The multiplication in the quotient ring is not defined by
$$
(a+I)(b+I)=
\{\,(a+i_{1})(b+i_{2}): (i_{1},i_{2})\in I \times I\,\}
$$
but by
$$
(a+I)(b+I)=ab+I.
$$
This is a definition, nothing else. Why do we define it in this way? Because it does what we want, together with
$$
(a+I)+(b+I)=(a+b)+I...
We define $(a + I) (b + I) = ab + I$
otherwise it doesn't work out
we get $xy + xI + yI + I\cdot I = xy + S$ where $S \subset I$
by definition of taking inverse-image of a function
?
$f(I) = \{ x \in A : f(x) \in I\}$
That is the set we want to prove is an ideal
To prove that it is an ideal
You only need to show subgroup, and scalar absorption
To show subgroup, you don't need to show both $+$ inverses and closure under $+$. You combine those two and you only need to show that for all $x, y \in f^{-1}(I)$ we have $x -y \in f^{-1}(I)$.
Showing closure under $x-y$ implies closure under inverses (take $x = 0$)