5:46 PM
To make the transcript easier to read, the question is: Prove that $\cup_{r\in A}^\infty(-r,r)=(-\sup_{r\in A}r,\sup_{r\in A}r)$
BTW more usual notation would be `\bigcup, i.e. $\bigcup_{r\in A}^\infty(-r,r)=(-\sup_{r\in A}r,\sup_{r\in A}r)$
@unit1991 Do you see that you get $(-r,r)\subseteq (-R,R)$ for each $r\in A$? And can you get one inclusion from this?
So far, we have only used the fat that $R$ is an upper bound. The fact that it is the least upper bound will be useful in the opposite inclusion.
A reminder that info on MathJax in chat can be found in this post on meta or the bookmarklet can be obtained directly from robjohn's website.
2
> Now let's $x\in(-\sup r,\sup r)$ have difficulties for proving this part and proof of first part is right?
hint: if $x\in(-\sup A,\sup A)$ then there exists $\epsilon > 0$ such that $-\sup A + \epsilon < x < \sup A - \epsilon$ — podiki 4 hours ago
@podiki the sup equals infinity case need a little different treatment. — Henno Brandsma 4 hours ago
4 hours later…
10:06 PM
Both links above go to a comment. So here is one more try to actually link to the question: Prove that $\cup_{r\in A}^\infty(-r,r)=(-\sup_{r\in A}r,\sup_{r\in A}r)$.
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