Conversation started May 2, 2017 at 23:55.
May 2, 2017 23:55
I'll just explain real quick again:
ε1 = {ε0, ε0^ε0, ε0^ε0^ε0, ...}
ε2 = {ε1, ε1^ε1, ε1^ε1^ε1, ...}
...
εω = {ε1, ε2, ε3, ...}
ε(ω+1) = {εω, εω^εω, εω^εω^εω, ...}
---
φ(1,x) = ε(x)
Veblen function time
YAY!!
i get dis
for now
On a side note, mirror cubes are solved with the same strategy as the 6 color 3x3 cube but it is way harder. If you really want to get crazy there are also "ghosts cubes"
φ(2,0) = {ε0, ε(ε0), ε(ε(ε0)), ...}
but not dat one!!
@InfiniteMonkey i can solve a mirror cube blindfolded...
@SimplyBeautifulArt k i get it
May 2, 2017 23:58
φ(2,1) = {ε(x), ε(ε(x)), ε(ε(ε(x))), ...} where x=φ(2,0)+1
φ(2,2) = {ε(y), ε(ε(y)), ε(ε(ε(y))), ...} where y=φ(2,1)+1
just add 1?
φ(2,ω) = {φ(2,1), φ(2,2), φ(2,3), ...}
oh wait...
Add one and then do lots of ε's
i get the 2nd line now
eh
???
May 3, 2017 00:00
φ(3,0) = {φ(2,0), φ(2,φ(2,0)), φ(2,φ(2,φ(2,0))), ...}
Just like how φ(2,0) was a lot of ε's, we have φ(3,0) as a lot of φ(2,x)'s
and then φ(w,0)
and then to the skies!!
φ(ω,0) = {φ(1,0), φ(2,0), φ(3,0), ...}
but then φ(e0, 0)=φ(0, 0, 0)
i think
or is it lgr
May 3, 2017 00:02
φ(ω,1) = {φ(1,x), φ(2,x), φ(3,x), ...} where x=φ(ω,0)+1
@AlexanderDay and nope to that
φ(ω+1,0) = {φ(ω,0), φ(ω,φ(ω,0)), φ(ω,φ(ω,φ(ω,0))), ...}
etc.
then when do we get to φ(0,0,0)?????????????
φ(ε0,0) = {φ(ω,0), φ(ω^ω,0), φ(ω^ω^ω,0), ....}
May 3, 2017 00:04
φ(1,0,0) = {φ(1,0), φ(φ(1,0),0), φ(φ(φ(1,0),0),0), ...}
Notice that φ(φ(1,0),0) = φ(ε0,0)
Very very very big
mind blown
the supermum of that...
BOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOMMMMMMMMMMM!!!!!!!!!!!
φ(1,0,1) = {φ(x,0), φ(φ(x,0),0), φ(φ(φ(x,0),0),0), ...} where x=φ(1,0,0)+1
φ(1,0,2) = {φ(x,0), φ(φ(x,0),0), φ(φ(φ(x,0),0),0), ...} where x=φ(1,0,1)+1
May 3, 2017 00:07
φ(1,1,0) = {φ(1,0,0), φ(1,0,φ(1,0,0)), φ(1,0,φ(1,0,φ(1,0,0))), ...}
lemme guess...
φ(1,1,1) = ?
@SimplyBeautifulArt repeat these parts...
@AlexanderDay Yup!
@SimplyBeautifulArt with this part...
May 3, 2017 00:08
φ(1,1,1) = {φ(x,0), φ(φ(x,0),0), φ(φ(φ(x,0),0),0), ...} where x=φ(1,1,0)+1
φ(2,0,0) = {φ(1,0,0), φ(1,φ(1,0,0),0), φ(1,φ(1,φ(1,0,0),0),0), ....}
i was typing that...
φ(1,0,0,0) = {φ(1,0,0), φ(φ(1,0,0),0,0), φ(φ(φ(1,0,0),0,0),0,0), ...}
Mine!
φ(1,0,0,1) = {φ(x,0,0), φ(φ(x,0,0),0,0), φ(φ(φ(x,0,0),0,0),0,0), ...} where x=φ(1,0,0,0)+1
And it just keeps going like this
and just keep going...
May 3, 2017 00:11
HAHA
BTW, could you tell me what googolpelxainth is close to in Veblan terms??
