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Martin Sleziak
Martin Sleziak
6:49 AM
in Mathematics, 23 hours ago, by Poline Sandra
if I know that the space (E,d) is complete and (E,d') is not complete can I say that d and d' are not equivalent?
in Mathematics, 23 hours ago, by Alessandro Codenotti
(0,1) is not complete with the metric induced by $\Bbb R$, but it is if you pull the metric through a homeomorphism between $\Bbb R$ and $(0,1)$
in Mathematics, 23 hours ago, by Alessandro Codenotti
The two metrics induce the same topology however
in Mathematics, 23 hours ago, by Poline Sandra
equivalent not in the topological sense d and d' are equivalent iff there exists two positive constants a and b such that ad<d'<bd
 

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