am using Firefox, and I am having no troubles at all.
 
@robjohn Oh ok, fine.
Thanks anyway.
 
@Srivatsan is anyone else using Chrome that you know of?
 
Actually I'm in my office right now, and it works fine here. I don't understand what could've gone wrong in my laptop.
I use chrome in both places.
@robjohn You should contact Ilya mentally =)
 
5:07 AM
Ah, so it is not Chrome's fault necessarily.
@Srivatsan I should have known what Ilya uses :-)
 
@robjohn Yes, but I know that only now.
I know he uses chrome.
Bah, I opened firefox after months today. I don't know how you guys can put up with it. Bulky; crashed repeatedly before opening chat; unnecessary buttons I don't know or care about (apparently, I haven't used firefox since installing =))...
 
@Srivatsan: Were the funny betas happening only on Chrome on your laptop?
@Srivatsan what is wrong with Firefox?
 
@robjohn One second. I will check and send screenshot.
See here and here.
This is how it is rendered in my office computer (chrome). It works fine in my desktop.
 
@Srivatsan So, does this mean that some fonts aren't properly installed?
Hi, robjohn
 
@tb Perhaps =) But this is the first time I'm facing any issue.
 
5:22 AM
@Srivatsan fortunately, math.SE is the only math-related place where those funny betas appear :)
 
Yes. And if it's just one or two funny betas, I don't care.
@tb What is the Bochner integral? In the sense of integrating a function $[a,b] \to$ a Banach space, I have seen it defined as the continuous extension of the integral operator from the step functions to their closure (the "regulated functions").
 
@Srivatsan well, it's essentially this but with step functions replaced by simple functions
 
Yours looks somewhat like that. Perhaps that is why Mark mentioned the Bochner integral.
@tb Oh, ok fine.
I'm still trying to see how this baricenter and Bochner integrals are different, same or related.
 
@Srivatsan No, I'm defining a map on the extremal points of $M(K)$ (which are the point measures on $K$). This extends to an affine map on the convex hull of the extremal points (finite convex combinations of point measures), then I extend by continuity to all of $M(K)$.
This extension is the barycenter map $b: M(K) \to K$.
 
Right.
Is Mark's comment a comment on your answer or is it an unrelated comment?
 
5:39 AM
Well, given a measure on $S = \operatorname{ex}{K}$ you can define an integral for functions $S \to E$ (here $E$ could be any Banach space, but Mark takes the space $E = C(X)^\ast$ of measures on $X$ -- in which $K$ sits).
The function $f: S \to E$ he takes is the characteristic function of $S$.
 
signed measures on $X$?
 
yes, signed measures.
 
Hm, that makes sense.
 
And now he takes $\int f \,d\tau$
Since $f$ is the characteristic function of $S$ and $\tau$ is a probability measure, the value of this integral is in the closed convex hull of $S$.
 
Now it's kind of clear. Thanks
 
5:44 AM
The trouble is, this only works well because everything is metrizable.
The barycenter construction is simpler to describe and has no such restriction.
(it's a purely functional analytic gadget)
 
The barycenter map makes more (probabilistic) sense to me. In contrast to signed measures.
 
To me, too. However, the main reason I introduced the barycenter map is that it is at the heart of the matter: the measure $\tau$ on the extremal points is (usually) obtained via Choquet theory, which itself relies on that barycenter map.
 
That makes sense, considering that we're dealing with convex sets and all that.
 
Exactly.
Do you know Minkowski's theorem on convex sets in $\mathbb{R}^n$?
 
To check my understanding, confirm this: in a rough sense, $b_\mu$ is the "expected point under the measure $\mu$. Now if $\varphi$ itself is linear, we can simply evaluate $\varphi$ at the expected point and that will be the expected value of $\varphi$ under $\mu$.
@tb I might. Let me check the statement.
 
5:52 AM
@Srivatsan yes, that's the idea.
@Srivatsan Given a compact convex set $C$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$ and a point $x \in C$ then $x$ is a convex combination of extremal points of $C$.
 
Oh yes, you mentioned it in our discussion on Krein-Milman.
@tb Yes, I know this. Why do you mention this though? Is there an accessible proof using the barycentric map (say)?
 
