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4:17 AM
Say for all $m<1,$ and $a>1,$ you take all points $(a,b)$ and $(1/b,1/a)$ such that line $y=mx$ contains those points.

And for all $m>1,$ and $a>1,$ you take all points $(b,a)$ and $(1/a,1/b)$ such that line $y=mx$ contains those points.

For $m=1$ you take all points $c>0,$ $(c,c)$ and $(1/c,1/c)$ such that the line $y=mx$ contains that point.
 
Not sure I understand
 
which part?
oh
 
So let $X = $ I need set builder notation pls
 
okay
 
Please present in standard formats :D
 
4:20 AM
this is the best I can present it as tho
and all the points taken together trace out a curve
 
Okay
let me help there
 
thank you
 
So
When you say all points $(a,b),(1/b,1/a)$ such that $y = mx$ I'm thinking there's another way to say that
$y = mx$ contains those two points only if: b = ma and 1/a = m 1/b, but those two are equivalent
Thus you're stating a redundancy which is why intuitively it seemed wrong to me
Did you mean 1/b = m 1/a ?
Are you there?
 
Um
 
only if == then
 
4:25 AM
yeah I'm trying to process if that's equivalent to what i said
 
Under $m \lt 1, a \gt 1$ if $y = mx$ contains $(a,b)$ then $b = ma$ by definition.
 
okay I guess you're right
 
So you get $1/a = 1/b m$ or that $y=mx$ contains $(1/b, 1/a)$
automatically
 
okay
 
You shouldn't state redundancies in math, they'll be called red herrings
:)
 
4:27 AM
okay
 
It was an accident
Want to study on some algebraics?
 
Yeah it was a rough draft definition
 
What's a commutative ring?
Commutative algebra is where its at, bro
 
isn't it just a ring whose multiplication operation is commutative
 
Yep
Give an example
 
4:30 AM
$\Bbb Z$
 
Yep
sent you some books
Want to search around before we settle on a book or is Atiyah-McDonald okay?
For CA
it's pretty pop
 
yeah Atiyah-McDonald is good
but I really wanted to try to figure out that question I posed
I'm having trouble putting it down
 
That means you should give it a rest, and come back to it later
Write down everything that you need or ideas you had
otherwhise you'll just get mind loops
for days
 
okay
 
That's the first page
How you say the red underlined part
is you say:
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1$.
All rings in this book will be such
Without looking at the book
what's the definition of ring homomorphism
 
4:38 AM
a mapping that preserves a ring structure
 
thanks now im looking at the specifics
 
K, so you understand that since $f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)$ that it also preserves $x - y$ as well just basic proofs using group theory
$f(x - y) = f(x) - f(y)$
 
okay
 
Since rings are additive groups we have that $f(-x) = -f(x)$ prove that for me
whenever $f$ is a function that happens to also be a ring hom.
I guess it's possible to have group homs between rings that ignore the algebraic structure
like a forgetful functor in category theory
*ignore the mult. structure
$f(x - x) = f(0) = 0$ (by definition of ring hom $f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1$)
So $f(x + (-x)) = f(x - x) = 0 = f(x) + f(-x)$
$f(-x) = -f(x)$.
$\square$
That's one way to prove that
Are you there?
 
4:44 AM
yeah
 
What is an ideal of a commutative ring
And using $\Bbb{Z}$ and $(4) = 4\Bbb{Z}$ as an example
Enumerate all elements of $\Bbb{Z}/(4)$ = the ring of integer modulo $4$.
 
It's a subset of the ring whose elements absorb into the ring and whose elements themselves form a ring
 
Yep
It's enough that the elements form a group
but every Ideal is actually a subring, nice catch!
 
haha :)
 
Now
State the 1st isomorphism theorem for groups
It's actually known as "the first"
for structure X
monoid, group, ring, module = X
 
4:49 AM
every group is isomorphic to a permutation group
 
That's not it, but is probably true
I've heard that before
From AA
Say you have a sequence of groups $G \xrightarrow{f} H \xrightarrow{z} 0$
And group homomorphisms
We say that the sequence is exact at $H$ if $\ker z = \text{im} f$.
Here, what are $\ker z$ and $\text{im} f$ (their general definition?)
 
