last day (15 days later) » 

7:33 PM
@Ultradark
Want to study now?
Or busy atm?
^_^
 
I could study now but
 
You're a butt, not me!
:D
 
can we spend a few minutes discussing something?
 
Sure
Shoot
waiting
Dude, you're not typing anything!
 
I'm a slow typer
Consider the matrix $$A=\begin{pmatrix} e^s&0\\ 0&e^{-s} \end{pmatrix}$$
 
7:36 PM
You need some electronic writing pad maybe lol
K where $s \in \Bbb{C}$?
 
$s\in \Bbb R$
 
K
What about it
 
You know that this is a rotation matrix?
 
It's a diagonal matrix
Oh, I see what you're askingt
 
it can be written in the form of hyperbolic cosines and such
 
7:37 PM
Oh, but not as regular cosines?
 
no
 
Do you have a reference for writing that in terms of cosh?
 
because this defines hyperbolic rotation of points in the plane
 
okay hold on
$$\begin{pmatrix}
\cosh(\phi) & \sinh(\phi) \\
\sinh(\phi) & \cosh(\phi) \end{pmatrix}$$
 
7:40 PM
where $\phi$ = ?
 
here's the hyperbolic rotation matrix
angle
 
What's the definition of $\cosh$?
Nvm
found it on goog
I see your formula
now what
I see now that it equals that diagonal matrix
 
okay great
 
When $\phi = 2\pi k$
 
Let's increase the power $$B=\begin{pmatrix} (e^{e^s})^{-1}&0\\ 0&(e^{e^{-s}})^{-1} \end{pmatrix}$$
$$C=\begin{pmatrix} (e^{e^s}) &0\\ 0&(e^{e^{-s}}) \end{pmatrix}$$
 
7:44 PM
Now what
I mean it's at $\phi = \pi k$
$k \in \Bbb{Z}$
 
Would you agree that $B$ and $C$
are images of a hyperbolic rotation?
 
in other words a mapping of a hyperbolic rotation to some other space
 
Let $R(\theta) = $ your matrix
at $\theta$
I mean matrices compose by multiplying them but you took the output entries of one and plugged them into a paramete
 
let $e^s \to s$
 
7:47 PM
?
Ready to study CA?
 
by using this substitution
 
I don't think your conclusion is correct
You didn't multiply any matrices
Matrix(Rotation + Rotation') = Matrix(Rotation) * Matrix(Rotation')
Where Rotation = $\phi$.
 
hm
 
RotMatrix($\phi$) = a hom from $(\Bbb{R}, +)$ into $(GL_2(\Bbb{R}), \times)$
note the $\times$
That's just row by column dotting or matrix mul
?
Ready
 
I see where your coming from
yeah I'm just going to ask on the main site just to make sure and understand what's going on
because me and 2 others on the math chat came to the conclusion
 
7:54 PM
Oh cool
I could be wrong
Homework quiz
If $R$ is a commutative ring with $1$ and $I \leqslant R$ is an ideal, what can you tell me about the ideals of $R/I$?
 
they are also ideals in
R
I believe
so they form an additive group
and absorb into the ring
 
?
$S = R/I$ is a separate but related ring to $R$
SO the ideals are not equal
They're not even comparable
 
oh okay
 
An ideal in $R$ is a set of elements of $R$
While an ideal in $R/I$ is a set of cosets of $I$, a set of sets of elements of $R$ if you will
You can't naturally compare a set of sets of elements to a set of elements
See the text
what does it say on the issue
I'm working from the last position in the text
Give me one paragraph about ideals of $R/I$
Or a few sentences
:)
 
you're so fast
I'm trying to keep up
 
8:01 PM
Keep pen and paper handy
 
okay
 
To sketch proofs
then typing it will be easier
 
you sent me the new book right?
 
It's by Atiyah-McDonald
You got it ?
 
yeah
 
8:03 PM
Start the proof out
Let $\phi : A \to A/I$
be the natural surjection which is ?
It takes $x \in A$ to what?
 
I gotta go the bathroom
 
LOL
k
Log-a-rhythm
you're a regular mathematician
:D
There?
 
just got back
 
K
What is the natural surjection from $A \to A/I$?
given by?
 
okay so it looks like that mapping maps its coset to $x +a$
 
8:12 PM
Defined as...
Nope
that's not it
$x \mapsto $?
 
$x\in A$
 
Yes
$A$ is our ring, I changed to $A$ from $R$
$I \subset A$ is an ideal of $A$
$x \mapsto x + $?
 