Well, Choquet's theorem is a generalization of that. You can't expect a point in a compact convex set to be a finite convex combination of extremal points. So instead of taking convex combinations of points you take measures.
 
I see. So does it say that given a point $x \in K$, there exists a measure $\mu \in M(K)$ whose barycenter is $x$?
 
Well, almost: it says there is a measure $\mu \in M(\operatorname{ex}{K})$ whose barycenter is $x$.
 
Aw, damn. I insulted Choquet by stating a triviality :/
 
6:02 AM
The idea how to get $\mu$ is pretty neat: there are measures in $M(K)$ whose barycenter is $x$.
(as you just observed)
Now construct a strictly convex function on $K$ whose minimum is $x$.
Call this function $f$.
The idea is: the larger $\int f\,d\mu$ is, the more $\mu$ is concentrated towards the extremal points.
Now among all those measures that have $x$ as barycenter take a measure whose integral is largest.
(of course you have to show that it exists, but that's not too hard)
 
Is $M(K)$ compact?
 
Yes.
 
Then that part is taken care of. Then we should show that this $\mu$ is supported on the extreme points.
 
Exactly.
 
If not, i.e., if it puts some mass on some internal point, then I can use the strict convexity of $f$ to increase the integral.
 
6:10 AM
Yes, that's the idea.
There are of course some technicalities to take care of, but this is already a good outline of the proof and the beauty of it is: it works!
 
Yes, it's very neat.
Out of curiosity, what is the technicality?
 
Well, I haven't told you exactly how to define the order and I haven't told you how to show that there is a maximal measure with respect to it.
 
Order?
 
Well, I said take a measure whose integral is maximal and whose barycenter is $x$.
 
I assumed the integral is a real number. Is that not the case?
 
6:14 AM
Yes, it is.
I'm just saying to make this into a detailed proof, there is a certain amount of work to do and a few details to check (but this isn't the time of day for me to do that).
 
@tb Ok =) . Let's not get there..
But thanks for this. It's pretty neat idea. How old is the theorem?
 
Well, the idea goes back to Minkowski, turn of the 19th century, I believe. We're essentially done in the finite dimensional case.
 
Hm, I see.
 
If $K$ is metrizable in an infinite-dimensional space, there's not much more to do and that's what Choquet did in the early fifties.
Then some further massaging of the idea does the trick in general.
 
What's the general $K$ over which this works?
 
6:21 AM
Up to some fiddly details, an arbitrary compact convex set in a locally convex vector space.
 
I'm not entirely solid on my definition of second countable, but if a manifold can be covered by a countable atlas, why does it follow the manifold is second countable?
 
(the details are due to the fact that such compact convex sets can be almost arbitrarily nasty without assuming them to be metrizable)
In particular, the set of extremal points need not even be Borel measurable...
@Potato A set is open if and only if it is open in each chart. Each chart has a countable base for its topology.
 
So essentially you just "transport" the countable base from $\mathbb{C}$ to the manifold?
(working with Riemann surfaces here)
 
@Potato essentially, yes. For Riemann surfaces, this is Radó's theorem
 
Thanks. Also, why are connectedness and path-connectedness the same thing on manifolds? Obvious path connected implies connected, but how do you get the other implication?
 
6:30 AM
A connected and locally path-connected space is globally path-connected:
 
@tb Oh, I see. It's surprising that the theorem holds in that generality.
Thanks again, tb.
 
@t.b. Ah, right. Thank you.
 
@Potato define an equivalence relation by saying two points are equivalent if they can be joined by a path. Equivalence classes are open, hence they're also closed, and since the space is connected there's only one equivalence class.
 
Right, right.
On the ball as always, @t.b.
 
:) thanks!
 
6:54 AM
By the way, @tb. I dramatically changed my opinion on stuff typeset with a typewriter.
 
@Srivatsan how did that happen?
 
I found this recently. It was as easy to read as any other book. // The notes itself was a pleasure to read, but that's separate.
 
