Conversation started May 2, 2012 at 17:40.
May 2, 2012 17:40
Grrr... I missed the start again and no one elee started it either...
Begin Parashat Hashavua' Chat #20 - Achare-K'doshim / Emor 5772
Welcome to the chat, @MonicaCellio, @Alex, @HodofHod, @Jin, @ShmuelBrin, @IsaacMoses.
(I'm going to be in and out today; will try to keep up.)
Anyone have anything to start us off?
Okay... there seems to be some discrepancy between the order of things in the chumash and the actual crhonologcial order the kohen gadol did things on Yom Kipur. (And a dispute amongst rishonim as to what the discrepancy is exactly.) is there a reason the Torah didn't put the events in chronological order? Any conjectures, or anyone know?
@msh210 Torah Temimah says that it's because the Torah wanted to put together everything that the kohen gadol does in the white clothes.
And Malbim says the same thing.
@Alex that makes sense. The torah sometimes describes things out of order and sometimes it's for thematic groupings, though probably not always. But that's a good place to start.
@Alex, oh, thanks :-)
@MonicaCellio Any other examples off the top of your (or anyone's) head?
May 2, 2012 17:52
@msh210 There's the fact that the Torah mentions Terach's (and Yitzchak's) deaths long before they actually happened, because it's finishing up with them and then going on to the next generation
@msh210 the Lamech story in B'reishit seems out of place. When did Mishpatim happen exactly? I know there are more but that's off the top of my head.
@Alex @MonicaCellio thanks
@MonicaCellio ...though the Lemech story happened when it happened, I think.
(4:18ff)
@msh210 but then we go back to Adam and Chava and their third son... but Lamech was several generations later.
(Lamech? Lemech? I've seen both.)
@msh210 According to Rashi, yes, because he says that this led to Adam getting back together with Chava and fathering Sheis. But I don't think everyone agrees to that; it might well have been some other time during the thousand-plus years until the flood.
@MonicaCellio right, true.
@Alex rght, I meant though that it occurs after his parents had him.
May 2, 2012 17:56
@Alex oh, I didn't realize that. Though I know the lifespans overlapped way more than my instinct says and I'm often surprised by who was contemporary.
@MonicaCellio Lemech. Lamech at the end of a sentence
@msh210 thanks. (While we're off on this tangent, and what's with Bilaam/Balaam?)
@msh210 I think in the English versions they use "Lamech" consistently, though
@MonicaCellio Different transliterations?
@Alex Weird.
@MonicaCellio Also Miriam/Mary, Shimshon/Samson, etc.
May 2, 2012 17:58
And while we're off on the tangent, is it Shim'on ben Shetach or ben Shatach? or ben Shetach except pausally and then Shatach? I've seen all three, I think (or at least the latter two)
@jake, welcome to the parsha chat, or whatever it's become. Sorry, I didn't see you walk in.
@msh210 Yeah, hi. I'm kinda busy with something else, so we'll see how much I can participate.
If we want to go back to the parsha (at least as a starting point): One thing that struck me reading this week (though it's all over the place, really): why do we get "speak to Aharon (and his sons) and all b'nei Yisrael"? Isn't that redundant? What is this repetition meant to teach us?
@MonicaCellio I'm pretty sure Rashi says, somewhere (@Alex?), that Moshe taught the mitzvos to Aharon, then the two of them to his sons and other leaders, and then all of them taught all the Jews. Or something like that: don't quote me on that exactly.
Anyone?
@msh210 Yeah, it's to Ex. 34:32 (quoting Eruvin 54a).
@msh210 so what about the cases where it's just "speak to b'nei yisrael"?
May 2, 2012 18:03
I was wondering this week, actually, in relation to the arayos. We paskin that kiddushin is tofes only for chiyuvei kares, right? Doesn't this mean that between a Jew and a non-Jew, kiddushin does take affect, since it's only a lav?
