0
How to prove the following uniform convergence?
$$ f_n(x):= \sum_{i=\lceil n x \rceil}^n\frac{\lceil nx \rceil (n-\lceil n x \rceil)! p^{i-\lceil nx \rceil}
(1-p)^{n-i}}{i (i-\lceil nx \rceil)!
(n-i)!} \longrightarrow f(x)=x \log (-p x+p+x)-x \log (x) $$
14
If a poster includes in the title some formula in enclosed between $$, like $$x^2+y^2=z^2$$
$$x^2+y^2=z^2$$
the title of the question will take up more space in various lists of questions, like here or here. I guess that we can agree that this is not a good way to use MathJax (LaTeX) in titles.
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@YCor made a suggestion in an answer to another post (What is the intended use of the (proofs) tag?) a bit over a year ago. It received several upvotes, but does not appear to have been acted upon. I thought it might receive more attention here:
It's not exactly about the original question, bu...