@Srivatsan yes, it looks pretty nice at a quick glance. // given who the authors are, I'm not that surprised...
Those were the days where "copy-paste" meant actual work :)
 
=)
 
7:05 AM
"Challenge: Find places in Lang's books where you can tell that a word or equation or etc. has been corrected by him gluing the replacement on top of the old thing."
Did Lang typeset his own books as well then? :-|
 
QED
Hello
 
The link in this post is now dead.
 
QED
Can't see any questions on the site I understand
:(
 
@ZhenLin he did: if you can get this one into your hands, it's worth having a look at.
(there's also an English translation now)
 
QED
People always answer the questions I can answer!
 
7:15 AM
@tb Ah. I've only ever seen his Springer books, which are, as far as I can tell, professionally typeset.
 
QED
who's upvoting this?
0
Q: Recursion: Need a closed solution

Sean Possible Duplicate: recursion need a closed form Is there a closed form to the problem f(1)=1, f(2n)=f(n), f(2n+1)=f(2n)+1? So far I have found a solution for n, which is the number of power of 2's needed to add up to the number starting with the greatest power of 2. Also n= the numb...

Why has this been closed? Seems perfectly good
Maybe I'll flag it for re-opening
oh it's a duplicate
 
For this question, is there an elementary solution (I think the contraction mapping principle might work, but I'm not sure, and I wonder if there is an alternate way...) math.stackexchange.com/questions/95368/…
 
QED
Hi Potato
 
Hi.
 
QED
Does it always converge?
 
7:25 AM
That's the question! I believe so.
 
QED
I think so too
 
@Potato Looks pretty convergent to me. Calculate the derivative of $\frac{\alpha+x}{1+x}$ at $\sqrt{\alpha}$...
 
Yeah. Can you prove it with the contraction mapping theorem?
And if so, is there a more elementary way?
 
@Potato Yes, the derivative is $\dfrac{2}{\sqrt{\alpha}+1}-1 \in (-1,0)$ so in a small neighborhood of $\sqrt{\alpha}$ you have a genuine contraction. You can probably get the rate of convergence "by hand" simply by estimating $x_{n+1}-x_n$.
(essentially a geometric series)
 
7:57 AM
@tb The map contracts in a small neighborhood of $\sqrt{\alpha}$, but $x_1$ here is arbitrary...
 
Speaking of that question, is it a duplicate? math.stackexchange.com/questions/82479/…
 
QED
good find
 
@MartinSleziak That was quick. I don't understand what the original (the one you are pointing to) is asking.
Norbert's answer addresses only parts (a)+(b) but the current OP can solve those parts. They are stuck in showing that the entire sequence converges, not just the odd and even subsequences.
 
Yes, I agree that the answer at the older question is not a very satisfactory one.
 
I might be a better idea to close the original as a duplicate of this. =)
I hope others present other approaches as well (either in this question or in the other question)...
 
8:08 AM
Since the new question has better answers, agreed.
 
@MartinSleziak By far =)
[I'm kidding.]
@Potato Were you able to formalise the Banach fixed point theorem idea?
 
@Srivatsan No, but it might be another interesting answer to add. I am currently working on something else and encourage you to try it.
Mathematics is such a cruel mistress.
 
@Potato OK. =)
 
Putting aside the part where OPs show what they have done, the questions seem identical to me. Adding the first close vote at the old one: math.stackexchange.com/questions/82479/…
Voting to close automatically added a comment to the question. Is this a new feature?
 
That's been around. Unless you posted a comment yourself, the software adds a temporary comment.
 
8:14 AM
@MartinSleziak No, when suggesting a duplicate it always does that. This comment is removed when the question is closed.
Also, good morning.
 
Good morning.
It seems that I am not too often the first one to vote; I noticed this for the first time.
 
I've a Q in area chapter , May I ask?
 
Go for it.
 
Can someone figure what this edit is meant to do?
 
Removing textit from the title?
 
8:24 AM
The front page had a LaTeX bug in the title.
 
Oh I see. Actually, textit was added.
 
Suppose I've a right angle triangle , to find the hypotenuse , do I need to do : P/B or H^2 = P^2 + B^2 ; ?
 
What's wrong with Markdown italic?
 
Won't work in the title.
 
8:28 AM
@DylanMoreland It doesn't work in title. But I doubt that the OP added TeX because of that...
 
I don't think it needs to be italic via any method, but now the TeX makes more sense.
 
