As the title says: why don't we add Wilson loops to common Lagrangians such as the Standard Model? They're gauge invariant and (correct me if I'm wrong, not sure on that) are renormalizable. Suppose they are indeed renormalizable, one answer I can think of is that they are not per-se a function ...

I can't find any reference which mentions the dependence of the theorem on spacetime dimension, but it would be very interesting to know what if any it has!

This is not a duplicate, non of the answers gives a clear answer and most of the answers contradict. There are so many questions about this and so many answers, but none of them says clearly if the electron's change of orbitals as per QM can be expressed at a time component or is measurable (tak...