The partial converse 2 is given below:
And the question is given below:
1-I am wondering why this problem considered as an extension of partial converse 2? could anyone answer this question for me please?
2-Also I know to solve 1.4.4 I should start by proving the second equality f...
Let $U\cup V=[0,1]$ be an open cover. Then exists $n\in\mathbb{N}$ such that for every $0\leq k<n$ the interval $[\frac{k}{n},\frac{k+1}{n}]$ is completly in $U$ or $V$.
I want to proof this, but I am not sure what exactly is to proof.
At first I understood the question that the intervals $...
Let $U\cup V=[0,1]$ be an open cover. Then exists $n\in\mathbb{N}$ such that for every $0\leq k<n$ the interval $[\frac{k}{n},\frac{k+1}{n}]$ is completly in $U$ or $V$.
I want to proof this, but I am not sure what exactly is to proof.
At first I understood the question that the intervals $...