I'm same guy @FreakEnum from Nepal , I hope you guyz didn't forgot the idiot :)
 
@MrAnubis What's up with the new username? Is it the same account?
 
@MrAnubis @MrAnubis You aren't really specifying your notation here. Are P and B the two sides making the right angle?
 
@Srivatsan Yes, just changed the Nick :)
@DylanMoreland sorry , P = perpendicular length , B= Base length
 
@MrAnubis Let's say P and B are lengths, in metres. You want the hypotenuse to be in metres too, right?
 
@Srivatsan yes
both formulas results different value
 
Saying "perpendicular" doesn't really mean much to me here. It's a right triangle, yes? If you look at the picture here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_triangle
probably their "b" is your "B", their "a" is your "P", and their "c" is your "H"
 
@DylanMoreland yes , the same
 
@MrAnubis The first formula P/B (I don't know where you got that from) will give you a dimensionless number. For example, P = 20m, B = 10m, then P/B is just 2. (It's not 2m.) And 2 is not a length. So this formula cannot be correct.
 
8:34 AM
@Srivatsan dimensionless number?
 
Then I would use your second formula, the Pythagorean theorem. I don't know what P/B is supposed to give you; how did you come up with that?
 
@MrAnubis What does that mean?
 
[By the way, if you're going to ask a question like this here or on the site, I think it's good to point to some picture and match your notation up with that picture. It will get ever more difficult for people to guess what you mean!]
 
@Srivatsan you said that ofcourse in your second last msg:D
 
@MrAnubis Yes, exactly. P/B is dimensionless, whereas the length has to have the dimension of -- ahem -- length.
 
8:37 AM
@DylanMoreland These are trivial Q's , peoples will downvote me like hell in math.stackoverflow 0_o
 
@MrAnubis So that's not the correct answer. The second formula is better: P^2+B^2 has the dimensions of squared-length. So sqrt(P^2 + B^2) has the correct dimensions -- length.
 
Morning Matt!
 
@Srivatsan you remember this thing >> P B P / H H B ?
 
@Matt, what Asaf said. And whatnot.
 
@MrAnubis Well, that wasn't my main point; and people ask trivial stuff on the main site all the time! Sometimes it does very well.
 
8:39 AM
Morning guys : )
 
@MrAnubis I think you are talking about the trigonometric ratios.
 
@Srivatsan aah , right , Thanks :)
 
Hello everyone!
 
QED
hi
 
Hello Daniil!
 
8:44 AM
hi Daniil
 
How is your last day of 2011 going?
 
@Daniil my last day of 2011 has just begun (about 45 minutes ago).
 
@Daniil Quite alright, just about to have a first cup of coffee. And how's yours going?
 
Pretty much the same, frankly.
Started reading this book: contrib.andrew.cmu.edu/~ryanod
quite interesting so far
 
@Daniil sounds nice. Are you going to any parties tonight?
 
8:51 AM
@robjohn Nah, I am going to celebrate NYE with my family, most likely.
 
@Daniil I am partying with my family. This will probably consist of setting an alarm so that we wake up in time to toast the new year and then go to bed.
 
Happy new year to all!!!
 
QED
ok
 
@robjohn Setting an alarm? It seems you don't go to sleep before 2 usually... =)
 
@Srivatsan so it seems ;-)
 
8:54 AM
@robjohn ha, wise choice!
I really dislike holiday parties, for some reason.
 
@Srivatsan Of course, I could be typing in my sleep right now...
 
Hi srivatsan,
 
Hi Storm
 
I am a big fan of your answers , they are so perfect always
 
blushing Ah, cool. Thanks. :-)
I was just typing that I like the name "Storm". It's the name of an X-Men character.
 
8:58 AM
welcome, oh i see, thats a cool character storm
 
Are you much of a comic book fan, @Srivatsan?
 
@yunone Not really. I haven't read this comic at any rate. I guess it's the movies and the wikipedia.
 
@Srivatsan, also a word in the English language.
Stom is the Hebrew word for "Shut up".
 
your answers inspire me to think out of the box and logically, for elegant solutions, @srivatsan
@asaf really i didnt knew that, lol
 

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