Where's $a$ defined?
I didn't define $a$
I said $I$ is our ideal
 
it's in the book
$\mathfrak a$
 
8:15 PM
Then $\mathfrak{a} = I$ here
You have to be comfortable with switching notations
SO $x \mapsto x + I$ under $\phi$
 
oh yes
 
Prove that $\phi$ is a ring hom
 
okay so $\phi$ maps our ring $A$ to a quotient ring
and we are quotienting by the ideal $I$
 
Yep, but you haven't seen that it's actually a hom as well as a set map
Yep
 
homomorphism?
 
8:18 PM
To prove hom
 
hom?
 
you have to prove $\phi(x + y) = \phi(x) + \phi(y)$ and $\phi(xy) = \phi(x)\phi(y)$ for all $x, y \in A$.
So do it on paper, then present here
I'll do addition
then you do multiplication
$\phi(x + y) = x + y + I $ by defintion $= x + I + y + I$ since $I + I = I$, and that equals $\phi(x) + \phi(y)$. Done
Multiplication will be different but similar
 
so essentially i have to prove that the map $\phi$ sends a ring to another ring
 
No, that's already proven
You defined the set map already
and the sets happen to be rings
now you have to prove that $\phi$ respects their ring structures
We already know that they are rings
we defined them when we said let $A$ be a comm. ring with $1$ and then we talked about quotienting and saw that $A/I$ is also a ring
BUt we haven't yet proved that there is a hom between the two structures
This will imply a hom $\Bbb{Z} \to \Bbb{Z}/n \Bbb{Z}$ for any $n \in \Bbb{Z}$ and where we took $A = \Bbb{Z}$ here.
a surjective hom in particular
It's surjective because the set map is surjective by definition
$x + I$ covers all cosets
A surjective hom is just a hom that is surjective (as a set map)
In other words its surjective function in the usual way: $\forall y \in $ codomain, there exists $x \in $ domain such that $f(x) = y$.
So prove multiplication is preserved by $\phi$ similar to my proof above
?
 
okay
I ran into some connection issues
 
8:26 PM
$\phi(xy) = (xy + I) = $?
Some times its easier to work backwards in math to get ideas
$\phi(x) \phi(y) = (x + I) (y + I) = xy + xI + yI + I\cdot I$
Now why does the right hand side equal $xy + I$ actually?
 
because our ideal $I$
 
Actually, ignore this approach
read this:
8
A: What does "defining multiplication in quotient rings" actually mean?

egregThe multiplication in the quotient ring is not defined by $$ (a+I)(b+I)= \{\,(a+i_{1})(b+i_{2}): (i_{1},i_{2})\in I \times I\,\} $$ but by $$ (a+I)(b+I)=ab+I. $$ This is a definition, nothing else. Why do we define it in this way? Because it does what we want, together with $$ (a+I)+(b+I)=(a+b)+I...

We define $(a + I) (b + I) = ab + I$
otherwise it doesn't work out
we get $xy + xI + yI + I\cdot I = xy + S$ where $S \subset I$
Are you done scanning that answer?
 
yeah
 
THe only thing you have to show is that $\cdot$ is well-defined
but what talked a little about that last time
it will keep coming up this well-definedness of certain maps
Okay, now take an ideal $\mathfrak{b} \subset A/I$.
Prove that $\phi^{-1}(\mathfrak{b})$ is an ideal of $A$
based solely on the fact that $\phi$ is a ring hom.
Might also require surjectivity
Actually, take $f: A \to B$ to be any ring hom of rings $A, B$, and if necessary take $f$ surjective
Prove that $f^{-1}(I)$ is an ideal of $A$ for any ideal $I \subset B$.
So start simply
You say "let $I \subset B$ be an ideal."
Are you there ?
 
Let $I\subset B$ be an ideal
 
8:34 PM
Okay
Now
What does $f^{-1}(I)$ equal?
by definition of taking inverse-image of a function
?
$f(I) = \{ x \in A : f(x) \in I\}$
That is the set we want to prove is an ideal
To prove that it is an ideal
You only need to show subgroup, and scalar absorption
To show subgroup, you don't need to show both $+$ inverses and closure under $+$. You combine those two and you only need to show that for all $x, y \in f^{-1}(I)$ we have $x -y \in f^{-1}(I)$.
Showing closure under $x-y$ implies closure under inverses (take $x = 0$)
and closure under $+$
Because $-(-y) = y$
Does that make sense?
So show that $f^{-1}(I) = J$ is closed under $-$.
Are you there?
 
yeah this is just very advanced for me
 

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