Small Veblen Ordinal = {φ(1,0), φ(1,0,0), φ(1,0,0,0), ....}
it is 10^{10^{10^100}}
googolplexianth < f_ω²(3)
Nowhere close to Veblen
May 3, 2017 00:13
We then have things beyond all of Veblen ordinals
Mainly, we have the ordinal collapsing function (OCF)
and I have to wash dishes
K
what about Meameamealokkapoowa oompa the number i mentioned a few days ago to get you concerned?
May 3, 2017 00:35
U back yet?
Back
@AlexanderDay you beat it with super extended ordinal collapsing functions
going...
going....
...AND IT"S OUTTA HERE!!
it's way outtta Veblan function!!
May 3, 2017 00:43
how big is it?
i heard the inventor of Bower's operators came up with it.
That is false
what's next?
wait---WHAT!!
it was in my book 1001 mathemathics!!
who did??????????????
C(α,0) = {0,1,ω,Ω}
C(α,n+1) = C(α,n) U {δ+Γ, δΓ, δ^Γ, ψ(µ) | δ,Γ,µ in C(α,n) and µ<α}
ψ(α) = {δn | δn in C(α,n) and δn<Ω, n in N}
Ω > ψ(α)
May 3, 2017 00:47
?????
This is the scary looking ordinal collapsing function
i see gamma, delta,and in. i never got in.
don't worry, we'll go through it step by step
could u give me a crash course in the in??
??
?
First of all, there is no such ψ(-1). We never have negative numbers
May 3, 2017 00:49
???
ψ(0) is the first number
C(0,0) = {0,1,ω,Ω}
To get to C(0,1), just add, multiply, and exponentiate all of this
C(0,1) = {0, 1, 2, ω, ω+1, ω2, ω^2, ω^ω, Ω, Ω+1, Ω+ω, Ω2, Ωω, ...}
May 3, 2017 00:51
                                ??
still confused.
talk about scary-looking
2 = 1+1
ω2 = ω+ω
ω^2 = ω*ω
All I did was add, multiply, exponentiate. We started with {0,1,ω,Ω} and now we have this
BUT that is in Veblan function??
It looks like Veblen function... but it will stop looking like Veblen function later
but is it momentarily?
Yes
max(C(0,1) and less than Ω) = ω^ω
May 3, 2017 00:53
k
You agree with this so far?
very big
all i have to say
Mhm
C(0,2) = add, multiply, exponentiate all the previous stuff
C(0,2) = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ω, ω+1, ω+2, ω+3, ω2, ω2+1, ω2+2, ω3, ω4, ω^2, ω^2+1, ω^2+2, ω^2+ω, ω^2+ω2, ω^ω, ...., Ω, Ω+1, Ω+2, ....}
like this:{0, 1, 2, 3, ω, ω+1, w+2, ω2, w3ω^2, w^3ω^ω, w^w^w, Ω, Ω+1, Ω+2, Ω+ω, Ω2, Ωω, ...}
Yeah, pretty much what I got, you get the general idea
May 3, 2017 00:56
beat me to it. AURRRRUUUUUUUUUUGGGGGGGHHHHHHHHHHH!!!!
max(C(0,2) and less than Ω) = ω^ω^ω
etc.
ψ(0) = {ω^ω, ω^ω^ω, ω^ω^ω^ω, ....}
= ε0
C(1,0) = {0,1,ω,Ω}
the same!!
or is it??
The thing different about C(1,1) is that not only do we add, multiply and exponentiate, but we also do ψ(µ) for µ in {0,1,ω,Ω} and µ<1
& is still veblan....
So C(1,1) is just like C(0,1) except we also have ψ(0) thrown into the mix, since 0 is in {0,1,ω,Ω} and 0<1
May 3, 2017 00:59
???
C(α,0) = {0,1,ω,Ω}
C(α,n+1) = C(α,n) U {δ+Γ, δΓ, δ^Γ, ψ(µ) | δ,Γ,µ in C(α,n) and µ<α}
ψ(α) = {δn | δn in C(α,n) and δn<Ω, n in N}
Ω > ψ(α)
C(1,1) = {0, 1, 2, ω, ω+1, ω2, ω^2, ω^ω, ψ(0), Ω, Ω+1, Ω+ω, Ω2, Ωω, ...}
head explodes
oh...
