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12:43 AM
in Mathematics, 1 hour ago, by MatheinBoulomenos
@MrCauchy it's automatically $\Bbb Q$-linear
@MrCauchy If I understand your question correctly, from additivity you get Q-linearity, so the answer is yes.
If you have f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y), you can easily get f(nx)=nf(x) for positive integers.
Using f(x)=0 you get also f(zx)=zf(x) for all integers.
And from this you can get f(rx)=rf(x) for any rational r.
This is explained, for example, on Wikipedia: Cauchy's functional equation.
in Mathematics, 1 hour ago, by MrCauchy
so i originally had two subfields with a field homomorphism, i have shown they are Q-subspaces. I want to show the the image of the homomorphism restricted to Q is exactly Q itself, i figured that if i could show it was a linear map then f(q) = qf(1) for any q in Q
I am not sure in which field you are working. (Two subfields of R? Two subfields of C?)
44
Q: Is an automorphism of the field of real numbers the identity map?

Makoto KatoIs an automorphism of the field of real numbers $\mathbb{R}$ the identity map? If yes, how can we prove it? Remark An automorphism of $\mathbb{R}$ may not be continuous.

 

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