$\ker$ stands for kernel
but I'
not really sure what it means
 
Kernel of any algebraic structure is usually the pre-image of identity for that structure
 
okay so the kernel of a group is the pre-image of the identity for that group
 
In this case $\ker f = \{ x \in G : f(x) = 0 \}$ if $H, G$ are both treated in additive notation (which would make $0$ the identity).
What does the $\ker f$ kernel form?
?
Be quick about this
one
?
 
4:57 AM
not sure
 
I will show you what I mean if you don't know the answer
It forms a subgroup of $G$ but not just any type of subgroup, a normal subgroup.
What's the definition of a normal subgroup?
It's just $a + N = N + a \ \forall a \in G$.
And $N$ is a subgroup of $G$.
Without normality, it's not true in general that $(a + G) + (b + G)$ can be well-defined
as $(a + b) + G$.
What is a group with no proper, non-trivial, normal subgroup?
Why don't we have to worry about normality in the ring setting?
When we transfer language over from normal subgroup of $G$ to ideal $I \subset R$?
 
an irreducible group
 
No, it's just called a "simple group".
So, if I take any subgroup $I \subset R$ that is an additive subgroup, then isn't it already a normal subgroup?
Since $R$ is commutative, we have $a + I = \{ a + b : b \in I \} = \{ b + a : b \in I \} = I + a$.
Therefore all ideals of a ring are already normal subgroups by definition
and you can quotient by them to obtain a ring structure in the natural way
A lot of times this makes a finite ring out of an infinite one
 
okay
 
You write $R/I = \{ a + I : a \in R\}$
it's the set of cosets
for $\Bbb{Z}/(4)$ that's
$\{1 + (4), 2 + (4), 3 + (4), 0 + (4) = (4)\}$.
That set forms a ring
with well-defined multiplication and addition given
by multiplying and adding respectively the residues
the residues modulo $(4)$ are just $1, 2, 3, 0$.
You could also choose $6$ instead of $2$
so $1, 6, 3, 0$ is a complete set of residudes
why is that?
Also, before we proceed, pick a quotient ring operation either $+$ or $\cdot$ and prove that it is well-defined
Why that proof is necessary, explain
 
5:08 AM
$+$
 
sure
To prove well-defined ness w.r.t. quotienting
You need to prove that if $a + I = a' + I$ that either one will result in the same coset $(a + b) + I = (a' + b) + I$ for all $b \in R$.
Prove it
It should only take up to three sentences
Show me the money
Still waiting
Start typing it out
O___O
 
$a+b$ is in the ring
 
Yes
if $a, b$ are
but $a + I = $ a set
= just what it reads: elementwise addition: = $\{ a + i : i \in I\}$.
What happens when you do $(a + I) + (b + I)$?
What then?
 
you're adding the set of cosets to another set of cosets
 
yes, so prove that it equals $a + b + I$.
Can you?
If $x \in I$, what is $x + I$?
 
5:18 AM
$I4
$I$
 
Why?
Why does $x + I = I$ whenever $x \in I$?
?
 
it doesn't matter how many times you have the same element in a set
you only count it once
 
It's because this:
$x \in I \implies b - x \in I$ for all $b \in I$.
Thus $I = \{ x + (b - x) : b \in I \} \subset x + I$.
and $x + I \subset I$ since $I$ is a group!
and is closed under $+$
Thus you have $I \subset x + I$ and $x + I \subset I$ or they have to be equal
Now given that $I + I = \bigcup_{x \in I} (x + I)$
What is $I + I$?
 
$I$
 
Correctomundo!
Thus $a + I + b + I = a + b + I$!
See that now?
 
5:24 AM
yeah
 
It is therefore well defined
since if $a' + I = a + I'$
then $a' - a + I = I$ or in other words $a' - a = a' - a + 0 \in I$
Conversely if $a' - a \in I$ then $a' + I = a + I$
 
okay that was a good hour of studying
 
Thus we can say that $a' + b + I = a + b + I \iff $ subtract $b$ from both sides
$a' + I = a + I$
Thus $+$ is well-defined
Cool
Yes, thanks for learning
We're going to get you up to speed so that we can be on the same page of CA book
 
okay
 
It's not much further before we get to some higher math stuff
 
5:28 AM
is tomorrow morning good?
 
Like $\text{Spec}(R)$
Surce
*sure
 
okay probably around noon, but ill ping you
 
okay bye
 

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