So it turns out that...
ψ(1) = {ψ(0), ψ(0)^ψ(0), ψ(0)^ψ(0)^ψ(0), ....}
= ε1
May 3, 2017 01:03
so then C(2,0) is where ψ(2) is the t/z thingie??
or e(e0)
ψ(2) = ε2
Much smaller
ψ(3) = ε3
May 3, 2017 01:04
@SimplyBeautifulArt so that is where you where going!
@InfiniteMonkey Just you wait
And then... we have something weird
@InfiniteMonkey hi
ψ(φ(2,0)) = ε(φ(2,0)) = φ(2,0)
Since φ(2,0) = ε(ε(ε(...))) is the t/z thingie
I'll just call it z0
@SimplyBeautifulArt oh...
May 3, 2017 01:05
k
Now, we have magic!
alacadabra, alacazam, make this easier, no we cant!
ψ(z0+1) = z0
ψ(z0+2) = z0
ψ(z0*2) = z0
...
ψ(Ω) = z0
Alaca...what?!
xD
Remember, Ω is very big. It is bigger than ψ(x) for any x.
May 3, 2017 01:07
alacadabra!
um...
@SimplyBeautifulArt looks like a weird "wall"
be back soon!
i gotta go.
Indeed, it is a wall
But this is what makes the ordinal collapsing function... powerful?
@AlexanderDay Bye!
like tomorrow....
sorry...
notice that no matter what you do, you only start with {0,1,ω,Ω}
@AlexanderDay No problem!
From there, you can only add, multiply, exponentiate, and take ψ(µ)
The problem is that we can't take ψ(z0), since to do this, we need to somehow reach z0 first.
May 3, 2017 01:10
I see...
But you can't reach z0 using addition, multiplication, exponentiation, and ψ(µ) for µ values we've reached. If we reached µ=z0, we wouldn't be needing to take ψ(z0) to begin with...
So we're stuck. But not forever.
C(Ω+1,0) = {0,1,ω,Ω}
So ordinal collapsing functions let us "break through" the z0 wall
C(Ω+1,1) = {0, 1, 2, ...., ω^ω, ψ(0), ψ(1), ψ(ω), ψ(Ω), Ω, Ω+1, ...}
Notice the last of these ψ's
We can break through!
Until we hit ψ(Ω+z1) = z1
But we can break through! ψ(Ω+Ω) = ψ(Ω2) = z1
and then we get stuck, and then we break through
eventually ψ(Ωx) = x, so we get stuck.
and then we break through! ψ(Ω²) = x
You get the idea
ψ(Ω^Ω^ω) is the small Veblen ordinal.
ψ(Ω^Ω^Ω) is the large Veblen ordinal
ψ(Ω^Ω^Ω^Ω^...) is the Bachmann-Howard ordinal
and then we get stuck
May 3, 2017 01:15
but we can break through?
is there anything special to be said about the points where we get stuck or they're not interesting?
Why? Well note that you can never exceed an infinite tower of Ω's due to the restriction of addition, multiplication, and exponentiation, and since Ω>ψ(x), we can't make more Ω's that way
@InfiniteMonkey Yes, at the very low levels, we get some fairly obvious Veblen equivalents
But there is a way to go beyond....
Say hello to ψ1(0) = Ω^Ω^Ω^Ω^...
Just like ψ(0) = ω^ω^ω^ω^...
And the game starts allover again!
Mhm
To break through ψ1(x) = x, we use Ω_2
The second Ω
Again, we get stuck at infinitely many Ω_2's powered to each other, so we use ψ2(0)
then ψ3(0)
etc.
then ψω(0)
We can even reach ψΩ(0)
^^^ Just imagine that!
We can even have Ω_Ω_Ω
and the normal extended OCF ends at infinitely many Ω's tied to each other
Which is where we bring in ψI(0)
That gets quite scary 0.0
the inaccessible cardinals...
Oh yeah. It goes pretty darn far
I's will get stuck, so use I+1, then I+2, etc. even Ω_(I+1), etc. eventually I(1), the second inaccessible
You can even go up to things like I(Ω), or I(I(I(...)))
I(1,0) is beyond all this...
 
Conversation ended May 3, 2017 at 1:23.