@MonicaCellio, (Sorry to interrupt your question)
@jake b'seder
@MonicaCellio With the beginning of ch. 19, Rashi mentions that Moshe was to speak publicly to everyone at once (bypassing the normal order, I guess). Dunno about other cases.
@jake "is not tofes" you mean....
@Alex versus, e.g. 17:2, where we get the construction I mentioned. Maybe we only see that for matters that involve the kohanim somehow?
May 2, 2012 18:05
@msh210 Yes, thank you.
@msh210 Too late to change it now.
@jake sorry for the beginner question, but tofes is...?
@MonicaCellio grabs hold (modern Hebrew, "catch" (like a ball)), or, here, latch onto
@MonicaCellio Yeah, that's what I was thinking. Maybe the kohanim particularly need to be warned to not let their friends convince them to offer their korbanos anywhere.
@MonicaCellio In this context, "takes affect"
Is it "effect"?
@jake Yes.
May 2, 2012 18:06
@jake thanks.
@jake Really? Curious. I can if you like.
@jake A relationship between a Jew and a non-Jew is indeed subject to kares, although only midivrei kabbalah (based on a verse in Nach rather than in the Torah)
@msh210 Don't worry about it.
@Alex Is that a g'mara somewhere? That's it's a chiyuv kares?
@Alex Ahh, interesting. Because I remember reading in Rashi in Sanhedrin (link to follow) that it is only a lav and therefore kiddushin is not tofes.
@msh210 Sanhedrin 82a. Actually, more clearly: 82b, Rashi ד"ה הא אקריוה.
Second line in Rashi.
What's up with that?
It's derived from "Lo Sitchaten Bam" - There isn't a concept of marriage (According to R' Shimon) or from ואחר כן תבוא אליה ובעלתה (According to R' Yehuda) - After one does the process of Yefes Toar there is a concept of marriage, but beforehand there is no marriage.
@ShmuelBrin Thanks.
@Alex Thanks
May 2, 2012 18:13
Speaking of things out of order, and of forbidden relations: how come the Torah puts ch. 19 (with its massive number of mitzvos, both interpersonal and between us and Hashem) between chs. 18 and 20, both of which talk about forbidden relations?
@ShmuelBrin Is that even according to the m"d that the pasuk is referring to all goyim (not just 7 umos)?
@jake IIUC, that's R' Shimon (who Darshens Taamei Dekrah)
@Alex I'd say maybe thematic again -- first all the isurin then all the on'shin -- but then 21 is isurin again.
@msh210 yeah, the overall ordering is puzzling.
@MonicaCellio As is the ordering within that chapter: respect parents, keep Shabbos, stay away from idols (so far three of the Ten Commandments, but out of order), rules for sacrifices, harvest gifts for the poor... and that's just the first ten verses or so!
May 2, 2012 18:26
@Alex and this chapter, unlike the surrounding ones, is addressed to kol adat yisrael, not just yisrael. Significant?
@MonicaCellio Well, that's what leads Rashi to say that it was said at a public gathering, "because most of the fundamentals of Torah are included in it."
@Alex Sounds like something RSRH would talk about. I don't have him here, though.
@Alex ah. I was wondering if it meant "hey all, this is really important, women and kids too -- listen up". Versus just relying on the men to manage/teach?
@MonicaCellio Well, a public gathering may well include women and kids, but it means all the jews directly rather than Aharon first, etc., as described above. According to Rashi, anyway.
@MonicaCellio Very likely. Ex. 35 is also addressed to "kol adas Yisrael," and there we know that the women were heavily involved too.
@msh210 Indeed, the term "hakhel" is probably meant to suggest just that - like the septennial hakhel described in parshas Vayelech
May 2, 2012 18:29
@Alex There it's "kol adas b'ne Yisrael".
@msh210 Oh, here, too.
@msh210 Which is interesting, then, because when it says "bnei Aharon" it's often explained to mean "but not the daughters," but that doesn't seem to be the case with (most) mentions of "bnei Yisrael."
