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nbro
nbro
2:14 PM
14
A: Why does many to one reduction imply Turing reducibility?

David RicherbyTo put it informally, $A\leq_{\mathrm{T}}B$ means "If I had a subroutine for $B$, then I could solve $A$", whereas $A\leq_{\mathrm{m}}B$ means, "If I had a subroutine for $B$, then I could solve $A$ using a program that calls the subroutine only once and, furthermore, just returns the answer of t...

If you can solve a problem using a subroutine such that blah blah blah, you can solve that problem using the subroutine.
:D
 

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