@Alex What else would you call the Jews? B'ne Aharon could be called hakohanim. (Conjecture.)
@msh210 I wonder what the difference is between kol adat yisrael and kol adat b'nei yisrael.
@msh210 Just call them "Yisrael," maybe?
@MonicaCellio The former appears only in Ex 12.3 and Lv 4.13 (plus once in Y'hoshua), according to Google.
@Alex maybe.... do we find that appellation for the Jews anywhere in Chumash at all?
@msh210 In Lv 4.13 it refers to the sanhedrin, according to Rashi.
May 2, 2012 18:34
@msh210 Sure, for example Deut. 1:1: אשר דבר משה אל כל ישראל.
@Alex yeah, thanks
Or 27:9: הסכת ושמע ישראל.
Or sh'ma :-)
Only in Dt?
@msh210 In direct address, maybe. In third person, there's for example Ex. 15:22: ויסע משה את ישראל.
Come to think of it, in our parshah (17:3, 8, 10) there's בית ישראל - which could also be a gender-neutral designation.
@Alex ah, thanks. So then, yes, it could easily say "daber el Yisrael", so your question about "v'lo b'nos" stands
@Alex I seem to recall someone's explaining why "bes Yisrael" is chosen in certain places. Someone modern, or fairly so
May 2, 2012 18:39
@Alex these verses all also say ish
beit yisrael vs b'nei yisrael vs yisrael is an interesting difference.
@MonicaCellio ...vs "adas b'ne Yisrael" vs "adas Yisrael", and each of those with/without "kol" ahead of it
@msh210 I should check whether Malbim talks about any of these in Ayeles Hashachar
@msh210 yes, good point.
@Alex what is Ayeles Hashachar, please? I've heard of it but never seen it and don't know what it is.
@msh210 His introduction to the commentary on Vayikra (which is a supercommentary on Sifra, mostly). He lists there 613 rules of Hebrew grammar, syntax, use of extra words, etc., and how those are used by Chazal to derive halachos
May 2, 2012 18:44
@Alex Cool. Thanks. I'll have to check it out some time (soon be"H).
@Alex sounds interesting. Thanks for explaining.
@msh210 @MonicaCellio Okay, one thing I see he says is that עדה means some kind of Sanhedrin (even just a local one), whereas עדת ישראל means the national Sanhedrin
@Alex So Ex 12.3 was relayed to the Sanhedrin (whatever that meant at the time) and, by them, to the Jews?
@Alex wow, that's a far cry from the common translation of "congregation".
@msh210 I guess so, the more so because they'd have to supervise and make sure that everyone is doing it right
May 2, 2012 18:49
@Alex No more so than any other mitzva afaict. ?
@MonicaCellio Right, he says that that's the difference between kahal and edah: a kahal is just a gathering of people, an edah is a gathering at a specific time and with a specific agenda
@msh210 Dunno, but maybe because this was the first time they were going to be doing it?
@Alex eidah, like in eid, who testifies before a court? Versus kahal which is just a group?
@MonicaCellio Actually, he derives edah from "yaad" (same root as "moed"). "Eid" sounds like it might be a different root, but I don't know.
@Alex ah, ok -- I don't know the root for eid, and with only two letters present it's hard for me to guess. (Dictionaries are at home; I'm not.)
@Alex Doubtless RSRH would relate them somehow.
...as perhaps would the two-letter-root proponents
May 2, 2012 19:01
I think I'm going to have to take off from our "edah" here for now, and get back to work. Thanks, @msh210, @MonicaCellio, @jake and @ShmuelBrin for an interetsting discussion, as always!
Thanks all; I was just typing that I need to drop off too.
Oh, sorry, I missed the end time too, didn't I.
End of Parashat Hashavua' chat. There we go. :-)
 
Conversation ended May 2, 2012 at 19:02.